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What is Gemin2's crucial function in snRNP assembly? | Structure of a key intermediate of the SMN complex reveals Gemin2's crucial function in snRNP assembly. |
What is the elevation of cerebrospinal fluid vaccinia virus antibody? | Multiple sclerosis and elevation of cerebrospinal fluid vaccinia virus antibody. |
What is the hypothesized theory of herniated disc? | It is hypothesized on the basis of experimental intervertebral disc degeneration that herniated disc is actually newly synthesized proliferative metaplastic fibrocartilage and not herniation of pre-existing disc tissue, particularly that of the nucleus pulposus. Human material in selected surgical tissues was examined to test this concept. Histology revealed evidence for proliferative fronts of fibroblastic cells in herniated discs with hypocellular interiors. Hydroxypyridinium cross-link assay was used to determine the maturity of the collagen. Results indicated, with statistical significance, that herniated disc is a younger tissue than in situ annulus fibrosis, and that herniated disc is not from the nucleus pulposus, thus supporting the hypothesis. |
What is the nutritional and respiratory health of children in six Central and Eastern European countries? | Nutrition and respiratory health in children in six Central and Eastern European countries. |
- Presence of free fragment disc herniation at the index level or at either | - Presence of free fragment disc herniation at the index level or either adjacent level; |
What is the name of the enzyme that catalyzes the dehydrogenation of | Formaldehyde dehydrogenase (PFDH) was isolated from the creatinine-decomposing bacterium Pseudomonas putida, and its gene has been cloned. PFDH is unique because it was the only enzyme that catalyzed the dehydrogenation of formaldehyde without glutathione. PFDH belongs to a zinc-containing alcohol dehydrogenase family. Quantitative analysis of the reaction products using NMR revealed that the enzyme is not simply a dehydrogenase but is an aldehyde dismutase catalyzing a simultaneous conversion of both aldehyde to carboxylate and aldehyde to alcohol. The enzyme contains a tightly bound cofactor of NAD+/NADH per subunit and is classified as a nicotinoprotein. The enzyme reaction can proceed without external addition of the nucleotide cofactor. The formaldehyde was crystallized using the hanging-drop vapor diffusion method with ammonium sulfate as a precipitant. The crystal structure was determined using the multiwavelength anomalous diffraction method with intrinsic zinc ions. The overall structure of PFDH is similar to that of a classic horse liver alcohol dehydrogenase. However, a comparison of these structures indicated that the insertion loop specifically found in PFDH may be responsible for the tight binding of the cofactor, thereby making PFDH a dismutase. |
Modic III changes on MRI images (31). | - Modic III changes on MRI images (31). |
What is the name of the new genetic markers associated with sudden cardiac death? | An increasing number of patients receive implantable cardioverter-defibrillators for primary and secondary prevention of sudden cardiac death. Within this group, it is difficult to differentiate between patients at high risk with need for additional treatment and, on the other hand, patients at low risk without benefit from implantable cardioverter-defibrillator therapy. Risk stratification techniques have been studied extensively over the last decades, but no conclusive recommendations can be found in the current guidelines for prevention of SCD. Furthermore, new genetic markers associated with sudden cardiac death were discovered recently, however, have not been implemented in concurrent risk analysis. Last, time dependent changes of risk stratification assessment are unknown. |
What cancer has been found in the past 5 years? | - No other cancer within the past 5 years except for nonmelanoma skin cancer and cervical cancer |
What is the prevalence of respiratory diseases in the bioclimatic zones of the Primorye | [The prevalence of respiratory diseases in the bioclimatic zones of the Primorye Territory]. |
What is the clinically significant ECG alterations as judged by a medical investigator? | - Clinically significant ECG alterations as judged by a medical investigator. |
- No concurrent participation in other experimental studies? | - No concurrent participation in other experimental studies |
What is a technique used to repair pectus excavatum and intracardi | A technique for concurrent repair of pectus excavatum and intracardiac defects. |
What was the cost of the most expensive medical conditions in 1997? | Spending and service use among people with the fifteen most costly medical conditions, 1997. |
What was the dolichol pathway regulated with? | The dolichol pathway serves in the synthesis of the dolichol-linked oligosaccharide precursor for protein N-glycosylation. Recently, we reported that mRNAs of genes that function at the early steps in the dolichol pathway in yeast, ALG7, ALG1 and ALG2, were co-ordinately induced following growth stimulation of G0-arrested cells in a manner similar to that of the transcripts of the early growth response genes (Kukuruzinska, M.A. and Lennon, K. Glycobiology, 4, 437-443, 1994). To determine whether the entire dolichol pathway was co-ordinately regulated with growth, we examined the expression of genes functioning late in the pathway, including two genes encoding oligosaccharyltransferase subunits, at two critical control points in the G1 phase of cell cycle: G0/G1 and START. We show that early in G1, at the G0/G1 transition point, the late ALG genes and the two oligosaccharyltransferase-encoding genes examined were regulated co-ordinately with the early ALG genes: they were downregulated upon exit from the mitotic cell cycle into G0, and they were induced following growth stimulation in the absence of de novo protein synthesis. All the dolichol pathway genes produced transcripts with short half-lives that were rapidly stabilized in the presence of cycloheximide. In contrast, cell division arrest late in G1, at START, was accompanied by a selective downregulation of only the first dolichol pathway gene, ALG7, and not of the genes functioning later in the pathway. These results indicate that, depending on their position in G1, cells either co-ordinately or differentially regulate the dolichol pathway genes. |
