query
stringlengths
3
6.52k
positive_document
sequencelengths
1
2
negative_document
sequencelengths
1
2
prompt
stringlengths
15
140
source
stringclasses
14 values
is it possible to save my relationship?
[ " In order to save and strengthen a relationship, both partners need to do their own inner work. “It's important for both individuals to work on themselves and connect with their core values and strengths,” Pawelski says. ... Only then can you work together as a couple to try to strengthen your relationship.”" ]
[ " In order to have healthy relationship dynamic, not only will you have to do your part, but it's only fair if you're expecting your partner to do the same. ... \"Yes, your partner should do the same but one person doing something different can move things onto a more positive path.\"", " By practicing sex with condoms, it's possible to have a healthy and complete romantic relationship with someone living with HIV. Taking a preventive medication such as PrEP or PEP can reduce the chances of exposure to HIV. If someone with HIV has an undetectable viral load, they can't transmit HIV to others." ]
Given a question, retrieve relevant passages that answer the question
gooaq
Do adhesive systems influence the color match of resin composites?
[ "This in vitro study evaluated the influence of adhesive systems on the color match of a resin composite with different translucencies. Sixty disk-shaped specimens were made with A2 and opaque A2 (OA2) shades of nanohybrid resin composite Z250 XT. Specimens of each shade (n = 30) were randomly reassigned to 3 subgroups according to adhesive system: a 2-step etch-and-rinse adhesive (Adper Single Bond Plus), a 2-step self-etch system (Clearfil SE Bond) and a universal adhesive (Scotchbond Universal Adhesive). The bonding agents were applied to resin composite specimens following the manufacturers' recommendations. Additionally, 5 disk samples of each adhesive system were prepared. Colorimetric evaluation (CIE L*a*b* system) was performed immediately after polishing the sample and application of the adhesive systems. Color changes (ΔE and ΔE00) were calculated between 2 measurements. Color coordinates L*, a* and b* of the adhesive disks were also assessed. The data obtained were analyzed using ANOVA and Tukey's post hoc test (α = 0.05)", "The application of Scotchbond Universal Adhesive to the resin composite A2 shade resulted in the highest color change (p<0.01; ΔE = 3.1 ± 0.7 and ΔE00 = 1.8 ± 0.4). However, no significant difference was observed among adhesive systems when applied to the resin composite OA2 shade (p>0.05). Scotchbond Universal Adhesive revealed augmented yellowing and greening in comparison with other experimental groups" ]
[ "The adhesive application affected the bond strength results significantly (p = 0.0001) (without adhesive>with adhesive). While aging conditions did not reduce the bond strength in the groups that received no adhesive (20 +/- 5.3 MPa non-aged and 21.5 +/- 5.6 aged) (p = 0.1698), it significantly affected the bond strength results of the group with adhesive application (18 +/- 4.4 MPa to 14.4 +/- 4.7 MPa) (p<0.001). All groups showed mainly mixed type of failures between the ceramic and the resin cement (81% to 100%). The group in which no adhesive was applied presented a higher incidence of cohesive failure of ceramic after aging (18%) than those of the other groups", "Conditions of the acrylic resin (AR) surface, such as roughness, can promote a favourable environment for the adhesion of micro-organisms, even on the surface of ocular prostheses. This study evaluated the influence of photopolymerized glaze application on the roughness of ARs and adhesion of Staphylococcus aureus and Staphylococcus epidermidis on ocular AR surfaces submitted to accelerated ageing. Two hundred and eighty-eight samples of white colour (N1) and colourless ARs were distributed in eight groups (n = 9), based on surface treatments (glaze or ARs submitted to only a final polishing), accelerated ageing (before and after) and periods of microbial growth (24- and 48-h). The roughness average (Ra) and total height of roughness profile (Rt) values were greater for the groups with glaze and increased for all groups after ageing. The microbial adhesion among the groups with and without glaze did not present a statistically significant difference. The ageing did not statistically affect the adhesion of Staph. epidermidis, but affected the adhesion of Staph. aureus, which presented an increase after 24 h of growth on only N1 AR with glaze. These results demonstrate that the glaze did not contribute to adhesion of Staph. aureus and Staph. epidermidis, which are responsible for most ocular prosthetic infections. SIGNIFICANCE AND IMPACT OF THE STUDY: Some recent evidence suggested that the surface finish of ocular prostheses influences the accumulation of deposits that can affect the interaction with pathogenic bacteria, increasing the probability of infections. In addition, surface deterioration over time can increase the roughness and, consequently, biofilm formation. Thus, a better understanding of the influence of surface finish on bacterial adhesion becomes extremely important. In this study, we tested a glaze for surface polishing compared to mechanical polishing, before and after ageing. The results suggest that the glaze did not contribute to microbial adhesion and might be useful in preventing possible prosthetic infections." ]
Given a question, retrieve relevant Pubmed passages that answer the question
qa_pairs
what is the difference between a proxy variable and an instrumental variable?
[ " An instrumental variable is used to help estimate a causal effect (or to alleviate measurement error). ... A proxy variable is a variable you use because you think it is correlated with the variable you are really interested in, but have no (or poor) measurement of." ]
[ " An independent variable is a variable believed to affect the dependent variable. Confounding variables are defined as interference caused by another variable. Extraneous variables are defined as any variable other than the independent and dependent variable.", " an IVP has all of the conditions specified at the same value of the independent variable in the equation (and that value is at the lower value of the boundary of the domain, thus the term 'initial' value), while a BVP has conditions specified at the extremes of the independent variable. For example." ]
Given a question, retrieve relevant passages that answer the question
gooaq
Does irradiation lead to susceptibility of hepatocytes to TNF-alpha mediated apoptosis?
[ "The pathogenesis of radiation-induced-liver-disease (RILD) is still unknown. We tested the hypothesis that irradiated liver macrophages influence the viability of radiation stressed hepatocytes. Hepatocytes and liver macrophages were isolated from rat liver, cultured and irradiated with doses of 2, 8, and 25 Gy. Cell viability was measured by trypan blue exclusion, and by annexin V/propidium iodide staining. TNF-alpha in the supernatants from liver macrophage cell culture was quantitatively detected by ELISA. TNF-alpha mRNA from liver macrophages was measured by real time PCR. Irradiation had no influence on cell viability. Apoptosis of irradiated hepatocytes was detected 24h after replacing 50% of medium with supernatants of irradiated liver macrophages 6 h after irradiation (32.0+/-5.8% compared to solely irradiated cells (12+/-2.9%, P=0.02)). In supernatants of hepatocytes, no TNF-alpha secretion could be measured. A radiation dependent increase was found in supernatants of liver macrophages. Addition of anti-TNF-alpha-antibodies to the supernatants of irradiated liver macrophages reduced apoptosis (20+/-0.9%). Incubation of irradiated hepatocytes with purified recombinant TNF-alpha increased apoptosis in irradiated hepatocytes. This effect could be abrogated by additional administration of TNF-alpha-antibodies" ]
[ "To characterize the relationship between cell-cycle progression and radiation-induced apoptosis in NSCLC cell lines with different p53 status. Cell lines with functional (H460, A549) and non-functional p53 (H661 and H520) were irradiated with 20 Gy. Multiparameter flow-cytometry was used to follow the progression of synchronized cells through the cell cycle after irradiation. Delayed apoptosis was observed after cell-cycle progression beyond the G2 block, either in the late G2/M-phase of the same cell cycle being irradiated (H661, H520) or in the G1-phase of the subsequent cell cycle (H460, A549). The apoptotic fraction in H661 and H520 was 60-80% at 144h after irradiation, higher than in A549 and H460 (5 and 35%, respectively). As an alternative to apoptosis in cells cycling beyond the G2 restriction point, hyperploid cells were generated by all cell lines. Inhibition of cell-cycle progression through the G2/M-phase efficiently reduced the induction of late apoptosis. After irradiation in S-phase, 50-60% of cells with functional p53 remained arrested at the G2 restriction point until 144 h post-irradiation, while only 20% of the H661 or H520 did so", "To assess the effects of tumor necrosis factor-α (TNF-α) in enhancing the radiosensitivity of lung cancer cells in vitro. A549 cells were exposed to γ-ray with or without TNF-α treatment. MTT assay was used to evaluate the cell viability, and flow cytometry was performed to assess the cell apoptosis. Western blotting was used to observe the expression of caspase-3 protein in the exposed cells. Compared with the exposed cells without TNF-α treatment, the cells treated with TNF-α showed significantly suppressed cell proliferation, increased the cell apoptosis, altered cell cycle, and increased caspase-3 protein expression after γ-ray exposure" ]
Given a question, retrieve relevant Pubmed passages that answer the question
qa_pairs
orthodontic financial coordinator salary
[ "(United States). Most Dental Financial Coordinators in the United States are women. The workforce as a whole earns a median of approximately $17.84 per hour. More than a third enjoy medical while about one-half get dental coverage.Vision coverage is also available to about a tenth.ental Financial Coordinators who work for 10 to 20 years in their occupation tend to earn about $40K. Seasoned workers who boast more than two decades of relevant experience enjoy a median salary of $45K, which is substantially larger than the medians reported by folks with fewer years on their resumes." ]
[ "As of December 2014, PayScale.com reported a median salary of $60,054 for MDS coordinators. Salaries may vary due to a variety of factors, including years of experience and location. Certifications and level of nursing are additional factors that contribute to salary amount.", "Average annual salary for a Orthodontics Office Manager is $45553 based on statistics in the U.S. as of 2015. The highest salary recorded was $61107. The lowest salary was $31854.These figures will vary on a state to state basis as these are averages across all 50 states. Median hourly wage for a Orthodontics Office Manager is $22.65 based on statistics in the U.S. as of 2015. The highest hourly rate recorded was $30.39. The lowest hourly rate recorded was $15.84.he lowest salary was $31854. These figures will vary on a state to state basis as these are averages across all 50 states. Median hourly wage for a Orthodontics Office Manager is $22.65 based on statistics in the U.S. as of 2015. The highest hourly rate recorded was $30.39. The lowest hourly rate recorded was $15.84." ]
Given a web search query, retrieve relevant passages that answer the query
msmarco
what is substance p in neurons
[ "BACKGROUND: Substance P modulates ion channels and the excitability of sensory neurons in pain pathways. Within the heterogeneous population of Dorsal Root Ganglia (DRG) primary sensory neurons, the properties of cells that are sensitive to Substance P are poorly characterized. To define this population better, dissociated rat DRG neurons were tested for their responsiveness to capsaicin, ATP and acid. Responses to ATP were classified according to the kinetics of current activation and desensitization. The same cells were then tested for modulation of action potential firing by Substance P.RESULTS: Acid and capsaicin currents were more frequently encountered in the largest diameter neurons. P2X3-like ATP currents were concentrated in small diameter neurons. Substance P modulated the excitability in 20 of 72 cells tested (28%). Of the Substance P sensitive cells, 10 exhibited an increase in excitability and 10 exhibited a decrease in excitability. There was no significant correlation between sensitivity to capsaicin and to Substance P. Excitatory effects of Substance P were strongly associated with cells that had large diameters, fired APs with large overshoots and slowly decaying after hyperpolarizations, and expressed acid currents at pH 7. No neurons that were excited by Substance P presented P2X3-like currents. In contrast, neurons that exhibited inhibitory effects of Substance P fired action potentials with rapidly decaying after hyperpolarizations.CONCLUSION: We conclude that excitatory effects of Substance P are restricted to a specific neuronal subpopulation with limited expression of putative nociceptive markers." ]
[ "To understand the functions of the neocortex, it is essential to characterize the properties of neurons constituting cortical circuits. Here, we focused on a distinct group of GABAergic neurons that are defined by a specific colocalization of intense labeling for both neuronal nitric oxide synthase (nNOS) and substance P (SP) receptor [neurokinin 1 (NK1) receptors]. We investigated the mechanisms of the SP actions on these neurons in visual cortical slices obtained from young glutamate decarboxylase 67-green fluorescent protein knock-in mice. Bath application of SP induced a nonselective cation current leading to depolarization that was inhibited by the NK1 antagonists in nNOS-immunopositive neurons. Ruthenium red and La(3+), transient receptor potential (TRP) channel blockers, suppressed the SP-induced current. The SP-induced current was mediated by G proteins and suppressed by D609, an inhibitor of phosphatidylcholine-specific phospholipase C (PC-PLC), but not by inhibitors of phosphatidylinositol-specific PLC, adenylate cyclase or Src tyrosine kinases. Ca(2+) imaging experiments under voltage clamp showed that SP induced a rise in intracellular Ca(2+) that was abolished by removal of extracellular Ca(2+) but not by depletion of intracellular Ca(2+) stores. These results suggest that SP regulates nNOS neurons by activating TRP-like Ca(2+)-permeable nonselective cation channels through a PC-PLC-dependent signaling pathway.", "Substance P (SP) is a candidate mediator along the brain-skin axis and can mimic the effects of stress to regulate melanogenesis. Previously, we and others have found that the regulation of SP for pigmentary function was mediated by neurokinin 1 receptor (NK1R). Emerging evidence has accumulated that psychologic stress can induce dysfunction in the cutaneous serotonin 5-hydroxytryptamine (5-HT)-5-HT1A/1B receptor system, thereby resulting in skin hypopigmentation. Moreover, NK1R and 5-HTR (except 5-HT3) belong to GPCR. The present study aimed at assessing the possible existence of NK1R-5-HTR interactions and related melanogenic functions. Western blot and PCR detection revealed that SP reduced expression of 5-HT1A receptor via the NK1 receptor. Biochemical analyses showed that NK1R and 5-HT1AR could colocalize and interact in a cell and in the skin. When the N terminus of the NK1R protein was removed NK1R surface targeting was prevented, the interaction between NK1R-5-HT1AR decreased, and the depigmentation caused by SP and WAY100635 could be rescued. Importantly, pharmaceutical coadministration of NK1R agonist (SP) and 5-HT1A antagonist (WAY100635) enhanced the NK1-5-HT1A receptor coimmunoprecipitation along with the depigmentary response. SP and WAY100635 cooperation elicited activation of a signaling cascade (the extracellular, regulated protein kinase p-JNK signaling pathway) and inhibition of p70S6K1 phosphorylation and greatly reduced melanin production in vitro and in vivo in mice and zebrafish. Moreover, the SP-induced depigmentation response did not be occur in 5-htr1aa+/- zebrafish embryos. Taken together, the results of our systemic study increases our knowledge of the roles of NK1R and 5-HT1AR in melanogenesis and provides possible, novel therapeutic strategies for treatment of skin hypo/hyperpigmentation.-Wu, H., Zhao, Y., Huang, Q., Cai, M., Pan, Q., Fu, M., An, X., Xia, Z., Liu, M., Jin, Y., He, L., Shang, J. NK1R/5-HT1AR interaction is related to the regulation of melanogenesis." ]
Given a question, retrieve Pubmed passages that answer the question
synthetic
Does psychiatric staff on the wards share attitudes on aggression?