What is the name of the patient with abnormal Hemoglobin disorders? | 1. Patients with abnormal Hemoglobin disorders. |
What is the de novo lesion at native coronary artery? | - De novo lesion at native coronary artery(Up to two target lesions) |
What was the first documented halothane anaesthetic followed by? | This report describes a patient who required 12 anaesthetics over a period of 25 yr. Halothane was used on at least five occasions. The first documented halothane anaesthetic was followed by jaundice. Subsequently, he received at least four halothane anaesthetics, all of which were followed by illness attributable possibly to hepatotoxicity. He also received five nonhalothane anaesthetics, none of which was followed by postoperative illness. This case history shows strong evidence of halothane causing hepatotoxicity. It also shows an inverse relationship between the severity of the disease and the interval between halothane exposures. It is presented as evidence in favour of the advice on using halothane issued by the Committee on Safety of Medicines. |
What is the name of the subject that is active ocular disease? | - Subjects with an active ocular disease or who are using any ocular medication. |
What is the name of the EXCLUSION CRITERIA? | EXCLUSION CRITERIA: |
Spontaneous renal hemorrhage. | Spontaneous renal hemorrhage. |
How many patients had tethered tumors? | PURPOSE: This is a Phase I/II study of preoperative concurrent radiation and chemotherapy in tethered and fixed rectal carcinoma. This study examined the curative resectability, the acute toxicities during chemo-radiation and the surgical complications. METHODS AND MATERIALS: Between 1986 and 1990, 46 patients were treated with preoperative pelvic radiation (4000 cGy in 20 fractions in 4 weeks), 5-Fluorouracil infusion (20 mg/m2, days 1-4 and 15-18) and Mitomycin C (8 mg/m2, day 1). This was followed by surgery 6 to 8 weeks later. 30 patients had tethered tumors and 16 patients had fixed tumors. RESULTS: After preoperative chemo-radiation, 41 patients (89%) underwent curative resection. Two patients (4%) had no residual tumor found (T0N0M0). Seven patients (15%) had nodal metastases. Two patients developed grade 3 neutropenia (WBC = 1-2 x 10(9)/L) during chemo-radiation. Five patients had delay in perineal wound healing. One patient had an anastomotic leak. Four patients developed stomal stenosis which required surgical revision. The 2-year actuarial survival was 73%. The 2-year local relapse rate was 16%. Patients with fixed carcinoma had a higher incidence of local failure (38% vs. 10%) and the difference was statistically significant (p = 0.0036). The 2-year distant failure rate was 41%, and the rates were similar for both tethered and fixed carcinomas. CONCLUSION: Preoperative pelvic radiation, chemotherapy and surgery could achieve a curative resection rate of 89% in tethered and fixed rectal carcinomas. However, distant metastases remained the major cause of failure. |
What is the murine homologue of the Drosophila melanogaster flightless | Fliih, the murine homologue of the Drosophila melanogaster flightless I gene: nucleotide sequence, chromosomal mapping and overlap with Llglh. |
What is the risk of driving a car or operating machinery? | This may constitute a risk in situations where these abilities are of special importance (e. g. driving a car or operating machinery). |
Cohort study: | Cohort study: |
Ability to complete the study in compliance with the protocol? | 6. Ability to complete the study in compliance with the protocol |
What is the name of the viraferonPeg that can cause a | Very rarely, ViraferonPeg alone or in combination with ribavirin may cause aplastic anaemia. |
What are the key exclusion criteria? | Key Exclusion Criteria: |
What is the name of the consortium that was successful in obtaining EU funding for the development of | This paper describes the current situation concerning medical implants and suggests why the number of available devices is so limited. It then goes on to describe how a consortium was established from an EU network focussing specifically on Medical Devices. This consortium was successful in obtaining EU funding for the development of a range of medical implants that will help patients with specific disabilities relating to the nervous system, including deafness, blindness, lack of limb motion and urinary incontinence. |
What is the name of the company that is based in Sverige Merck Sharp | Sverige Merck Sharp & Dohme (Sweden) AB, Tel: +46 (0) 8 626 1400 medicinskinfo@merck. com |
What is the name of the device that can be used to localize the lead cap prior to | In deep brain stimulation (DBS) surgery, after intracranial lead implantation, lead caps are tunneled into the subgaleal space for later connection to internal pulse generator (IPG) extension wires. In the subsequent IPG implantation procedure, the lead cap must be localized by palpation in order to plan an incision in the scalp to complete this connection. However, if the IPG implantation is done the same day as the intracranial lead implantation, palpation of the lead cap may be challenging in a thick or postoperatively edematous scalp. Manufacturers suggest using fluoroscopy in these instances, but fluoroscopy provides poor soft tissue visualization, requires further unnecessary radiation exposure to both the patient and the surgical team, and can be cumbersome. Portable ultrasound (US) machines are readily available in many operating rooms, and can be used to easily and accurately localize the lead cap prior to IPG implantation. |
What is the pharmacokinetic response to impaired renal function? | BACKGROUND: Because of the risk of accumulation of anticoagulant effect, it has been suggested that patients with a creatinine clearance of 30 mL/min or less (< or =0.50 mL/s) should be excluded from treatment with low-molecular-weight (LMW) heparin, or have anti-factor Xa heparin level monitoring performed. OBJECTIVE: To assess the appropriateness of this recommendation. METHODS: We performed a systematic search of MEDLINE, EMBASE, and International Pharmaceutical Abstracts to identify prospective articles comparing differences in the pharmacokinetics of LMW heparins in nondialyzed patients with varying degrees of renal function. Reference lists of retrieved reports were checked for additional articles. RESULTS: Three single-dose pharmacokinetic trials and 2 multiple-dose deep vein thrombosis (treatment trials met our selection criteria. The 3 trials that could address our primary objective did not support the use of a 30-mL/min (0.50-mL/s) cutoff of creatinine clearance to select individuals at risk of accumulation when LMW heparin is used. Four of the 5 trials support the notion that anti-factor Xa activity of some LMW heparin preparations accumulates in patients with impaired creatinine clearance. Tinzaparin sodium, an LMW heparin with a higher-than-average molecular weight distribution, appears to be the exception, since it did not exhibit accumulation in patients with creatinine clearances as low as 20 mL/min (0.33 mL/s). CONCLUSIONS: The use of a 30-mL/min (0.50-mL/s) cutoff is not justified, on the basis of currently available evidence, to select individuals at increased risk of accumulation when LMW heparin is used. The pharmacokinetic response to impaired renal function may differ among LMW heparin preparations. |
What is the NAME of the VETERINARY MEDICINAL PRODUCT | NAME OF THE VETERINARY MEDICINAL PRODUCT |
What is the name of the error in replication errors? | Replication errors: cha(lle)nging the genome. |
How many patients were admitted to this randomised single blind study? | Colloidal bismuth subcitrate (CBS) in the form of a chewable tablet has been compared with ranitidine in the short-term treatment of benign gastric ulcers. Eighty patients were admitted to this randomised single blind study. Endoscopic control was carried out after 4 weeks, and after 8 weeks when healing was incomplete or had not occurred at the 4-week examination. After 1 month of therapy the healing rates were 70% with CBS and 62.5% with ranitidine (P = not significant). At two months the corresponding cure rates were 87.5% and 79%, respectively (P = not significant). Antacid consumption was higher in the group treated with ranitidine, but the difference was not statistically significant. Patient cooperation was good and similar in the two groups. These findings confirm that CBS, in tablet form, is at least as effective as ranitidine in the acute treatment of benign gastric ulcers. |
How many patients were diagnosed with congenital heart disease? | BACKGROUND: A significant proportion of patients with congenital heart disease require surgery in adulthood. We aimed to give an overview of the prevalence, distribution, and outcome of cardiovascular surgery for congenital heart disease. We specifically questioned whether the effects of surgical treatment on subsequent long-term survival depend on sex. METHODS AND RESULTS: From the Dutch Congenital Corvitia (CONCOR) registry for adults with congenital heart disease, we identified 10 300 patients; their median age was 33.1 years. Logistic and Cox regression models were used to assess the association of surgery in adulthood with sex and with long-term survival. In total, 2015 patients (20%) underwent surgery for congenital heart disease in adulthood during a median follow-up period of 15.1 years; in 812 patients (40%), it was a reoperation. Overall, both first operations and reoperations in adulthood were performed significantly more often in men compared with women (adjusted odds ratio=1.4 [95% confidence interval, 1.2-1.6] and 1.2 [95% confidence interval, 1.0-1.4], respectively). Patients with their third and fourth or more surgery in adulthood had a 2- and 3-times-higher risk of death compared with patients never operated on (adjusted hazard ratio=1.9 [95% confidence interval, 1.0-3.6] and 2.7 [95% confidence interval, 1.1-6.3], respectively). Men with a reoperation in adulthood had a 2-times-higher risk of death than women (adjusted hazard ratio=1.9; 95% confidence interval, 1.0-3.5). CONCLUSIONS: Of predominantly young adults with congenital heart disease, one fifth required cardiovascular surgery during a 15-year period; in 40%, the surgery was a reoperation. Men with congenital heart disease have a higher chance of undergoing surgery in adulthood and have a consistently worse long-term survival after reoperations in adulthood compared with women. |
What are the OBJECTIVES of the OBJECTIVES? | OBJECTIVES: |
What is the acetylcholine of Hippocampal? | Hippocampal acetylcholine and habituation learning. |
What is the P-glycoprotein transport system? | The P-glycoprotein transport system and cardiovascular drugs. |
What is the name of the infants that spend prolonged periods on nasal CPAP or H | Some infants, especially infants born very preterm, spend prolonged periods on nasal CPAP or HHFNC. Normal oral feeding is often delayed in these children because respiratory support is needed. It has been shown that premature infants can show breastfeeding cues from a very early stage and if infants are given the opportunity breastfeeding can be well established. Recent studies have shown that early introduction of oral feeding in preterm neonates is not associated with adverse outcomes and leads to earlier establishment of full oral feeding and discharge home. |
What is the potential tumor suppressor gene in human primary cancers? | BACKGROUND: AKAP12/Gravin (A kinase anchor protein 12) is one of the A-kinase scaffold proteins and a potential tumor suppressor gene in human primary cancers. Our recent study demonstrated the highly recurrent loss of AKAP12 in colorectal cancer and AKAP12 reexpression inhibited proliferation and anchorage-independent growth in colorectal cancer cells, implicating AKAP12 in colorectal cancer pathogenesis. METHODS: To evaluate the effect of this gene on the progression and metastasis of colorectal cancer, we examined the impact of overexpressing AKAP12 in the AKAP12-negative human colorectal cancer cell line LoVo, the single clone (LoVo-AKAP12) compared to mock-transfected cells (LoVo-CON). RESULTS: pCMV6-AKAP12-mediated AKAP12 re-expression induced apoptosis (3% to 12.7%, p<0.01), migration (89.6+/-7.5 cells to 31.0+/-4.1 cells, p<0.01) and invasion (82.7+/-5.2 cells to 24.7+/-3.3 cells, p<0.01) of LoVo cells in vitro compared to control cells. Nude mice injected with LoVo-AKAP12 cells had both significantly reduced tumor volume (p<0.01) and increased apoptosis compared to mice given AKAP12-CON. The quantitative human-specific Alu PCR analysis showed overexpression of AKAP12 suppressed the number of intravasated cells in vivo (p<0.01). CONCLUSION: These results demonstrate that AKAP12 may play an important role in tumor growth suppression and the survival of human colorectal cancer. |