[ "The concept of ward culture has been proposed as a reason for the often reported differences in treatment decisions when managing inpatient aggression. We therefore studied whether staff on wards actually shares similar perceptions and attitudes about aggression and whether the specialty of the ward on which the staff members work influences these opinions. The Attitudes Towards Aggression Scale was used to assess attitudes towards aggression in 31 closed psychiatric wards. Altogether 487 staff members working on the study wards were asked to fill in the scale. Respondent's gender, age, educational level, working experience on the current ward, and specialty of this ward (acute, forensic, rehabilitation) served as background variables. Most of the variance found was due to differences between individuals. Belonging to the personnel of a particular ward did not explain much of the variance" ]
[ "BACKGROUND: The present retrospective study is aimed at assessing the clinical and psychopathological correlates of violent behaviors in a sample of acute involuntary committed inpatients.SUBJECTS AND METHODS: Involuntary inpatients were retrospectively assessed for the presence of violent behaviors. Patients with and without overt hetero-aggressive behaviors were compared according to socio-demographic, clinical and psychopathological features. A stepwise backward logistic regression was performed in order to assess the variables most associated with the perpetration of violent acts. The sample of violent patients was then divided in two subgroups on the basis of the presence/absence of a serious mental illness (SMI). Bivariate analyses were performed between SMI and non-SMI violent patients.RESULTS: In the present sample of 160 inpatients, 88 (55%) perpetrated violent acts. Subjects who performed violence presented a higher rate of mood stabilizers prescription (p=0.038). The PANSS-excited component was positively associated with violent behaviors (p=0.027, Odds Ratio (OR)=1.14, Confidence Interval (CI) 1.01-1.28), whilst the PANSS-depressed/anxiety factor displayed a negative association (p=0.015, OR=0.78, CI 0.64-0.95). Violent inpatients diagnosed with SMI presented higher rehospitalization rate (p=0.009), longer length of stay (p=0.005), more frequent long-acting injectable antipsychotics prescription (p<0.001) and a higher positive symptoms severity as measured by the PANSS-positive factor (p=0.049).CONCLUSIONS: The clinical population of acute psychiatric inpatients performing violent behavior represents a specific and heterogeneous subgroup of patients for which prevention and treatment strategies should be addressed.", "An association between inflammation and behavioral domains of mental disorders is of growing interest. Recent studies reported an association between aggression and inflammation. In this study, we investigated the association between aggressive behavior and inflammatory markers in schizophrenia inpatients. Adult schizophrenia inpatients without affective symptoms (n=213) were retrospectively identified and categorized according to their C-reactive protein measurement at admission as either elevated (CRP>1 mg/dL; n=57) or normal (CRP<1 mg/dL; n=156). The following indicators of aggression were compared: PANSS excitement component (PANSS-EC), restraints and suicidal behavior during hospitalization. Univariate comparisons between elevated and normal CRP levels were performed and multivariate analysis was conducted to control for relevant covariates. CRP levels significantly correlated with other laboratory markers indicating increased inflammation including leukocyte count and neutrophil to lymphocyte ratio (r=0.387, P<0.0001 and r=0.356, P<0.0001) respectively. Inpatients with elevated C-reactive protein displayed increased aggressive behavior compared to patients with normal CRP levels (<1 mg/dL). This was manifested by higher rates of restraint during hospitalization (χ(2)=5.22, P=0.031) and increased PANSS-EC score (U=5410.5, P=0.012). Elevated CRP levels were not associated with suicidal behavior. Multivariate analysis revealed that higher PANSS-EC score was associated with elevated CRP after controlling for the covariates age, sex, BMI and smoking" ]
Given a question, retrieve relevant Pubmed passages that answer the question
qa_pairs
Evaluation of platelets in heart failure: is platelet activity related to etiology, functional class, or clinical outcomes?
[ "We sought to determine whether platelet activity in patients with heart failure is related to an ischemic versus nonischemic etiologic condition, clinical disease severity, or adverse clinical outcomes. Platelet activity may affect outcome in patients with heart failure. A prospective evaluation of the relation of baseline platelet function to etiologic condition, New York Heart Association (NYHA) class, and clinical outcomes has not been previously reported. Ninety-six consecutive outpatients with ambulatory heart failure with an ejection fraction<0.40 and NYHA Class II to IV symptoms who presented to the Duke Heart Failure Clinic and 14 healthy control subjects formed the study groups. Baseline characteristics and blood analyzed for thromboxane (Tx) B2, 6-keto PGF(1alpha), platelet contractile force, adenosine diphosphate/collagen shear-induced closure time, whole blood aggregation and CD41, CD31, CD62p, and CD51/CD61 by flow cytometry were determined. Survival status and hospitalizations were determined in the heart failure patient cohort. The median age of patients was 65 years (22% female, 64% white). An ischemic etiologic condition was present in 61% of patients. The population had mild to moderate heart failure: NYHA class I (1%), II (41%), III (46%), and IV (12.5%) and severe ventricular dysfunction (median ejection fraction = 0.20). There were 39 clinical events (7 deaths, 3 cardiac transplants, 29 other first hospitalizations) in 305 median days of observation. Platelet activity, indicated by whole blood aggregation with 5 micromol adenosine diphosphate (P =.04) and Tx B2 (P =.01), was higher in patients with heart failure. Whole blood aggregation was greater than the 90th percentile in 22% of patients with heart failure versus 7% of control subjects. Platelet function did not differ for any of the markers between the ischemic and nonischemic groups and was not affected by antecedent aspirin. There was no relation of NYHA class or the occurrence of events to platelet activity" ]
[ "The aim of this study was to develop ribonucleic acid (RNA) profiles that could serve as novel biomarkers for the response to aspirin. Aspirin reduces death and myocardial infarction (MI), suggesting that aspirin interacts with biological pathways that may underlie these events. Aspirin was administered, followed by whole-blood RNA microarray profiling, in a discovery cohort of healthy volunteers (HV1) (n = 50) and 2 validation cohorts of healthy volunteers (HV2) (n = 53) and outpatient cardiology patients (OPC) (n = 25). Platelet function was assessed using the platelet function score (PFS) in HV1 and HV2 and the VerifyNow Aspirin Test (Accumetrics, Inc., San Diego, California) in OPC. Bayesian sparse factor analysis identified sets of coexpressed transcripts, which were examined for associations with PFS in HV1 and validated in HV2 and OPC. Proteomic analysis confirmed the association of validated transcripts in platelet proteins. Validated gene sets were tested for association with death or MI in 2 patient cohorts (n = 587 total) from RNA samples collected at cardiac catheterization", "Plasma levels of inflammatory markers are increased in chronic heart failure (HF) and are also subclinical indicators of future HF. Inflammation is strictly correlated with clotting activation, but the association between inflammation, hypercoagulability and prognosis in HF has not been previously reported. Markers of inflammation (interleukin-6; IL-6, and C-reactive protein; CRP) and hypercoagulability (D-dimer; DD, and thrombin-antithrombin III complex; TAT) were prospectively assessed in 214 subjects with New York Heart Association (NYHA) functional class II-IV HF. During a median follow-up of 8.5 months, 32 patients had an event: 13 died and 19 were hospitalized because of worsening of HF. IL-6, DD and TAT levels were all significantly associated with increased risk of death after adjustment for other known HF prognostic factors (age, gender, traditional cardiovascular risk factors, NYHA class, systolic left ventricular function, renal failure, hemoglobin, serum sodium) in a Cox multivariate proportional hazard model (P = 0.003, P = 0.01 and P = 0.02, respectively). When these markers were added simultaneously to the known prognostic factors in a new Cox multivariate model, only DD levels were significant predictors of mortality (hazard ratio [95% confidence interval; CI]: 11 [2.7-45.1], P = 0.001). The Kaplan-Meier curve revealed a significantly better outcome in patients with DD below 450 ng mL(-1). NT-pro-BNP was the only significant predictor of rehospitalization (HR [95% CI]: 5.3 [2.0-13.8], P < 0.001)" ]
Given a question, retrieve relevant Pubmed passages that answer the question
qa_pairs
Does [ Lower thoracic epidural analgesia improve postoperative analgesia following vaginal total hysterectomy ]?
[ "In our hospital, lumbar epidural analgesia had been used for postoperative analgesia following vaginal total hysterectomy (VTH). But some patients experienced severe abdominal pain or numbness of the legs. Therefore we planned a randomized prospective study to compare lower thoracic epidural analgesia and lumbar epidural analgesia following VTH. Fifty patients were allocated to two groups: those who received lower thoracic epidural analgesia(T group)and the other who received lumbar epidural analgesia (L group). Both groupsreceived the same continuous epidural analgesia using fentanyl and ropivacaine after the operation. The T group required significantly lower frequency of analgesic agents compared with that of the L group (2.5±1.9 times vs. 1.2±1.1 times, P< 0.05). Fewer patients in the T group had felt numbness in their legs compared to the L group (8% vs. 55%, P<0.05)" ]
[ "Recent interest has focused on the role of perioperative epidural analgesia in improving cancer outcomes. The heterogeneity of studies (tumour type, stage and outcome endpoints) has produced inconsistent results. Clinical practice also highlights the variability in epidural effectiveness. We considered the novel hypothesis that effective epidural analgesia improves cancer outcomes following gastro-oesophageal cancer surgery in patients with grouped pathological staging. Following institutional approval, a database analysis identified 140 patients, with 2-year minimum follow-up after gastro-oesophageal cancer surgery. All patients were operated on by a single surgeon (2005-2010). Information pertaining to cancer and survival outcomes was extracted. Univariate analysis demonstrated a 1-year 14% vs. 33% (P = 0.01) and 2-year 27% vs. 40% [hazard ratio (HR)=0.59; 95% CI, 0.32-1.09, P = 0.087] incidence of cancer recurrence in patients with (vs. without) effective (> 36 h duration) epidural analgesia, respectively. Multivariate analysis demonstrated increased time to cancer recurrence (HR = 0.33; 95% CI: 0.17-0.63, P < 0.0001) and overall survival benefit (HR = 0.42; 95% CI: 0.21-0.83, P < 0.0001) at 2-year follow-up following effective epidural analgesia. Subgroup analysis identified epidural-related cancer recurrence benefit in patients with oesophageal cancer (HR = 0.34; 95% CI: 0.16-0.75, P = 0.005) and in patients with tumour lymphovascular space infiltration (LVSI), (HR = 0.49; 95% CI: 0.26-0.94, P = 0.03). Effective epidural analgesia improved estimated median time to death (2.9 vs. 1.8 years, P = 0.029) in patients with tumour LVSI", "BACKGROUND: TEA (thoracic epidural analgesia) is considered a basic method of analgesia used in thoracic surgeries. PVB (paravertebral block) is an alternative method. The thesis compares effectiveness of both methods in postoperative analgesia with particular focus on assessment of the postoperative pain management quality.METHODS: The study involved 2 groups of patients, each consisting of 30 patients undergoing posterolateral thoracotomy. The study group involved patients anesthetized applying PVB method, while the control group involved patients anesthetized with TEA. Hemodynamic and respiratory parameters as well as severity of pain assessed using NRS (numeric rating scale) during the first 3 days after the surgery, number of days of hospitalization, and the need to use additional pain relievers were taken into account in both groups. Evaluation of postoperative pain management quality was performed applying Clinical Quality Indicators in Postoperative Pain Management.RESULTS: No statistical significance was demonstrated between the groups in respect of hemodynamic and respiratory parameters values, the need to use additional pain relievers and the number of days of hospitalization. There was no statistically significant difference between the groups in respect of general assessment of pain management quality, except for the assessment of the lowest level of pain within the last 24 h of measurement. This result in TEA group was statistically significantly lower than the one in PVB group (p = 0.019).CONCLUSIONS: In the assessment of postoperative pain management quality both analyzed methods are statistically significantly different only in the category of \"lowest level of pain within the last 24 hours of measurement\", to the benefit of TEA group. No statistically significant difference has been observed between the two study groups with respect to the remaining parameters.TRIAL REGISTRATION: KB-0012/71/15. Date of registration 22 June 2015." ]
Given a question, retrieve relevant Pubmed passages that answer the question
qa_pairs
do i need earned income to contribute to a roth
[ "An unmarried person must have earned income of his or her own to contribute to a Roth IRA. The income has to be income earned from employment, not investment income, and it has to be taxable compensation income. However, that doesn't mean your child has to actually pay tax on the income." ]
[ "Self-employed investors may use a Roth IRA to help fund part of their retirement. The only requirements are that you -- and/or your spouse -- have earned income equal to your contributions, but your adjusted gross income must be under $125,000 if single or $183,000 if married.", "If the Roth contribution option is available in your 457 plan, you can designate a portion (or all) of your contributions to the plan as Roth.Qualified Tax-Free Distributions. Distributions of Roth assets (contributions and associated earnings) are qualified if:f the Roth contribution option is available in your 457 plan, you can designate a portion (or all) of your contributions to the plan as Roth. Qualified Tax-Free Distributions." ]
Given a web search query, retrieve relevant passages that answer the query
msmarco
Does ischaemic postconditioning reduce serum and tubular TNF-α expression in ischaemic-reperfused kidney in healthy rats?
[ "We studied the protective effects of postconditioning (PS) in healthy and hypercholesterolemic rats after renal ischaemia-reperfusion (IR) injury. We aimed to examine cytokine expression and apoptosis in tissue damage after revascularisation (TNF-α levels in serum and tissue). Male Wistar rats (n = 32) were divided into four groups. The animals of normal feed groups (NF) were fed with normal rat chow and the cholesterol feed groups (CF) were fed with 1.5% cholesterol containing diet for 8 weeks. Anaesthetized rats underwent a 45-min cross-clamping in both kidney pedicles. Ischaemia was followed by 120-min reperfusion with or without PS protocol (group PS vs. IR). Postconditioning was induced by four intermittent periods of ischaemia-reperfusion of 15-s duration each. Serum cholesterol, triglyceride, urea and creatinine levels were determined. Proinflammation was characterized by the measurement of serum TNF-α. Tissue injury in kidney was determined by formaline-fixed, paraffin-embedded tissue sections. Tissue TNF-α levels were determined by immunohistochemistry" ]
[ "Acute renal failure complicates renal ischemia-reperfusion (I/R) owing to reactive oxygen species production. Atorvastatin (ATO) has anti-inflammatory and antioxidant properties. The current study investigated whether ATO alleviated damage induced by renal I/R injury in nondiabetic versus diabetic rat models. Thirty-six rats were equally divided into 6 groups: group A1 (nondiabetic sham), group A2 (nondiabetic I/R), group A3 (nondiabetic ATO + I/R), group B1 (diabetic sham), group B2 (diabetic I/R), and group B3 (diabetic ATO + I/R). All groups experienced 45 min of bilateral renal ischemia followed by 24 h of reperfusion. Groups A3 and B3 were treated with single intraperitoneal doses of ATO (10 mg/kg) 30 min before ischemia. Histological analysis of kidney tissues, kidney function tests, and analyses of caspase-3 and CD44 expression and oxidative stress markers were performed to assess tubular injury. Histological analysis revealed marked tubular damage in groups A2 and B2 but improvement in groups A3 and B3. Improvements were also found in groups A3 and B3 for caspase-3 and CD44 expression, kidney function tests, and oxidative stress markers. Our results suggest ATO may ameliorate renal I/R injury differently between nondiabetic and diabetic rats.", "Ischemia-induced acute renal failure (ARF) is known to be associated with significant impairment of urinary concentrating ability and down-regulation of renal aquaporins (AQPs) and sodium transporters in rats. We tested whether treatment with erythropoietin (EPO) or alpha-melanocyte-stimulating hormone (alpha-MSH) in combination with EPO reduces the renal ischemia/reperfusion (I/R) injury and prevents the down-regulation of renal AQPs and major sodium transporters. I/R-induced ARF was established in rats by 40-minute temporary bilateral obstruction of renal arteries, and rats were kept in metabolic cages for urine measurements. After 2 or 4 days following EPO and/or alpha-MSH treatment, kidneys were removed to determine the expression levels of AQPs and sodium transporters by semiquantitative immunoblotting. Rats with ARF showed significant renal insufficiency, increased urine output, and high fractional excretion of urinary sodium. Consistent with this, immunoblotting and immunocytochemistry revealed that the kidney expression of AQPs (AQP-1, -2 and -3) and sodium transporters [Na,K-ATPase, rat type 1 bumetanide-sensitive Na-K-2Cl cotransporter (BSC-1), Na/H exchanger type 3 (NHE3), and thiazide-sensitive sodium chloride cotransporter (TSC)] in ARF rats was significantly decreased compared to sham-operated control rats. In contrast, EPO treatment at the time of ischemia of rats with ARF significantly prevented the ischemia-induced down-regulation of renal AQPs and sodium transporters and in parallel improved the urinary concentrating capability and renal sodium reabsorption. Importantly, similar effects were observed following the initiation of EPO or alpha-MSH treatment 4 hours after the onset of ischemia injury. Moreover, the combination of EPO with alpha-MSH potentiated the beneficial effects of single compound treatment" ]
Given a question, retrieve relevant Pubmed passages that answer the question
qa_pairs
what is a contact interval
[ "This paper develops nonparametric methods based on contact intervals for the analysis of infectious disease data. The contact interval from person i to person j is the time between the onset of infectiousness in i and infectious contact from i to j, where we define infectious contact as a contact sufficient to infect a susceptible individual. The hazard function of the contact interval distribution equals the hazard of infectious contact from i to j, so it provides a summary of the evolution of infectiousness over time. When who-infects-whom is observed, the Nelson-Aalen estimator produces an unbiased estimate of the cumulative hazard function of the contact interval distribution. When who-infects-whom is not observed, we use an EM algorithm to average the Nelson-Aalen estimates from all possible combinations of who-infected-whom consistent with the observed data. This converges to a nonparametric maximum likelihood estimate of the cumulative hazard function that we call the marginal Nelson-Aalen estimate. We study the behavior of these methods in simulations and use them to analyze household surveillance data from the 2009 influenza A(H1N1) pandemic." ]
[ "The Interval-valued intuitionistic fuzzy sets (IVIFSs) have long been used to model vagueness and have been used in decision making, pattern recognition, image processing, and other applications. In this study, IVIFSs are defined using Gaussian membership functions (GMFs), and new measures of the distance, the overlap, and the angle between two sets are developed. The proposed methodology is used to determine the similarities between test subjects in genetic brain profiling.", "Contact tracing is a central public health response to infectious disease outbreaks, especially in the early stages of an outbreak when specific treatments are limited. Importation of novel Coronavirus (COVID-19) from China and elsewhere into the United Kingdom highlights the need to understand the impact of contact tracing as a control measure. Using detailed survey information on social encounters coupled to predictive models, we investigate the likely efficacy of the current UK definition of a close contact (within 2 meters for 15 minutes or more) and the distribution of secondary cases that may go untraced. Taking recent estimates for COVID-19 transmission, we show that less than 1 in 5 cases will generate any subsequent untraced cases, although this comes at a high logistical burden with an average of 36.1 individuals (95th percentiles 0-182) traced per case. Changes to the definition of a close contact can reduce this burden, but with increased risk of untraced cases; we estimate that any definition where close contact requires more than 4 hours of contact is likely to lead to uncontrolled spread." ]
Given a query on COVID-19, retrieve documents that answer the query
synthetic
A woman just let go of a bowling ball at the bowling alley.
[ "a woman is at the bowling alley." ]
[ "a woman is at home." ]
Given a premise, retrieve hypotheses that are entailed by the premise
nli
Does the severity of liver injury following blunt trauma correlate with the number of fractured ribs : an analysis of a national trauma registry database?