What was the name of the PCR product that was purified, cloned | OBJECTIVE: To determine and characterize inhA mutations of drug-resistant isolates of Mycobacterium tuberculosis. METHODS: PCR products of inhA of drug-resistant and susceptible isolates and H(37)R(v) were purified, cloned and analyzed by ABI 377 auto-DNA sequencing system. RESULTS: 11 out of 17 drug-resistant M. Tuberculosis isolates were detected having inhA variations. 10 out of the 11 strains with variations had at least one missense mutation. The variations consisted of point mutation (transition, transversion and deletion). Molecular mechanisms were different from strain to strain. 8 of 13 (62%) strains had both katG and inhA mutations. 18 variation positions and mechanisms different from previous report have been described. CONCLUSION: These results suggested that binding sites decrease caused by inhA point mutations be associated with M. tuberculosis' resistance to INH and EMB. |
How long does CG live with the patient? | - CG lives with and/or provides care for the patient for an average of at least 4 hours per day. |
What is the name of the two cases that have been diagnosed with HTLV-I? | Adult-onset infective dermatitis associated with HTLV-I. Clinical and immunopathological aspects of two cases. |
What is the name of the population that has been screened and treated? | Homocystinuria due to cystathionine beta-synthase deficiency in Ireland: 25 years' experience of a newborn screened and treated population with reference to clinical outcome and biochemical control. |
What was the first case series report? | OBJECTIVE: To describe the preliminary experience of an emergency medical services (EMS)-based follow-up program providing elderly patients access to community-based social services. METHODS: This was a retrospective, case series report. Inclusion criteria were adults aged 60 years and older requesting EMS for fall or lift assist; against medical advice (AMA) refusal of transport for a medical complaint; any social service or home care needs; request for nonmedical transportation; multiple prior EMS visits; or cases of elder abuse or neglect. Patients were identified either by paramedics at the time of the call or an EMS physician during routine chart review of "no-transport" calls. Patients were then contacted and offered referral follow-up with a social services worker. Data were collected for age, gender, presence of established social services, referral strategy, complaint type, referral acceptance rate, and follow-up plan. RESULTS: Seventy patients were referred over eight months. Paramedics provided 33% of referrals (23/70) as well as a significantly higher number of social service-related complaints (48% vs. 15%, p = 0.005). Follow-up from a fall occurred more often after EMS physician chart review (53% vs. 30%, p = 0.07). Rates of established social services were similar for patients who accepted and those who declined follow-up (89% vs. 90%, p = 0.95) and between patients who were referred by paramedics and those who were referred by EMS physicians (93% vs. 90%, p = 0.72). Paramedic referral was associated with a significantly higher rate of acceptance (94% vs. 28%, p < 0.001). CONCLUSION: EMS provides an invaluable opportunity to connect the elderly with social services at the time of contact. In this study, paramedics appeared to refer more social service-related complaints compared with other categories such as fall assistance. This highlights a difference in perception of social service needs among paramedics and represents an area for further training and education. |
What is the purpose of the study 3 and 4? | Study 3 and 4 are clinical randomised studies with the aim of studying whether treatment with VAC provides a faster and more effective healing of acute and postoperative wounds, and in what way the treatment affect the quality of life and pain of the patients, compared to conventional treatment. |
What is the name of the immunomodulatory antibodies that are used to treat mice with large tumor | Curing mice with large tumors by locally delivering combinations of immunomodulatory antibodies. |
How many MG patients were compared to MuSK-Ab? | OBJECTIVE: To compare the electrophysiological and histopathological features of immunological myasthenia gravis (MG) subtypes. METHODS: Fifty MG patients underwent clinical examination, MuSK-Ab and AChR-Ab analysis. The majority underwent quantitative and single-fiber electromyography (QEMG, SFEMG), repetitive nerve stimulation and deltoid muscle biopsy. From muscle specimens with histological mitochondrial dysfunction, we amplified mitochondrial DNA (mtDNA). In specimens with mtDNA deletions, the nuclear gene POLG1 was sequenced. RESULTS: Five AChR-Ab seropositive [AChR(+)] and 5 seronegative [AChR(-)] patients were MuSK-Ab seropositive [MuSK(+)]. Five of 7 neurophysiologically examined MuSK(+) patients (71%) had proximal myopathic pattern, compared to 7 of 31 MuSK(-)/AChR(+) patients (23%) (P=0.012). SFEMG was abnormal in all examined MuSK(+) patients. All 7 biopsied MuSK(+) and 32 MuSK(-) patients (89%) had cytochrome c oxidase (COX) negative fibers. Three of five MuSK(+) and 13 of 20 MuSK(-) patients analyzed had multiple mtDNA deletions but no POLG1 mutations. CONCLUSIONS: Similar degree of SFEMG abnormalities was present in proximal muscles among MuSK(+) and AChR(+) patients. Proximal myopathy was over-represented in MuSK(+) patients; however, both MuSK(+) and MuSK(-) patients had mild myopathy with frequent mitochondrial abnormalities. SIGNIFICANCE: The weakness in MuSK(+) patients is most likely due to disturbed neuromuscular transmission. The frequently encountered mitochondrial dysfunction in MG warrants further study. |
What is the name of the child that is kept away from? | Keep out of the reach and sight of children. |
What is the right of the employee as patient? | In summary, the rights of the employee as patient are essentially the same as they would be in any health care practitioner-patient relationship, whenever diagnosis and treatment are contemplated. When they are not involved and job fitness alone is at issue, the employee or potential employee has the right to expect that the practitioner will exercise reasonable skill and care in making the medical decision of employability. He probably also has the right to expect that any personal medical information generated in the course of making the decision remain confidential, unless it bears directly on his ability to do the job. |