[ "Rib fractures are a marker of severe injury, predicting a higher incidence of associated injuries. The purpose of this study was to assess whether an increasing number of rib fractures predicts the severity of liver injury in blunt trauma patients. We performed a retrospective cohort study involving blunt trauma patients with concomitant liver injuries and rib fractures who were registered in a national trauma registry. Of 57,130 patients with blunt torso injuries, 14,651 patients sustained rib fractures, and 2,899 patients suffered liver injuries. Concomitant liver injury occurred in 1,087 of the patients with rib fractures (7.4%), while 1,812 patients sustained liver injury without rib fractures (4.3%). The presence of six or more rib fractures predicted a higher incidence of liver injury. Among the patients with liver injury, those with concomitant rib fractures had a higher Injury Severity Score (ISS), but similar mortality rates. Among the patients with concomitant rib fractures and liver injury, there was no relationship between the number of fractured ribs and the severity of the liver injury" ]
[ "The trauma registry is a locally maintained database with information on all trauma patients, including patient demographics and injury data. One essential field is the injury severity score (ISS). Patients who expire on arrival, either in the emergency department or soon after, often cannot undergo a complete evaluation of their injuries. As a result, many injuries remain undiagnosed, resulting in an erroneously low ISS, and autopsies can identify these unrecognized injuries. The objective of this study was to determine whether and how autopsy data improve the accuracy of the trauma registry data. The population included in the study was seen in the emergency department between January 2014 and August 2017 after a traumatic injury who expired on arrival, while in the ED, or within 48 hr of arrival. The ISS of each case was calculated prior to autopsy report and then adjusted according to autopsy data. The magnitude of this change was then compared. The mean ISS of these cases without autopsy data was 13, whereas the mean ISS of these cases including autopsy data was 49 (p ? .001). The mean ISS without autopsy data in those who died before and after 15 min was 7 and 23, respectively. In comparison, the mean autopsy-adjusted ISS in those who died before and after 15 min was 50 and 39, respectively (p ? .001). Our study identified the importance of obtaining autopsies in trauma patients. Having accurate registry data for trauma deaths further guides the development of performance improvement, injury prevention, and trauma research.", "To investigate the necessity of intensive evaluation of the intoxicated patient with normal mentation for intra-abdominal injury after blunt torso trauma. Retrospective study; trauma registry and medical records. Level I regional trauma center serving a population of 2.3 million. Adult victims of blunt trauma more than 17 years old, admitted between January 1, 1986, and December 31, 1989, with suspected blunt abdominal injury and serum ethanol of more than 100 mg/dL and Glasgow Coma Score of 15. All patients had serum ethanol levels measured in mg/dL and computed tomography (CT) scan of the abdomen and/or diagnostic peritoneal lavage (DPL). Criteria were met by 92 patients. Eighty-nine underwent CT scans, two had DPL, and one had both. Of 17 patients complaining of abdominal pain and/or tenderness on palpation, six (35.3%) had blood in the peritoneal cavity demonstrated by CT scan or DPL and underwent celiotomy. All 75 patients without abdominal pain or tenderness had negative CT scan or DPL, with no missed injury" ]
Given a question, retrieve relevant Pubmed passages that answer the question
qa_pairs
how soon to apply for college scholarships
[ "I agree that you can start looking early in high school and then keep looking throughout college. For more info on finding and applying for scholarships, here's a link to articles on our site: http://www.campusexplorer.com/co... Students (who are at least 16 years old and residents of the U.S.) can apply for the Campus Explorer $1,000 Scholarship every month https://www.campusexplorer.com/c... Apply for college scholarships CONSTANTLY. There are always opportunities popping up. There are even scholarships for you while you are in college." ]
[ "Most – but not all – scholarships are renewable. If yours is renewable, we will mail you a renewal form [PDF] and letter in April before your school year ends. If you do not hear from us, you may not be eligible or we may have an outdated address for you.", "Search lists of scholarships by choosing a category or get matched to college scholarships you are eligible for. 1 Your Matches. 2 Niche Scholarships. 3 States. Majors. Easy To 1 Apply. Minorities. More Scholarships." ]
Given a web search query, retrieve relevant passages that answer the query
msmarco
is abatacept safe for rrms
[ "BACKGROUND: Costimulatory blockade of T lymphocytes with the CTLA4-Ig fusion protein abatacept could be an effective treatment for the immune-mediated neuroinflammatory disease relapsing-remitting multiple sclerosis (RRMS).OBJECTIVE: To evaluate efficacy and safety of abatacept in RRMS.METHODS: ACCLAIM (A Cooperative Clinical Study of Abatacept in Multiple Sclerosis) was a Phase II, randomized, double-blind, placebo-controlled, multi-center trial. In all, 65 of 123 planned participants with RRMS were randomized to monthly intravenous infusions of abatacept or placebo for 24 weeks in a 2:1 ratio, switched to the opposite treatment at 28 weeks, and received their final dose of study medication at 52 weeks. Enrollment was closed early due to slow accrual. The primary endpoint was the mean number of new gadolinium-enhancing (Gd+) lesions obtained on magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) scans performed every 4 weeks.RESULTS: No statistically significant differences were observed in mean number of new Gd+ MRI lesions between the abatacept and placebo groups. No statistically significant differences were observed in other MRI and clinical parameters of RRMS disease activity. Abatacept was well tolerated.CONCLUSION: The ACCLAIM study did not demonstrate efficacy of abatacept in reducing the number of new Gd+ MRI lesions, or clinical measures of disease activity in RRMS." ]
[ "This study aimed to assess the relative efficacy and safety of tofacitinib 5 and 10mg twice daily, or in combination with methotrexate (MTX), in patients with active RA. Randomized controlled trials (RCTs) examining the efficacy and safety of tofacitinib in patients with active RA were included in this network meta-analysis. We performed a Bayesian network meta-analysis to combine the direct and indirect evidence from the RCTs. Ten RCTs including 4867 patients met the inclusion criteria. There were 21 pairwise comparisons including 11 direct comparisons of seven interventions. The ACR20 response rate was significantly higher in the tofacitinib 10mg+MTX group than in the placebo and MTX groups (OR 7.56, 95% credible interval (CrI) 3.07-21.16; OR 3.67, 95% CrI 2.60-5.71, respectively). Ranking probabilities based on the surface under the cumulative ranking curve (SUCRA) indicated that tofacitinib 10mg+MTX had the highest probability of being the best treatment for achieving the ACR20 response rate (SUCRA=0.9254), followed by tofacitinib 5mg+MTX (SUCRA=0.7156), adalimumab 40mg+MTX (SUCRA=0.6097), tofacitinib 10mg (SUCRA=0.5984), tofacitinib 5mg (SUCRA=0.4749), MTX (SUCRA=0.1674), and placebo (SUCRA=0.0086). In contrast, the safety based on the number of withdrawals due to adverse events did not differ significantly among the seven interventions. Tofacitinib, at dosages 5 and 10mg twice daily, in combination with MTX, was the most efficacious intervention for active RA and was not associated with a significant risk for withdrawals due to adverse events.", "OBJECTIVE: Radiation-induced mucositis (RIM) in chemoradiotherapy (CRT) for head and neck cancer (HNC) causes severe pain and worsens CRT compliance, QOL and outcome. Following retrospective reports, we conducted a randomized trial of the safety and efficacy of gabapentin for RIM-associated pain during CRT.METHODS: HNC patients (pts) receiving CRT were randomized to standard pain control (SPC) with acetaminophen and opioids, or SPC plus gabapentin (SPC+G). Gabapentin was maintained at 900mg/day for 4 weeks after CRT. Primary endpoint was maximum visual analogue scale (VAS) score during CRT, and secondary endpoints were total opioid dose, changes in QOL (EORTC QLQ-C30 and QLQ-HN 35) from baseline to 4 weeks after CRT, and adverse events.RESULTS: Twenty-two eligible Stage III or IV pts were randomly assigned to SPC or SPC+G (n=11 each). Twelve were treated in a locally advanced setting and 10 in a postoperative setting. Median maximum VAS scores, median total dose of opioids at maximum VAS and total dose of opioids at 4 weeks after CRT tended to be higher in the SPC+G arm (47 in SPC vs. 74 in SPC+G, p=0.517; 215mg vs. 745.3mg, p=0.880; and 1260mg vs. 1537.5mg, p=0.9438, respectively), without significance. QOL analysis showed significantly worse scores in the SPC+G arm for weight gain (p=0.005). Adverse events related to gabapentin were manageable.CONCLUSIONS: This pilot study is the first prospective randomized trial of gabapentin for RIM-related pain. Gabapentin had no apparent beneficial effect. Further research into agents for RIM-related pain is warranted." ]
Given a question, retrieve Pubmed passages that answer the question
synthetic
what type of grass is wimbledon played on
[ "was returning from an injury that had prevented her playing in previous tournaments, giving her a lower ranking than she would normally have had. Unseeded pairs have won the doubles titles on numerous occasions; the 2005 Gentlemen's Doubles champions were not only unseeded, but also (for the first time ever) qualifiers. Since 2002, the courts used for Wimbledon have been sown with 100% perennial ryegrass. Prior to 2002 a combination of 70% ryegrass and 30% Creeping Red Fescue was used. The change was made to improve durability and strengthen the sward to better withstand the increasing wear of the modern" ]
[ "up until a council-imposed curfew of 11 pm. Centre Court, along with No. 1 Court and No. 2 Court, was also host to the tennis competition at the 2012 Summer Olympics. The name \"\"Centre Court\"\" derives from the location of the principal court at the All England Croquet Club's original site off Worple Road, Wimbledon – where the main court was located in the centre of all the other courts. For the first Wimbledon Championship in 1877 a total of 12 courts were available which were laid out in a 3×4 grid and there was no actual centre court. This", "1980s in British and Asian tennis clubs for recreational play as they were easier and cheaper to maintain than grass courts. The other type used predominantly for indoor tennis is a textile surface of nylon or rubber matting laid out on a concrete base. These have been used in venues which are not normally used for tennis or other sports, such as the Royal Albert Hall in London. Playing on carpet courts, players usually approach it as they would a grass court due to both being similarly fast surfaces. In years past, professional tournaments used carpet courts. The WCT Finals," ]
Given a question, retrieve Wikipedia passages that answer the question
nq
Two men each holding their dog on leashes as the two dogs play with each other.
[ "Two dogs are near each other." ]
[ "Two dogs are running through a field while one man runs after them." ]
Given a premise, retrieve hypotheses that are entailed by the premise
nli
Even when it threatens to disintegrate into nightmare at times of winter floods, Carnival shenanigans, or summer hordes, visitors can take refuge in a cafe once frequented by Casanova or in a quiet back alleyway away from the congestion, and continue their dream uninterrupted.
[ "The cafe that Casanova often patronized is a welcome escape." ]
[ "The cafe Casanova frequented is a run down and busy one." ]
Given a premise, retrieve hypotheses that are entailed by the premise
nli
what does tpo roofing stand for
[ "Thermoplastic Polyolefin (TPO) is the fastest growing segment in the commercial roofing industry. To take advantage of this recent popularity, a growing number of companies have begun offering TPO single-ply membranes. Unfortunately, not all TPO is created equally." ]
[ "Permanently attached seams are the safest solution, and improper attachment can be the cause of 99% of leaks. It is difficult to determine the longevity of TPO roofing membranes for a couple of reasons. First, this is a fairly new roofing product, there are no TPO membranes in the US today that are older than 15 years.Second, TPO membranes continue to be an experimental products-they are all in their 2nd, 3rd and in some.ermanently attached seams are the safest solution, and improper attachment can be the cause of 99% of leaks. It is difficult to determine the longevity of TPO roofing membranes for a couple of reasons. First, this is a fairly new roofing product, there are no TPO membranes in the US today that are older than 15 years.", "When it comes to covering up a flat roof, your options are both limited and expansive. What that means in a nutshell is that your traditional roofing materials such as asphalt shingles, concrete tiles, and corrugated metal are out of the window. That being said, flat roof systems such as PVC, TPO, EPDM rubber, and others, each offer their pros and cons." ]
Given a web search query, retrieve relevant passages that answer the query
msmarco
cost to upgrade air bags
[ "The total cost for professionally replacing airbags that deployed in a collision can be $1,000-$6,000 or more but averages about $3,000-$5,000, depending on the year, make and model of vehicle; the number and location of the air bags; and the related parts that need replacing, such as the electronic control unit (also called the airbag computer or ..." ]
[ "Legacy lines. When flying a major U.S. carrier, your best chance of getting a cheap upgrade is by flying Delta. On the day of departure, Delta offers standby upgrades that allow passengers to upgrade at the departure gate for as little as $50 if your flight has extra room in the forward cabin.", "Report Abuse. The airbags in my Explorer, which were just replaced about a month ago after an accident with deployment, cost about $1100 each. Both deployed...I do not...at any time...disconnect or turn off the passenger airbag in my Explorer. I was alone in the vehicle." ]
Given a web search query, retrieve relevant passages that answer the query
msmarco
what point of view is a biography written in
[ "Autobiography: Autobiography A book or story about a person’s life, written by that person. Written in the first person point of view. Biography: Biography A book or story about someone’s life, written by a NARRATOR. Written in the third person point of view. Let’s Practice: Let’s Practice I grew up in Tennessee. It was always so hot and humid there." ]
[ "If you're unsure about which is right for your story, read an article on choosing a point of view, or a discussion on point of view in response to a blog post. Examples: Jane Austen 's novel, Pride and Prejudice, like many classic novels, is told from the third person point of view:", "Point of view is the perspective from which a speaker or writer recounts a narrative or presents information. Learn more. Point of View in Grammar and Composition" ]
Given a web search query, retrieve relevant passages that answer the query
msmarco
two women look at the camera smiling sitting in chairs.