- All non-ambulant, surgical, anesthetized patients (18 | - All non- ambulant, surgical, anesthetized patients (≥18 years) |
What is the most common type of STD in Ethiopia? | For cultural reasons modern contraception has been slow to gain acceptance in Ethiopia. Knowledge about contraception and abortion is still limited in many family and community settings in which it is socially disapproved. By 1990 only 4% of Ethiopian females aged 15-49 used contraception. Little is known of sexually transmitted disease (STD) prevalence in family planning (FP) attenders in Africa in general and Ethiopia in particular, even though attenders of family planning clinics (FPCs) are appropriate target groups for epidemiological studies and control programmes. A study of 2111 women of whom 542 (25.7%) attended FPCs in Addis Ababa showed utilisation rates to be highest in women who were: Tigre (33%) or Amhara (31%), aged 20-34 years (30%), age 16 or older at first marriage/coitus (28%:38% in those first married after 25 years); who had a monthly family income of 10 Ethiopian Birr (EB) or more (33%:36% for those with income 100-500 EB), three or more children (37%), more than five lifetime husbands/sexual partners (39%); or were bargirls (73%) or prostitutes (43%). The seroprevalence rates for all STDs, higher in FPC attenders compared with other women, were syphilis (TPHA) 39%, Neisseria gonorrhoeae 66%, genital chlamydia 64%, HSV-2 41%, HBV 40% and Haemophilus ducreyi 20%. Only 4% of FPC attenders had no serological evidence of STD: 64% were seropositive for 3 or more different STD. Clinical evidence of pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) was also more common in the FPC attenders (54%), 37% having evidence of salpingitis. The FPC provides a favourable setting for screening women likely to have high seroprevalence of STD, who for lack of symptoms will not attend either an STD clinic nor a hospital for routine check up. We recommend that measures be taken to adequately screen, treat and educate FPC attenders, their partners, and as appropriate and when possible their clients, in an attempt to control STDs and ultimately HIV in the community. Social, economic and cultural factors in the occurrence of STDs, prostitution, family planning and modern contraception coverage in Ethiopia are identified and deficiencies of current programmes briefly discussed with the objective of targeting services more effectively. |
What is the | Hepatic: |
How many patients had decreased blood pressure and kidney failure? | By their intervention upon the mechanisms regulating the vascular tone, renal plasma flow and direct actions of chemical structures, angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors may determine undesirable effects. These effects formed the object of a 5-year retrospective study (1995-1999) carried out at the IIIrd Medical Clinic of Iasi. During this interval ACE inhibitors were administrated to 2178 patients with hypertensive and coronary disorders or heart failure of various causes. Different generations of ACE inhibitors were used, but captopril, enalapril and lysinopril were the most commonly administered. Undesirable effects were recorded in 161 patients (7.3%). The following side-effects, single or associated, were recorded: 38 patients (23.6%) had increasing blood pressure proportional with ACEI dose, 80 patients (49.7%) had decreasing blood pressure at low doses ACEI, 23 patients (14.4%) had kidney failure, 2 patients (1.2%) had both increasing blood pressure and kidney failure, 3 patients (1.9%) had both decreasing blood pressure and kidney failure, 6 patients (3.8%) had dry cough, one patient (0.6%) had kidney failure with decrease blood pressure and allergic dermatitis, 4 patients (2.4%) had allergic dermatitis, and 4 patients (2.4%) had headache, vertigo, paresthesia. CONCLUSIONS: The treatment with ACE inhibitors has to be carefully initiated under strict clinical and biological monitoring, preferably in hospital setting. No drug associations that favor the undesirable effects of ACE inhibitors were reported. |
What was the SSCP analysis used to investigate the fluctuation of hepatitis | We investigated the fluctuation of hepatitis C virus (HCV) quasispecies during interferon therapy by single strand conformation polymorphism (SSCP) analysis. In 13 of 16 interferon ineffective patients, the predominant HCV population was replaced with other quasispecies during the treatment. Especially, in 9 patients, a part of the HCV quasispecies, pre-existing before interferon therapy, became predominant after the therapy. These results indicate that sensitivity to interferon differs among HCV quasispecies and that interferon selects resistant HCV strains. Existence of such HCV quasispecies seems to be associated with interferon treatment failure. |
Cirrhotic patients require blocker in primary prophylaxis of bleeding | Cirrhotic patients requiring β blocker in primary prophylaxis of bleeding esophageal varices |
What was the enzymatic colorimetric method used to determine FPG? | This was a cross-sectional study conducted in Bangkok and surrounding provinces. Approximately 1500 participants were enrolled. Study staff interviewed participants on basic demographic data, health status, physical activities, food frequency and 24-hour recall. Anthropometry (body weight, height, hip and waist circumference) and physical assessment (blood pressure)were measured. Ten milliliters of venous blood was drawn by venipuncture after a 12 h overnight fast for determination of fasting plasma glucose (FPG) and blood lipid concentrations (total cholesterol, triglyceride, and HDL-cholesterol). FPG was measured by the enzymatic colorimetric method with glucose oxidase.21 Total cholesterol was determined by the cholesterol oxidase method and serum triglycerides concentration was determined by standardized enzymatic procedures using glycerol phosphate oxidase assay.22, 23 HDL- cholesterol was measured by enzymatic assays.24 LDL cholesterol was calculated according to the method of Friedwald et al.25 All samples were analyzed when internal quality control met the acceptable criteria. Intra-and inter-assay CVs were 2.01% and 3.01% for FPG, 1.87% and 4.24% for total cholesterol, 0.93% and 11.6% for triacylglycerols, and 0.99% and 1.49% for HDL cholesterol, respectively. |