[ "The two women are sitting down." ]
[ "The two women are leaning against a wall." ]
Given a premise, retrieve hypotheses that are entailed by the premise
nli
Do quantitative MRI measurements of the Achilles tendon in spondyloarthritis using ultrashort echo times?
[ "Tendon involvement is common in spondyloarthritis. The MRI signal from the Achilles tendon has been used to quantify mechanical tendinopathy; however, conventional MRI is limited by the short T(2) of normal tendon. Short and ultrashort echo time (UTE) MRI have the potential to better measure signal intensity reflecting changes in T(2) or gadolinium enhancement. Furthermore, UTE images could be used for normalisation to reduce variability. The aim of this work was to investigate such techniques in patients with spondyloarthritis (SpA). The Achilles tendons of 14 healthy volunteers and 24 patients with symptomatic spondyloarthritis were studied. Combined UTE (TE=0.07 ms) and gradient echo (TE=4.9 ms) images were acquired before and after intravenous gadolinium together with pre-contrast gradient echo images (TE=2 ms). The signal intensity from a region of interest in the Achilles tendon above the calcaneus was measured. The relative enhancement at echo times of 0.07 ms (RE(0.1)) and 4.9 ms (RE(5)) were calculated. The ratios of the signal intensities from both 4.9 ms and 2 ms gradient echo images to the signal intensity from the UTE image were calculated (RTE(5) and RTE(2) respectively)" ]
[ "OBJECTIVES: To assess increased sacroiliac joint (SIJ) uptake on 18F-NaF PET/CT according to a qualitative and quantitative approach and to compare with MRI SIJ assessments for structural and inflammatory sacroiliitis in a population of 23 patients with spondyloarthritis (SpA) (IDRCB: 2012-A00568-35; ClinicalTrials.gov: NCT 02869100).METHODS: This single-center prospective study included 23 patients with active SpA according to the ASAS and/or modified NY criteria. All patients had a pelvic AP-view radiograph, MRI of the SIJ and 18F-NaF PET/CT examinations within a month, which were analysed by three blinded readers. For MRI data, the SIJs were assessed according to the ASAS criteria and SPARCC method for scoring structural lesions (erosion, sclerosis, fat metaplasia, backfill and ankylosis) and inflammation. On the 18F-NaF PET, the SIJs were scored according to a slice-by-slice approach. Abnormal uptake was assessed using a qualitative method inspired by the ASAS criteria and two quantitative approaches (the PET-activity score according to the SPARCC method and the maximum standardised uptake value (SUVmax) for each SIJ).RESULTS: Structural sacroiliitis was observed on 7 radiographs and 15 MRIs. 10 MRIs showed inflammatory sacroiliitis (mean SPARCC 18.7). Twenty patients had a positive PET with a mean PET-activity score of 18.2 (±8.7). The mean SUVmax for a positive PET was 1.78 vs. 1.45 for a negative one. The inter-reader reliability was good for the PET activity score (ICC= 0.56 [IC-95: 0.32; 0.76]) and good to excellent for the SUVmax (ICC=0.70-0.90 [IC-95: 0.41; 0.96]). According to a binary approach, a positive PET was not correlated with a positive MRI for structural sacroiliitis. The PET-activity score (r=0.61, p=0.001) and SUVmax (r=0.56, p=0.004) were correlated with the SPARCC inflammation score but not with structural sacroiliitis or for SPARCC structural lesions.CONCLUSIONS: Abnormal uptake by the SIJ on 18F-NaF PET is more frequent (87.0%) than inflammatory (43.5%) and structural sacroiliitis (65.2%) on MRI in a population of SpA patients. The PET activity score and SUVmax had good correlations with inflammatory sacroiliitis but not with structural lesions on MRI.", "OBJECTIVE: To assess the overlap of and differences between quantitative muscle MRI and ultrasound in characterizing structural changes in leg muscles of facioscapulohumeral muscular dystrophy (FSHD) patients.METHODS: We performed quantitative MRI and quantitative ultrasound of ten leg muscles in 27 FSHD patients and assessed images, both quantitatively and visually, for fatty infiltration, fibrosis and edema.RESULTS: The MRI fat fraction and ultrasound echogenicity z-score correlated strongly (CC 0.865, p < 0.05) and both correlated with clinical severity (MRI CC 0.828, ultrasound CC 0.767, p < 0.001). Ultrasound detected changes in muscle architecture in muscles that looked normal on MRI. MRI was better in detecting late stages of fatty infiltration and was more suitable to assess muscle edema. Correlations between quantitative and semi-quantitative scores were strong for MRI (CC 0.844-0.982, p < 0.05), and varied for ultrasound (CC 0.427-0.809, p = 0.026-p < 0.001).CONCLUSIONS: Quantitative muscle MRI and ultrasound are both promising imaging biomarkers for differentiating between degrees of structural muscle changes. As ultrasound is more sensitive to detect subtle structural changes and MRI is more accurate in end stage muscles and detecting edema, the techniques are complementary. Hence, the choice for a particular technique should be considered in light of the trial design." ]
Given a question, retrieve relevant Pubmed passages that answer the question
qa_pairs
what is the ocean water temperature at hampton beach nh
[ "Hampton Beach sea temperatures peak in the range 18 to 22°C (64 to 72°F) on around the 10th of August and are at their coldest on about the 1st of March, in the range 2 to 4°C (36 to 39°F). The warmest Hampton Beach sea temperatures in early to mid August require something like a 3/2mm fully sealed wetsuit." ]
[ "The most monthly precipitation in Hampton Beach occurs in January with 0 inches. The air quality index in Hampton Beach is 27% better than the national average. The pollution index in Hampton Beach is 98% better than the national average.", "Whale Watching Trips (1) Dinner Cruise (1) Virginia Beach offers ideal vacation temperatures in the spring, summer and fall season, with a year-round average hovering around 70°. Similar to nearby beaches, the temperatures stay relatively warm in the summer season, with average highs reaching the upper 80s in the summer. September & October are ideal times to visit Virginia Beach, air and water temps are still warm, rates drop, and crowds disappear. Average Ocean Temps | 5 Day Forecast." ]
Given a web search query, retrieve relevant passages that answer the query
msmarco
WBC 12, Hct 41.
[ " WBC slightly elevated" ]
[ " WBC levels are low" ]
Given a sentence, retrieve sentences with the same meaning
mednli
what are the different species of hemilophini
[ "Three new species of Hemilophini (Coleoptera, Cerambycidae, Lamiinae) are described: Chrysaperda mimica sp. nov. and Malacoscylus nearnsi sp. nov. from Ecuador, and Eulachnesia boteroi sp. nov. from Colombia." ]
[ "The Central American tribe Neaenini, originally comprising only the monobasic genus Neaenus Fowler, was thought to be transitional between Cercopinae and Aphrophorinae. The genus is here enlarged by 5 (1 unnamed) additional species including 2 in a distinctive new subgenus Neaniskus. Keys are presented to 5 species of Neaenus, to 12 allied Neotropical genera and their 57 species: 12 of Tomaspisinella Lallemand, 1927 (=Hemitomaspis Lallemand, 1949, syn.nov. and 3 distinctive new subgenera Meretricula, Merinx and Merulatomus), 14 species of Microsargane Fowler, 1897 (=Ecothera Melichar, 1915, syn.nov., with 2 distinctive new subgenera Microrhaphe and Microtholia) and 31 species of Zuata Fennah, together with 2 species of Helioptera gen. nov. and 6 monobasic genera (Liparonotum gen. nov., Marcion Fennah, Menytes gen. nov., Microclimax gen. nov., Microlaqueus gen. nov. and Simorhina Jacobi). The small Neotropical genera Tomaspisina Distant and Olcotomaspis Lallemand (with 2 new combinations and subgenus Hyalotomaspis Lallemand, stat.nov.) appear to be allied to the large old-world genus Phymatostetha St?l rather than to any new-world Cercopinae. A check list is presented to these 13 genera and their 76 species (of which 30 are new to science and 5 of Zuata are new synonyms). Males are described for 5 species previously known from females but males of 9 (in 6 genera) are still unknown. Male genitalia define a new tribe of Cercopinae, Microsarganini (Microsargane was formerly placed in Aphrophorinae) that also includes Liparonotum, Microclimax and Microlaqueus. Almost half of the genera are monobasic without synapomorphies to Aphrophorinae, suggesting that these genera (including several genera resembling both Aphrophorinae and Cercopinae) represent relict lineages at the base of the subfamily Cercopinae.", "Hydrophidae, one of the precious traditional Chinese medicines, is generally drily preserved to prevent corruption, but it is hard to identify the species of Hydrophidae through the appearance because of the change due to the drying process. The identification through analysis on gene barcode, a new technique in species identification, can avoid this problem. The gene barcodes of the 5 species of Hydrophidae, Lapemis hardwickii, Hydrophis fasciatus, Aipysurus eydouxii, Hydrophis belcher and Hydrophis lamberti, were acquired through DNA extraction and gene sequencing. These barcodes were then in sequence alignment and test the identification efficiency by BLAST. Our results showed that the 16S rDNA sequences identified Hydrophidae briefly and the COI sequenceshad obvious difference between intra-and inter-species, indicating that DNA bar-coding was an efficiency method of Hydrophidae identification." ]
Given a question, retrieve Pubmed passages that answer the question
synthetic
what is china doing to fix its nursing shortage
[ "This article describes the nursing shortage situation in China and the causes for it. China is a major donor of nurses to other parts of the world and this article discusses the solutions China has implemented to address its nursing shortage, and the challenges that it is currently facing. The strategies that have been employed include: improving the health care system, improving work cultures for increased retention through policy and regulation, making greater investments in nursing education to build sustainable nursing education infrastructures, and enhancing the image of the nursing profession. These solutions may serve as a reference to other countries to deal with the crisis of a nursing shortage." ]
[ "Summary In terms of economic development, China is widely acclaimed as a miracle economy. Over a period of rapid economic growth, however, China's reputation for health has been slipping. In the 1970s China was a shining example of health development, but no longer. Government and public concerns about health equity have grown. China's health-equity challenges are truly daunting because of a vicious cycle of three synergistic factors: the social determinants of health have become more inequitable; imbalances in the roles of the market and government have developed; and concerns among the public have grown about fairness in health. With economic boom and growing government revenues, China is unlike other countries challenged by health inequities and can afford the necessary reforms so that economic development goes hand-in-hand with improved health equity. Reforms to improve health equity will receive immense popular support, governmental commitment, and interest from the public-health community worldwide.", "Universal health coverage (UHC) is driving the global health agenda. Many countries have embarked on national policy reforms towards this goal, including China. In 2009, the Chinese government launched a new round of healthcare reform towards UHC, aiming to provide universal coverage of basic healthcare by the end of 2020. The year of 2019 marks the 10th anniversary of China’s most recent healthcare reform. Sharing China’s experience is especially timely for other countries pursuing reforms to achieve UHC. This study describes the social, economic and health context in China, and then reviews the overall progress of healthcare reform (1949 to present), with a focus on the most recent (2009) round of healthcare reform. The study comprehensively analyses key reform initiatives and major achievements according to four aspects: health insurance system, drug supply and security system, medical service system and public health service system. Lessons learnt from China may have important implications for other nations, including continued political support, increased health financing and a strong primary healthcare system as basis." ]
Given a query on COVID-19, retrieve documents that answer the query
synthetic
cost to install washer dryer hookups
[ "If you have the basics already in, and have the dryer and washer bought, it will cost you about $50 for the basic minimum one hour installer to come from Sears or Home Depot. Then it will cost you about $50 for the Service call. then, it will cost you for any parts (gas pipe, electric hookup wires, etc.), and for putting in the exhaust for the dryer, and hooking up water ans sewer lines for the washer. If you budget about $200 I think you will be quite safe. This Site Might Help You." ]
[ "The average price of a stackable washer and dryer is approximately $1,300 with prices ranging from as cheap as $800 to astronomically high prices in the many of thousands. But…, for around the price mark of $1,300 to $1,500 you can get a high quality stackable washer dryer combo.", "LG WM4270HWA front-loader and LG DLEX4270W electric dryer. Price: $850, washer, $900 dryer. Here's the deal: Both were very good at their job and relatively quiet. Claimed capacity is 4.5 cubic feet for the washer, and 7.4 for the dryer." ]
Given a web search query, retrieve relevant passages that answer the query
msmarco
What are the neurological implications of yoga on mitigating anxiety disorders?
[ "Yoga, an ancient practice and meditation, has become increasingly popular in today's busy society. For many people, yoga provides a retreat from their chaotic and busy lives. This is true whether you're practicing downward facing dog posture on a mat in your bedroom, in an ashram in India or even in New York City's Times Square. Yoga provides many mental health benefits for people who regularly practice it. Yoga is not just about working out, it's about a healthy lifestyle. The practice of yoga allows students to find stillness in a world consumed with chaos. Peace and tranquility achieved through focused training appeals to everyone. Yoga's deep breathing and meditation practices help foster an inner shift from to-do lists, kids and spouse's needs, financial concerns, and relationship struggles to something a little bit bigger than the issues you face. Yoga helps relieve stress and declutters the mind, helping you to become more focused. Anxiety disorder is a real issue that affects a substantial number of individuals, and yoga has been shown to alleviate the symptoms. The neurological implications of yoga on anxiety disorders are profound. The practice of yoga promotes a general sense of well-being, calms the nervous system, and promotes emotional stability, resilience, and coping capacity. These neurological changes increase the mind-body connection, improving physical health and strengthening the body's immune system" ]
[ "Neurological disorders are diseases of the central and peripheral nervous system. In other words, the brain, spinal cord, cranial nerves, peripheral nerves, nerve roots, autonomic nervous system, neuromuscular junction, and muscles. These disorders include epilepsy, Alzheimer disease and other dementias, cerebrovascular diseases including stroke, migraine and other headache disorders, multiple sclerosis, Parkinson's disease, neuroinfections, brain tumours, traumatic disorders of the nervous system due to head trauma, and neurological disorders as a result of malnutrition. Many neurological disorders can be significantly improved or even cured with physical therapy, cognitive therapy, pharmacological treatment, and surgery. Yoga is a popular form of exercise that involves the mind, body, and spirit and is used to establish a balance between physical and mental health. However, there is limited empirical evidence demonstrating the effectiveness of yoga in treating neurological disorders. Therefore, while yoga can certainly contribute to general wellness, it is not a proven treatment for neurological diseases and should not replace conventional medical treatment. However, the practice of yoga can contribute to better physical health, reduce stress, improve mental clarity, and promote feelings of overall well-being" ]
Search for documents discussing the benefits of yoga on mental health given a query on yoga and mental health
synthetic
weather in alaska summer
[ "Emphasis should be based on comfort because the dress code is informal and casual. A layered technique is extremely good here. Temperatures in Alaska during the summer range from 60°F-80°F. Nighttime and early mornings are cooler, from the 40's - 50's. Late August and September departures could encounter cooler temperatures and slightly fewer hours of sunlight, as fall arrives early at these latitudes." ]
[ "Summer conditions are warm and muggy, with average highs of 27°C. Throughout winter the daytime temperatures can get pretty chilly, hovering around about 7°C. In the winter months the region is surrounded by picturesque mist (or ‘fog’ if you want a less picturesque term!) This can often linger through into the spring.", "Average ocean temperatures at Anchorage and Juneau, Alaska are listed below for each month in degrees Fahrenheit and degrees Celsius. Ocean temperatures off Anchorage in southern Alaska vary remarkably from summer to winter." ]
Given a web search query, retrieve relevant passages that answer the query
msmarco
how do you break down your salary to hourly
[ "Step 1. Convert to a basic hourly rate. Based on 40 hours per work week and 52 weeks a year, a full-time employee will work 2,080 hours per year. Divide the annual salary by 2,080 for the hourly rate for that position.For example: An annual salary of $35,000.00 divided by 2,080 = $16.83 per hour.While $35,000 may seem like a lot money, breaking it down to an hourly equivalent makes it easier to compare to similar jobs with an hourly rate.ivide the annual salary by 2,080 for the hourly rate for that position. For example: An annual salary of $35,000.00 divided by 2,080 = $16.83 per hour. While $35,000 may seem like a lot money, breaking it down to an hourly equivalent makes it easier to compare to similar jobs with an hourly rate." ]
[ "Weekly. Divide the annual salary by 52 (52 weeks in a year). If you are paid every week, you will get 52 paychecks per year. If you make $50,000, each paycheck will be $961.54. Multiply $961.54 by 52, then divide by 12 to get your actual monthly salary.wice a Month. Divide the annual salary by 24 if you are paid on or about the first and 15th of the month. If you make $50,000, each paycheck will be $2,083.33.", "To convert the hourly rate to an annual rate, multiply the hourly rate of pay times the number of hours in the employee's workweek times 52 weeks. For example, if an employee makes $10.50 per hour and works 37.5 hours a week, the person's annual salary would be $20,475 ($10.50 x 37.5 x 52).(2) For employees working a 40-hour workweek, multiply the hourly rate of pay by 2,080.n increase in the rate of basic pay through a special salary rate range or an above-minimum entrance rate. b. SSR Range. An increase in the minimum, intermediate, and maximum rates of basic pay for a grade, i.e., an increase in all step rates for the grade." ]
Given a web search query, retrieve relevant passages that answer the query
msmarco
where does the surname biggs originate from
[ "This unusual surname recorded as Bigg, Bigge, Biggs, and Bigges, is of Olde English pre 7th century origins. It derives from the ancient word bigga meaning large, and as such was both an original baptismal name, and later in the medieval period, either a nickname surname, or possibly one from a location.ike the famous Little John of Robin Hood fame, who was according to legend, the largest man in the band of Merry men, the name may well have been a nickname, for a small person! Be that as it may the name is well recorded in several different parts of England." ]
[ "This surname can be found as Pydslue, Puggslegh, Pugsley, Pughsley, Pogesle, Pougeslye, and Pidgesley, all in Devonshire. As an example Jackett, the daughter of John Pugsley, was christened at Shirwell, Devonshire, on September 1st 1542.The first recorded spelling of the family name is shown to be that of Walter de Pideneslegh.his surname can be found as Pydslue, Puggslegh, Pugsley, Pughsley, Pogesle, Pougeslye, and Pidgesley, all in Devonshire. As an example Jackett, the daughter of John Pugsley, was christened at Shirwell, Devonshire, on September 1st 1542.", "The American surname Driggers is derived from the Greek name, Gregorios, or Latin, Gregorius, most commonly seen as English form Gregory. The surname Driggers is mostly co…ncentrated in the states of South Carolina, Florida, and Georgia." ]
Given a web search query, retrieve relevant passages that answer the query
msmarco
what is sun sensitivity
[ "Photosensitivity (or sun sensitivity) is inflammation of the skin induced by the combination of sunlight and certain medications or substances.This causes redness (erythema) of the skin and may look similar to sunburn.hotosensitivity (or sun sensitivity) is inflammation of the skin induced by the combination of sunlight and certain medications or substances." ]
[ ">Vitamins & supplements Symptoms Causes Harmful drugs Self help discussion Conventional treatment News. Light Sensitivity (photophobia or photosensivity) is a condition where your eyes are overly sensitive to light, possibly causing pain, tearing and discomfort.", "Light sensitivity is caused by a number of conditions that affect the eye (such as iritis, uveitis, and keratitis), as well as conditions that affect the entire body. Migraine headache is a common cause of photophobia, with a majority of migraine sufferers reporting sensitivity to light." ]
Given a web search query, retrieve relevant passages that answer the query
msmarco
First, the mailer may be able to do in one step what the postal service does in two or more steps.
[ "The mailer does what the postal service but quicker." ]
[ "The postal service is quicker than any mailer." ]
Given a premise, retrieve hypotheses that are entailed by the premise
nli
Is altered BANK1 expression associated with humoral autoimmunity in chronic joint inflammation?
[ "The presence of disease-specific autoantibodies in RA but not spondyloarthritis (SpA) suggests that B-cell tolerance is preserved in the latter condition despite chronic joint inflammation. Which factors control B-cell tolerance vs autoimmunity in chronic arthritis remains incompletely understood. As single nucleotide polymorphisms in the B-cell scaffold protein with ankyrin repeats (BANK1) gene have recently been associated with various autoantibody-positive autoimmune diseases including RA, we explored whether altered expression of BANK1 was associated with humoral autoimmunity in arthritis. Peripheral B-cell subsets and inflamed synovial tissue were obtained from active SpA and RA. Quantitative PCR was used to assess the expression of full-length BANK1 and delta2 BANK1, a splice variant lacking exon 2 that counteracts BANK1 function. B-cell subsets, autoantibody titres and clinical disease were monitored upon CIA induction in Bank1 knockout (KO) mice. Whereas full-length BANK1 was not differentially expressed, the BANK1 delta2 splicing variant was decreased in naïve peripheral B cells as well as in synovial tissue of SpA compared with RA. However, no differences were observed in seropositive vs seronegative RA. Performing functional analysis in mice, we found no differences in B-cell subsets and anti-collagen antibodies upon CIA induction between Bank1 KO mice and littermate controls. Accordingly, the incidence and severity of clinical disease were not altered in Bank1 KO mice" ]