- Prior knee arthroplasty - Prior knee arthroplasty | - Prior knee arthroplasty |
What is the hypothesis that a drug blocking atrial specific and atria-pre | - The hypothesis is that a drug blocking atrial specific and atria-preferential dynamics of ionic currents (IK,ACh and INa, respectively) will be more effective to terminate paroxysmal AF episodes with fast atrial activation rates, than a classical INa blocker, which will be more effective to terminate AF episodes with slower activation rates. |
What is the purpose of a short chemoprophylaxis regimen? | [Compliance, tolerance and effectiveness of a short chemoprophylaxis regimen for the treatment of tuberculosis]. |
What is the Tanita 310? | - Weight/BMI/ body composition with the Tanita 310. |
Inclusion Criteria: | Inclusion Criteria: |
How many SNPs were genotyped in 207 glioma cases? | We conducted an exploratory investigation of whether variation in six common SNPs of xeroderma pigmentosum complementation group F (XPF) is associated with risk of glioma in a Chinese population. Six single nucleotide polymorphisms (SNPs) were genotyped in 207 glioma cases and 236 cancer-free controls by a 384-well plate format on the Sequenom MassARRAY platform (Sequenom, San Diego, USA). The rs1800067 G and rs2276466 G allele frequencies were significantly higher in the glioma group than controls. Individuals with the rs1800067 GG genotype were at greater risk of glioma when compared with the A/A genotype in the codominant model, with an OR (95% CI) of 2.63 (1.04-7.25). The rs2276466 polymorphism was significantly associated with moderate increased risk of glioma in codominant and dominant models, with ORs (95% CI) of 1.90 (1.05-3.44) and 1.55 (1.07-2.47), respectively. The combination genotype of rs1800067 G and rs2276466 G alleles was associated with a reduced risk of glioma (OR=0.44, 95% CI=0.19-0.98). These findings indicate that genetic variants of the XPF gene have critical functions in the development of glioma. |
What is the current treatment, or anticipation that the patient may need to initiate treatment during the study | - current treatment, or anticipation that the patient may need to initiate treatment during the study, with drugs that may interact with study medication. |
Predicting treatment outcome in stimulant dependence? | Predicting treatment outcome in stimulant dependence. |
What is the toxicity of antitumor treatment? | 3. Unresolved toxicity from prior antitumor treatment(s). |
What is the main difficulty for automatic methods? | Accurate localization and identification of vertebrae in spinal imaging is crucial for the clinical tasks of diagnosis, surgical planning, and post-operative assessment. The main difficulties for automatic methods arise from the frequent presence of abnormal spine curvature, small field of view, and image artifacts caused by surgical implants. Many previous methods rely on parametric models of appearance and shape whose performance can substantially degrade for pathological cases. We propose a robust localization and identification algorithm which builds upon supervised classification forests and avoids an explicit parametric model of appearance. We overcome the tedious requirement for dense annotations by a semi-automatic labeling strategy. Sparse centroid annotations are transformed into dense probabilistic labels which capture the inherent identification uncertainty. Using the dense labels, we learn a discriminative centroid classifier based on local and contextual intensity features which is robust to typical characteristics of spinal pathologies and image artifacts. Extensive evaluation is performed on a challenging dataset of 224 spine CT scans of patients with varying pathologies including high-grade scoliosis, kyphosis, and presence of surgical implants. Additionally, we test our method on a heterogeneous dataset of another 200, mostly abdominal, CTs. Quantitative evaluation is carried out with respect to localization errors and identification rates, and compared to a recently proposed method. Our approach is efficient and outperforms state-of-the-art on pathological cases. |
How many cases of squamous cell carcinoma of the anus were examined for HP | Sixteen cases of squamous cell carcinoma of the anus, including 4 incidentally discovered in situ lesions, and 3 anal condylomas, were examined for the presence of human papillomavirus (HPV). All in situ tumors and 6 of the invasive tumors were associated with histologic changes typical of condyloma, despite the absence of clinical anogenital warts. Immunohistochemical studies for viral capsid antigen gave positive reactions in two anal warts and in the condylomatous area associated with one invasive tumor. In situ hybridization was accomplished using isotopic DNA probes for HPV 6/11, 16, 18, and 31. Human papillomavirus 6/11 was expressed in the corresponding capsid-positive regions in the two warts and the wart-associated invasive carcinoma. Both HPV 6/11 and HPV 16 were associated with one carcinoma in situ, and HPV 16 was also found within two invasive anal carcinomas, one of which was associated with an extensive vulvar cancer. While these observations do not resolve the "passenger" or direct oncogenic role for HPV in anal carcinoma, the circumstantial evidence is that the oncogenic influence is similar to that accepted for female genital tract cancer. |
What is the name of the study that will enroll up to 50 subjects? | This single-center, prospective, single blind, randomized study will enroll up to 50 subjects who are scheduled for elective hydrocelectomy and/or hernia repair. At Beaumont Health System, post-operative pain management in children is managed either via oral/parenteral opiates and opiate adjuncts, surgeon-administered field blocks (instillation of local anesthetics in the general area of incision), or via regional techniques (spinal, epidural, or peripheral nerve blocks). We have designed this study to determine if there is improved qualitative and quantitative post-operative pain control in patients receiving TAP block versus intraoperative peri-incisional, surgeon administered field block. Once informed consent has been given, each patient will be randomized (like flip of the coin) to either Transverse Abdominis Plane Block (TAP Block)or surgeon administered anesthesia. |