[ "Ileal involvement in Crohn's disease (CD) is associated with NOD2 mutations and granulocyte-macrophage colony stimulating factor autoantibodies (GM-CSF Ab), and GM-CSF blockade promotes ileitis in Nod2/Card15-deficient (C15KO) mice. RALDH2-expressing dendritic cells (DC) and IL-4 promote CCR9 imprinting and small bowel homing of T lymphocytes, in conjunction with CCL25 expression by ileal epithelial cells (IEC). We hypothesized that GM-CSF neutralization promotes ileal disease by modulating expression of CCL25 by IEC and CCR9 by T lymphocytes via Nod2-dependent and independent pathways. CCL25 and CCR9 expression were determined in pediatric CD patients stratified by GM-CSF Ab. Ileitis was induced in C15KO mice via GM-CSF Ab administration followed by nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drug (NSAID) exposure, and expression of CCL25, CCR9, FOXP3, intracellular cytokines, and RALDH2 was determined in IEC and immune cell populations. The frequency of CCL25(+) IEC and CCR9(+) T lymphocytes was increased in CD patients with elevated GM-CSF Ab. In the murine model, GM-CSF blockade alone induced IEC CCL25 expression, and reduced the frequency of mesenteric lymph node (MLN) CD4(+) FOXP3(+) cells, while Card15 deficiency alone enhanced MLN DC RALDH2 expression. Both GM-CSF neutralization and Card15 deficiency were required for downregulation of MLN DC IL-10 expression; under these conditions NSAID exposure led to an expansion of IL-4(+) and IL-17(+) CCR9(+) lymphocytes in the ileum", "It is not clear how invading autoreactive T cells initiate the pathogenic process inside the diseased organ in T cell-mediated organ-specific autoimmune disease. In experimental autoimmune uveitis (EAU) induced by adoptive transfer of interphotoreceptor retinoid-binding protein (IRBP)-specific T cells in mice, we have previously reported that intraocular inflammation was initiated by infiltrating IRBP-specific T cells that directly interacted with retinal cells and resulted in the active release of high mobility group box 1 (HMGB1), an important member of damage associate molecular patterns (DAMPs). Furthermore, blockade of HMGB1 in our murine model reduced intraocular inflammation via suppression of IRBP-specific T cell functions. These results have demonstrated that HMGB1 is an early and critical mediator of induction of intraocular inflammation. The present study identified the cell surface molecule that triggers HMGB1 secretion. Retinal explants from Fas-deficient (Fas(lpr)) and wild-type (Wt) C57BL/6 (B6) mice were cultured with activated IRBP 1-20 peptide-specific T cells or with a Fas-activating antibody (Jo2), and then the level of HMGB1 in culture supernatants were detected by ELISA. In addition, released HMGB1 was examined in the eye of Fas(lpr) and Wt mice after IRBP-specific T cell transfer. Uveitis was evaluated in the IRBP-specific T cell transferred Fas(lpr) mice after recombinant HMGB1 was restored within the eye and in the IRBP-specific T cell transferred Wt mice after they were treated with a Fas antagonist (Met12)" ]
Given a question, retrieve relevant Pubmed passages that answer the question
qa_pairs
when was btb eradicated in ireland
[ "Despite many years of state-sponsored efforts to eradicate the disease from cattle through testing and slaughter, bovine tuberculosis (bTB) is still regarded as the most important and complex of animal health challenges facing the British livestock agricultural industry. This paper provides a historical analysis of the ongoing bTB statutory eradication programme in one part of the UK - Northern Ireland (NI) - which began in 1949 as a voluntary scheme, but between 1959 and 1960 became compulsory for all cattle herd-owners. Tracing bTB back through time sets the eradication efforts of the present day within a deeper context, and provides signposts for what developed in subsequent decades. The findings are based primarily on empirical research using historical published reports of the Ministry of Agriculture and state documents held in the public archives in NI, and they emphasize the need to consider the economic, social and political contexts of disease eradication efforts and their influences on both the past and the present." ]
[ "In the context of an ageing European population, point prevalence surveys (PPS) of healthcare-associated infection and antimicrobial use in long-term care facilities (HALT) in Europe were commissioned by the European Centre for Disease Prevention and Control. Sixty-nine Irish long-term care facilities (LTCFs) took part in the first survey in 2010. A series of interventions to raise the profile of infection prevention and control and antimicrobial stewardship in Irish LTCFs followed. HALT was repeated in Ireland in 2011, with 108 participating LTCFs, and again in 2013 as part of the second European HALT survey, with 190 participating LTCFs. The latest Irish HALT report incorporates data from the three PPSs to date, and discusses the findings and the national implementation priorities recommended by the Irish multi-disciplinary steering group. Ireland contributed ?10% of the total resident population in both of the European HALT PPSs. This, and the growing number of participating LTCFs, shows that healthcare professionals in Irish LTCFs are committed to improving the quality and safety of resident care.", "Beliefs can play an important role in farmer behaviour and willingness to adopt new policies. In Northern Ireland, bovine tuberculosis (bTB) is one of the most important endemic diseases facing the cattle industry. An observational study was conducted on 192 farms in a high bTB incidence area during 2010-2011 in order to obtain a better understanding of farmers' beliefs in relation to bTB control. The views of farmers who had experienced a recent confirmed or multiple reactor bTB breakdowns (cases) were compared to those of farmers who had no recent reactors or restricted herd tests (controls). Data were obtained from a face-to-face questionnaire assessing farmers' agreement to 22 statements. All participating farmers found bTB control important and most were keen to learn more about bTB biosecurity measures and were in favour of the cattle-related bTB control measures as presented in the questionnaire (isolation of skin test inconclusive animals, use of the gamma-interferon test and pre-movement testing). The majority of farmers would allow badger vaccination and culling on their own land with an overall preference for vaccination. Highest disagreement was shown for the statements querying a willingness to pay for bTB control measures. There was agreement on most issues between case and control farmers and between different age groups of farmers although case farmers showed more support for additional advice on bTB biosecurity measures (P = 0.042). Case farmers were also more in favour of allowing badger vaccination (P = 0.008) and culling (P = 0.043) on their land and showed less concern for public opposition (P = 0.048)." ]
Given a question, retrieve Pubmed passages that answer the question
synthetic
what is the purpose of inpatient acl reconstruction
[ "BACKGROUND: Arthroscopic reconstruction of the anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) has traditionally been performed in an inpatient setting. Outpatient treatment may offer the advantages of cost reduction and higher patient satisfaction.HYPOTHESIS/PURPOSE: We investigated whether ACL reconstruction in an outpatient setting is equally safe as in an inpatient setting and whether comparable functional outcomes can be achieved. We hypothesized that the outcomes of outpatient ACL reconstruction result in similar outcomes as inpatient ACL reconstruction.STUDY DESIGN: A prospective randomized controlled trial was conducted at one centre.METHODS: Forty-six patients were randomized to outpatient treatment or a 2-day admission after ACL reconstruction. The functional outcome was evaluated with the Lysholm, Tegner and International Knee Documentation Committee scores. Safety of the procedures was judged according to pain experience and readmission rate. The duration of follow-up was 1 year after ACL reconstruction. The patients were provided with a simple postoperative analgesic protocol. The linear mixed effect model for repeated measures was used for testing the differences between the study groups.RESULTS: No significant differences were found between the study groups in all the outcome measures. No readmissions were recorded related to pain. One complication was recorded in the outpatient group versus three in the inpatient group.CONCLUSION: This study indicates that outpatient care after ACL reconstruction yields comparable functional results and postoperative pain experience as inpatient care and is a safe option. A simple analgesic protocol provides adequate pain relief during the postoperative phase.LEVEL OF EVIDENCE: I." ]
[ "BACKGROUND AND OBJECTIVES: The need for hospital-based acute care following outpatient surgical procedures is expensive and measured as marker for quality. However, little information is available about events leading to emergency department visit or inpatient admission after ambulatory anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) surgery.METHODS: We studied adult patients who underwent outpatient ACL surgery in New York State between 2009 and 2013 using the Healthcare Cost and Utilization Project database. Emergency department visits and inpatient admissions within 30 days of surgery were identified by cross-matching 2 additional independent Healthcare Cost and Utilization Project databases.RESULTS: The final cohort included 26,873 subjects. We identified 1208 (3.90%; 95% confidence interval [CI], 3.6%-4.1%) secondary health care encounters of interest. The majority of these encounters were emergency department visits (951). The most common reasons were musculoskeletal pain (349 [28.9%]), any infection (122 [10.1%]), drug abuse (98 [8.1%]), wound infection (87 [7.2%]), deep venous thrombosis (77 [6.4%]), and psychotic events (54 [4.5%]). Patients operated on in high-volume surgical centers were less likely to require acute care (odds ratio, 0.47; P < 0.001; 95% CI, 0.34-0.63), whereas Medicare/Medicaid patients carried higher odds (odds ratio, 2.52; 99% CI, 2.07-3.07).CONCLUSIONS: The rate of hospital-based acute care following outpatient ACL surgery was 3.90%. Many of the events were expected complications related to surgery, such as infection and deep venous thrombosis. However, musculoskeletal pain, drug abuse, and psychotic events featured more prominently than expected. Our findings may direct efforts to address these reasons for seeking acute care after ACL surgery, reduce cost, and improve quality of care.", "PURPOSE: Anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) reconstruction using a bone-patellar tendon-bone (BTB) graft is known to provide secure fixation due to the direct bone-to-bone integration of the bone plug and bone tunnel. It is important to know the time required for bone integration when designing the postoperative rehabilitation protocol or deciding when the patient can return to competition-level activity, especially if the patient is an athlete. However, because reports are scarce, the period necessary for bone-to-bone integration after ACL reconstruction using a BTB graft remains unclear. The purpose of this study was to clarify this issue. It was hypothesised that ACL reconstruction using a BTB graft via an anatomical rectangular tunnel would help in the integration between bone plugs and bone tunnels on both the femoral and tibial sides after at least 6months, at which point basic exercises similar to pre-injury sporting activity levels can be resumed.METHODS: This study included 40 knees treated with ACL reconstruction using a BTB graft via anatomical rectangular tunnel reconstruction between 2013 and 2014 in a single institute. The integration between bone plugs and bone tunnels was evaluated using multi-slice tomosynthesis, which is a technique for producing slice images using conventional radiographic systems, at 1, 3, and 5months postoperatively. All procedures were performed by two experienced surgeons. Bone integration was evaluated by two orthopaedic doctors.RESULTS: The rates of integration of the bone plug and femoral bone tunnel on tomosynthesis at 1, 3, and 5months postoperatively were 0, 55, and 100%, respectively. On the tibial side, the corresponding rates were 0, 75, and 100%, respectively. The rate of integration on the tibial side was significantly higher than that on the femoral side at 3months postoperatively (p = 0.031).CONCLUSIONS: Bone-to-bone integration on the femoral and tibial sides was complete within 5months after surgery in all cases. Since the time required for bone integration is important in designing the postoperative rehabilitation approach, these results will serve as a useful guideline for planning rehabilitation protocols.LEVEL OF EVIDENCE: IV." ]
Given a question, retrieve Pubmed passages that answer the question
synthetic
Does c5a regulate IL-12+ DC migration to induce pathogenic Th1 and Th17 cells in sepsis?