What is the potential correlation between skin cholesterol levels obtained via skin biopsy and evidence of atheros | BACKGROUND: A potential correlation between skin cholesterol levels obtained via skin biopsy and evidence of underlying atherosclerosis has been reported. With the availability of a noninvasive method of skin cholesterol measurement, multiple studies investigated the association of skin cholesterol and traditional cardiovascular risk factors. We provide a systematic review of clinical data to assist physicians counselling patients that have undergone skin cholesterol testing and to provide a framework for future research. METHODS: Multiple electronic databases were systematically searched for studies published from 1970 through February 2013. Selection criteria included English language, peer-reviewed studies that quantitatively examined the relationship between noninvasively measured skin cholesterol levels and indices of vascular disease or cardiovascular risk factors in human subjects. RESULTS: We identified 9 cohorts reported in 11 studies. The studies suggest that skin cholesterol does not correlate with traditional markers of cardiovascular disease such as serum lipid values and inflammatory markers, and integrated risk scores (Framingham and Prospective Cardiovascular Munster [PROCAM]). Single studies reported a significant relationship between skin cholesterol levels and evidence of underlying atherosclerosis as implied by positive exercise testing, invasive coronary angiography, increased calcium scores in Caucasian patients, and presence of carotid plaque detected using B-mode ultrasound. Two studies identified a significant relationship using B-mode measurements of carotid intima medial thickening. CONCLUSIONS: Skin cholesterol might be a marker of underlying vascular atherosclerosis. Further prospective investigations are warranted to establish utility of this point-of-care test for identifying subjects warranting formal cardiovascular risk assessment. |
What is the risk of coronary heart disease risk? | Leptin and coronary heart disease risk: prospective case control study of British women. |
What is the BATCH NUMBER? | BATCH NUMBER |
What is the key role of T2D and pancreatic cancer? | At the time of diagnosis, almost 80% of pancreatic cancer patients present with new-onset type 2 diabetes (T2D) or impaired glucose tolerance. T2D and pancreatic cancer are both associated with low-grade inflammation. Tumour-associated macrophages (TAMs) have a key role in cancer-related inflammation, immune escape, matrix remodelling and metastasis. In this study, the interplay between tumour cells and immune cells under the influence of different glucose levels was investigated. Human peripheral blood mononuclear cells were exposed in vitro to conditioned medium from BxPC-3 human pancreatic cancer cells, in normal (5 mM) or high (25 mM) glucose levels. Flow cytometry analyses demonstrated that tumour-derived factors stimulated differentiation of macrophages, with a mixed classical (M1-like) and alternatively activated (M2-like) phenotype polarisation (CD11c(+)CD206(+)). High-glucose conditions further enhanced the tumour-driven macrophage enrichment and associated interleukin (IL)-6 and IL-8 cytokine levels. In addition, hyperglycaemia enhanced the responsiveness of tumour-educated macrophages to lipopolysaccharide, with elevated cytokine secretion compared with normal glucose levels. Tumour-educated macrophages were found to promote pancreatic cancer cell invasion in vitro, which was significantly enhanced at high glucose. The anti-diabetic drug metformin shifted the macrophage phenotype polarisation and reduced the tumour cell invasion at normal, but not high, glucose levels. In conclusion, this study demonstrates that pancreatic cancer cells stimulate differentiation of macrophages with pro-tumour properties that are further enhanced by hyperglycaemia. These findings highlight important crosstalk between tumour cells and TAMs in the local tumour microenvironment that may contribute to disease progression in pancreatic cancer patients with hyperglycaemia and T2D. |
What is the glucagon-like peptide-1 produced in the human and | Glucagon-like peptide-1 (GLP-1) is produced both in the human and rat intestine and brain. The release of GLP-1 into the blood is mediated by factors of neural and hormonal origin and is stimulated by the presence of nutrients in the digestive tract, while the enzyme dipeptidyl peptidase IV and the kidneys are responsible for, respectively, the rapid degradation and excretion of the hormone. Peripherally secreted GLP-1 enhances insulin synthesis and release and maintains the normal anatomical status of pancreatic islets. Diminished GLP-1 response to ingested food, associated with attenuated insulin release and glucose intolerance, was found in non-insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus. GLP-1 replacement in diabetic subjects normalized these parameters, thus indicating a role for this peptide in the pathogenesis of type 2 diabetes. GLP-1 might also be involved in the pathophysiology of obesity and stress to some extent. Both peripheral and central GLP-1 are probably involved in the control of feeding centers as an anorexic agent. GLP-1 affects the activity of the hypothalamo-pituitary-adrenal axis both under basal and stress conditions, including taste aversion learning. Hence, GLP-1-dependent pathophysiological mechanisms may participate in the pathogenesis of the most common metabolic and behavioral disorders. |
What is the tPA antigen hypothesised to be? | Endogenous tissue-type plasminogen activator (tPA) has been hypothesised to be a marker of baseline fibrinolytic capacity. We therefore tested whether tPA antigen is associated with the occurrence of future myocardial infarction (MI) among apparently healthy individuals. tPA antigen concentrations were measured at baseline in plasma samples from 231 apparently healthy men from the Physicians' Health Study cohort who later developed MI, and in an equal number of controls matched for age and smoking habit who remained free of reported cardiovascular disease during a follow-up of 60.2 months. In crude matched-pair analyses, baseline concentrations of tPA antigen were higher in cases than controls (p = 0.03) and strongly associated with risk of future MI. Specifically, the relative risks of developing a first MI from lowest (referent) to highest quintiles of tPA antigen were 1.00, 1.27, 1.75, 1.88, and 2.81 (p for trend 0.0008, 95% CI for the relative risk in the fifth as compared with first quintile 1.47 to 5.37, p = 0.002). Analyses which adjusted for risk factors that affect progression of atherosclerosis, particularly HDL-cholesterol, abolished the statistical significance of this association, a finding which suggests that elevations of tPA antigen are a result rather than a cause of atherosclerotic coronary disease. These prospective data suggest that endogenous tPA concentrations increase as a consequence of important preclinical atherosclerosis and therefore may be a marker for risk of future MI. |
What is the social constraint and distress among women at familial risk for breast cancer? | Social constraints and distress among women at familial risk for breast cancer. |
What is the name of the name of the sex | Not known: |
What was the most common symptoms of chemical war victims? | Pulmonary complications due to mustard gas exposure range from no effect to severe bronchial stenosis. Pulmonary function tests (PFTs) and respiratory symptoms in chemical war victims were studied 23-25 years after exposure to sulfur mustard (SM). Respiratory symptoms were evaluated in a sample of 142 chemical war victims and 120 control subjects with similar age from the general population using a questionnaire including questions on respiratory symptoms in the past year. PFT values were also measured in chemical war victims before and 15 min after the inhalation of 200 microg salbutamol and baseline PFT in controls. All chemical war victims (100%) reported respiratory symptoms. Wheezing (66.19%), cough (64.78%), and chest tightness (54.4%) were the most common symptoms and only 15.5% of chemical war victims reported sputum (p < 0.01 for sputum and p < 0.001 for other symptoms compared with control group). In addition, 49.3% of chemical war victims had wheeze in chest examination, which were significantly higher than control group (p < 0.001). The severity of respiratory symptoms was also significantly higher than control subjects (p < 0.05 for sputum and p < 0.001 for other symptoms). All the PFT values were also significantly lower in chemical war victims than that in control subjects (p < 0.001 for all cases). In addition, all the PFT values improved significantly after the inhalation of 200 microg salbutamol (p < 0.05-p < 0.001). These results showed that chemical war victims, 23-25 years after exposure to chemical warfare have higher frequencies and severity of respiratory symptoms. PFT values were also significantly reduced among chemical war victims, which showed reversibility due to the inhalation of 200 microg salbutamol. |
What is the name of the T cells that are regulated in cancer immunotherapy? | Regulatory T cells in cancer immunotherapy. |
How many arterial pressure recordings would the investigators collect at one minute interval in the immediate postin | The investigators aim to perform preoperative bed side Transthoracic echocardiography in 150 American society of Anesthesiologists grade-I/II patients posted for routine General anaesthesia procedures and assess their volume status . Then the investigators would collect 10 mean arterial pressure recordings at one minute interval in the immediate postinduction period and assess the accuracy of TTE in identifying potential patients at risk of developing post induction hypotension. |
What is the effect of hemocoagulase in abdominal operation? | [Hemocoagulase in abdominal operation and its effect on hemoagglutination]. |
What is Erythema nodosum associated with? | Erythema nodosum associated with acute cytomegalovirus mononucleosis in an adult. |
What PARTICULARS APPEAR ON THE OUTER PACKAGING AND THE | 25 PARTICULARS TO APPEAR ON THE OUTER PACKAGING AND THE IMMEDIATE PACKAGING |
What is a Delphi approach to reach consensus on? | A Delphi approach to reach consensus on primary care guidelines regarding youth violence prevention. |
Ages - Ages - 21 to 49 years? | - Ages - 21 to 49 years |
What is the name of the name of the book that was written by the author of the book | Miscellaneous: |
What is the medical history of the patient? | - Medical history and / or surgical judged by the investigator or his representative as being incompatible with the test, especially subjects with neuropathic pain |
What is the trial of adiuretin-SD use in von Wille | [A trial of adiuretin-SD use in von Willebrand's disease]. |
How many participants will be enrolled in this study? | Up to 72 participants will be enrolled in this study. All will take part at MD Anderson. |
Prior spine surgery. | - Prior spine surgery. |
What is the name of the nursing profession? | - Women who are nursing will be excluded. |
What was the tumor in Wilms? | Wilms tumor in a patient with 22q11.2 microdeletion. |
What is the name of the Asian School of Urology? | Asian School of Urology, Young Leaders' Workshop, Kyoto 2010. |
What type of sexuality are patients of? | 1. Patients of either sex aged 18 to 80 years inclusive. |
What is the exclusion criteria? | Exclusion Criteria: |
Atherosclerotic plaque plaque plaque atherosclerotic plaque plaque plaque plaque | atherosclerotic plaque |
What is the biodistribution of three photosensitizers in dogs with | Biodistribution of three photosensitizers in dogs with spontaneous tumors. |
What is the name of the NY Heart Association class IV? | - Cardiogenic shock at time of randomization, refractory ventricular arrhythmias, or congestive heart failure (NY Heart Association class IV). |
What is the optimal salvage regimen not known? | Aggressive initial treatment of Primary Central Nervous System Lymphoma (PCNSL) has achieved prolonged survival and occasional cures. However, some patients do not respond to initial therapy and others relapse after an initial remission. The optimal salvage regimen is not known and many different strategies have been proposed. In this report we describe the efficacy of a combination of (90)Y-Ibritumomab Tiuxetan (Zevalin) and Temozolamide as a maintenance therapy for recurrent PCNS Lymphoma in two patients that are both alive and in complete remission after 9 and 10 months respectively. This combination merits further study and provides a reasonable therapeutic alternative for older patients with progressive PCNSL. |