[ "It is well known that complement system C5a is excessively activated during the onset of sepsis. However, it is unclear whether C5a can regulate dentritic cells (DCs) to stimulate adaptive immune cells such as Th1 and Th17 in sepsis. Sepsis was induced by cecal ligation and puncture (CLP). CLP-induced sepsis was treated with anti-C5a or IL-12. IL-12(+)DC, IFNγ(+)Th1, and IL-17(+)Th17 cells were analyzed by flow cytometry. IL-12 was measured by ELISA. Our studies here showed that C5a induced IL-12(+)DC cell migration from the peritoneal cavity to peripheral blood and lymph nodes. Furthermore, IL-12(+)DC cells induced the expansion of pathogenic IFNγ(+)Th1 and IL-17(+)Th17 cells in peripheral blood and lymph nodes. Moreover, IL-12, secreted by DC cells in the peritoneal cavity, is an important factor that prevents the development of sepsis" ]
[ "The inhibition of polymorphonuclear neutrophils' (PMNs) migration to the source of injury is among the most prominent aspects of immunosuppression following sepsis, although the precise mechanisms involved remain unclear and multifaceted. Increasing evidence connects this immunosuppression to nitric oxide (NO), as NO production is a classic feature of inflammation probably through neutrophil activation and migration. Nitrated fatty acids (NFA) such as 10-nitrooleate (OA-NO2), nitrolinoleic acid etc. produced endogenously by the non-enzymatic reaction of NO with unsaturated fatty acids, are found to be potent activators of the transcription factor, peroxisome proliferator-activated receptor gamma (PPARã). Upregulation of PPARã during immunosuppression and the subsequent inhibition of neutrophil migration in sepsis have been reported. However, the interplay of OA-NO2, NO and PPARã in polymicrobial-induced immunosuppression has not been established. Hence to understand this, we have studied the role of OA-NO2 in blood PMNs migration, the effects of iNOS inhibitor on PMNs migration and PPARã activity in cecal ligation and puncture (CLP)-induced sepsis in mice. We found increased expression of PPARã and its DNA-binding activity in the lungs and blood PMNs from CLP mice. CLP or OA-NO2 treatment inhibited PMNs' migration in response to fMLP stimulation. Pharmacological inhibition of iNOS resulted in decreased PPARã DNA-binding activity with a concomitant increase in the migration of PMNs to the site of infection. OA-NO2 treatment also inhibited the production of inflammatory cytokines (TNFá and IL-1â) secretion from PMNs stimulated with lipopolysaccharide. We have also established that, OA-NO2 mediated inhibition of PMNs migration in vivo and ex vivo are regulated through PPARã-dependent pathway. This study further highlights the fact that the activation of PPARã by the NFA has a pivotal role in PMNs' migration and immunosuppression.", "OBJECTIVE: Immunosuppression plays a vital role in the pathophysiological mechanism of sepsis, and it is the main cause of death in patients with sepsis during the later phase. Sepsis induced immunosuppression is gradually recognized. Its underlying mechanisms involve immune cell apoptosis, autophagy, cell metabolism reprogramming, endotoxin tolerance, central nervous system regulation, and epigenetic regulation. New approaches that target the host immune response and reconstruct the immune balance are the keys to improve the prognosis of patients with sepsis. With the help of immune status monitor, novel immunomodulatory agents, such as thymosin á1, ã- interferon (IFN-ã), interleukin-7 (IL-7), granulocyte-macrophage colony stimulating factor (GM-CSF) and anti-programmed death receptor 1 (PD-1) antibody, are expected to become a new strategy for the treatment of sepsis in future." ]
Given a question, retrieve relevant Pubmed passages that answer the question
qa_pairs
watchman device medication recommendations
[ "Watchman, EN, 9743933-2A. Black () E 5. PATIENT INFORMATION GUIDE. Your doctor has recommended that you consider undergoing a procedure to. receive the WATCHMAN Implant or you have recently had a WATCHMAN Implant. procedure in a part of your heart called the left atrial appendage (LAA)." ]
[ "Other patients who should not receive the implant include:  patients with a left atrial appendage that is too large or too small to fit the WATCHMAN Implant.  patients who cannot take warfarin, aspirin, or clopidogrel.  patients who should not or cannot undergo heart catheterization procedures.", "There’s an alternative to warfarin for people who need one. It’s called WATCHMAN. The only FDA-approved implant proven to reduce stroke risk in people with atrial fibrillation not caused by a heart valve problem. Watch the video to learn more and talk to your cardiologist about WATCHMAN." ]
Given a web search query, retrieve relevant passages that answer the query
msmarco
what age do athletes lose weight
[ "Athletes competing in individual sports such as judo are categorized by weight. Before competitions, weight cutting is common. This cross-sectional study was designed to characterize and determine the prevalence of rapid weight loss (RWL) among adolescent judo competitors. Male athletes aged 12- to 17-years old (N = 108) were recruited from local judo teams. Each participant completed a validated questionnaire regarding RWL practices. Anthropometric measurements were also performed. Average age was 14.6 1.6 years and all participants were of normal body mass index (BMI). RWL was practiced by 80% of the athletes before competition, beginning at an average age of 12.5 2.2 years with the highest prevalence (~94%) in the oldest group of judoka (16-17.9 years). Precompetition weight loss duration was 8 5.4 days, with an average weight reduction of 1.5 1.1 kg. The number of weight loss efforts per athlete in the past season was 2.8 2.2. RWL was achieved by increased physical activity (82.6%), skipped meals (56.3%), or fasting at least once (47%). Two-thirds of the athletes indicated that their coaches were the most influential figure in their decision to lose weight before competition. RWL is highly prevalent in adolescent judo competitors. The methods used by these athletes can potentially lead to significant health risks including compromised nutritional status, diminished physical performance and impaired growth and development. It is of great importance to insure that those who guide young adults in weight loss for competitive sports have the knowledge and understanding to make safe recommendations and appropriate decisions regarding achieving specific weight goals." ]
[ "Female athletes often experience sport-environment pressures about weight, eating, and body composition from within the sport environment. One pressure that may be particularly debilitating is being weighed as a requirement of sport participation. Using 414 female collegiate athletes from weight-sensitive sports, we examined the frequency of weigh-ins, weight intentionality, weight-management practices, and eating and nutritional behaviors. Of the 41% of athletes who were weighed, most were done by athletic trainers in private (82%) and prepared by using at least one weight management strategy (75%). In the entire sample, 22.8% ate <1500cal per day and 55% wanted to lose weight (approximately 5lb). The majority (78%) received their nutritional advice from qualified sources (e.g., dietitian). Although being weighed was not required for the majority of the athletes, and when mandated was done in a relatively healthy manner, sizable numbers of the athletes wanted to lose weight, ate less than needed for their sport, and received guidance on how to eat healthfully from unqualified sources. Additional research is needed with other sports to establish baseline data for these behaviors.", "Athletes require sufficient nutrition knowledge and skills to enable appropriate selection and consumption of food and fluids to meet their health, body composition, and performance needs. This article reports the nutrition knowledge and dietary habits of male football (soccer) players in Australia. Players age 18 years and older were recruited from 1 A-League club (professional) and 4 National Premier League clubs (semiprofessional). No significant difference in general nutrition knowledge (GNK; 54.1% 13.4%; 56.8% 11.7%; M SD), t(71) = -0.91, p = .37, or sports nutrition knowledge (SNK; 56.9% 15.5%; 61.3% 15.9%), t(71) = -1.16, p = .25) were noted between professional (n = 29) and semiprofessional (n = 44) players. In general, players lacked knowledge in regard to food sources and types of fat. Although nutrition knowledge varied widely among players (24.6-82.8% correct responses), those who had recently studied nutrition answered significantly more items correctly than those who reported no recent formal nutrition education (62.6% 11.9%; 54.0% 11.4%), t(67) = 2.88, p = .005). Analysis of 3-day estimated food diaries revealed both professionals (n = 10) and semiprofessionals (n = 31) consumed on average less carbohydrate (3.5 0.8 gC/kg; 3.9 1.8 gC/kg) per day than football-specific recommendations (FIFA Medical and Assessment Research Centre [F-MARC]: 5-10 gC/kg). There was a moderate, positive correlation between SNK and carbohydrate intake (n = 41, = 0.32, p = .04), indicating that players who exhibited greater SNK had higher carbohydrate intakes. On the basis of these findings, male football players in Australia would benefit from nutrition education targeting carbohydrate and fat in an attempt to improve nutrition knowledge and dietary practices." ]
Given a question, retrieve Pubmed passages that answer the question
synthetic
Do magnitude and complexity of rectal mucosa HIV-1-specific CD8+ T-cell responses during chronic infection reflect clinical status?
[ "The intestinal mucosa displays robust virus replication and pronounced CD4+ T-cell loss during acute human immunodeficiency virus type 1 (HIV-1) infection. The ability of HIV-specific CD8+ T-cells to modulate disease course has prompted intensive study, yet the significance of virus-specific CD8+ T-cells in mucosal sites remains unclear. We evaluated five distinct effector functions of HIVgag-specific CD8+ T-cells in rectal mucosa and blood, individually and in combination, in relationship to clinical status and antiretroviral therapy (ART). In subjects not on ART, the percentage of rectal Gag-specific CD8+ T-cells capable of 3, 4 or 5 simultaneous effector functions was significantly related to blood CD4 count and inversely related to plasma viral load (PVL) (p<0.05). Polyfunctional rectal CD8+ T-cells expressed higher levels of MIP-1beta and CD107a on a per cell basis than mono- or bifunctional cells. The production of TNFalpha, IFN-gamma, and CD107a by Gag-specific rectal CD8+ T-cells each correlated inversely (p<0.05) with PVL, and MIP-1beta expression revealed a similar trend. CD107a and IFN-gamma production were positively related to blood CD4 count (p<0.05), with MIP-1beta showing a similar trend. IL-2 production by rectal CD8+ T-cells was highly variable and generally low, and showed no relationship to viral load or blood CD4 count" ]
[ "Importance: Treatment of rectal cancer is shifting toward organ preservation aiming to reduce surgery-related morbidity. Short-term outcomes of organ-preserving strategies are promising, but long-term outcomes are scarce in the literature.Objective: To explore long-term oncological outcomes and health-related quality of life (HRQL) in patients with cT1-3N0M0 rectal cancer who underwent neoadjuvant chemoradiotherapy (CRT) followed by transanal endoscopic microsurgery (TEM).Design, Setting, and Participants: In this multicenter phase II feasibility study, patients with cT1-3N0M0 rectal cancer admitted to referral centers for rectal cancer throughout the Netherlands between February 2011 and September 2012 were prospectively included. These patients were to be treated with neoadjuvant CRT followed by TEM in case of good response. An intensive follow-up scheme was used to detect local recurrences and/or distant metastases. Data from validated HRQL questionnaires and low anterior resection syndrome questionnaires were collected. Data were analyzed from February 2011 to April 2017.Main Outcomes and Measures: The primary study outcome of the study was the number of ypT0-1 specimens by performing TEM. Secondary outcome parameters were locoregional recurrences and HRQL.Results: Of the 55 included patients, 30 (55%) were male, and the mean (SD) age was 64 (39-82) years. Patients were followed up for a median (interquartile range) period of 53 (39-57) months. Two patients (4%) died during CRT, 1 (2%) stopped CRT, and 1 (2%) was lost to follow-up. Following CRT, 47 patients (85%) underwent TEM, of whom 35 (74%) were successfully treated with local excision alone. Total mesorectal excision was performed in 16 patients (4 with inadequate responses, 8 with completion after TEM, and 4 with salvage for local recurrence). The actuarial 5-year local recurrence rate was 7.7%, with 5-year disease-free and overall survival rates of 81.6% and 82.8%, respectively. Health-related quality of life during follow-up was equal to baseline, with improved emotional well-being in patients treated with local excision (mean score at baseline, 72.0; 95% CI, 67.1-80.1; mean score at follow-up, 86.9; 95% CI, 79.2-94.7; P = .001). Major, minor, and no low anterior resection syndrome was experienced in 50%, 28%, and 22%, respectively, of patients with successful organ preservation.Conclusions and Relevance: In early-stage rectal cancer (cT1-3N0M0), CRT enables organ preservation with additional TEM surgery in approximately two-thirds of patients with good long-term oncological outcome and HRQL. This multimodality treatment triggers a certain degree of bowel dysfunction, and one-third of patients still undergo radical surgery and are overtreated by CRT.", "Background: There are known associations between inflammatory bowel disease (IBD) and changes in mucosal paracellular permeability. We recently developed a novel catheter that can measure mucosal admittance (MA).Methods: Patients with ulcerative colitis (UC) in clinical remission underwent real-time MA measurement during colonoscopy between June 2014 and July 2015 and were prospectively followed. MA measures were taken from normal-appearing mucosa using the Tissue Conductance Meter (TCM). We examined relationships between mucosal admittance, clinical parameters at the time of MA measurement, and disease relapse during the follow-up period using the Cox proportional hazards model.Results: We measured baseline MA in 54 patients with UC during remission, with no complications. Of these, 23 patients relapsed during the subsequent follow-up period, at a median of 25.8 ± 7.6 months. Rectal MA was the only predictor of disease relapse in multivariate analysis (P = 0.027). The optimal rectal MA cutoff value for relapse was 781.0 (area under the receiver operating characteristic curve, 0.712), and in patients who showed lower than normal cutoff values, there was a significantly higher likelihood of relapse compared with other patients (log-rank test, P < 0.001).Conclusions: High rectal MA measured by TCM is associated with long-term sustained remission. Real-time rectal MA measurement using a novel endoscopy-guided catheter could be a safe and useful means of predicting prognosis for patients with UC in remission." ]
Given a question, retrieve relevant Pubmed passages that answer the question
qa_pairs
does hypericum perforatum help with sni in rat
[ "OBJECTIVES: This study was conducted to explore whether Hypericum perforatum L. (HPL) as a potent antioxidant protects against oxidative stress, cytokine production and caspase expression in muscle (soleus), brain and blood of sciatic nerve injury (SNI)-induced rats.METHODS: Thirty-five rats were equally divided into five groups. The first and second were used as untreated control and sham control groups, respectively. The third, fourth and fifth were sham + HPL, SNI and SNI + HPL groups, respectively. The third and fifth groups received 30 mg/kg HPL via gastric gavage for 28 days.KEY FINDINGS: High levels of muscle, brain and red blood cell (RBC) lipid peroxidation, plasma cytokine (TNF-, IL-1 and IL-2), muscle PARP, caspase 3 and 9 expression levels were decreased by HPL treatments. Plasma glutathione peroxidase (GPx) activity, -tocopherol and melatonin, muscle, brain and RBC reduced glutathione (GSH) concentrations were decreased by SNI induction, whereas their values were increased by HPL treatments. -carotene and retinol concentrations did not change in the five groups.CONCLUSION: HPL may play a role in preventing SNI-induced inflammatory, oxidative and apoptotic blood, muscle and brain damages through upregulation of the GSH and GPx values but downregulation of PARP, caspase level and cytokine production in SNI-induced rats." ]
[ "Oxidative stress and cytosolic Ca(2+) overload have important roles on apoptosis in dorsal root ganglion (DRG) neurons after spinal cord injury (SCI). Hypericum perforatum (HP) has an antioxidant property in the DRGs due to its ability to modulate NADPH oxidase and protein kinase C pathways. We aimed to investigate the protective property of HP on oxidative stress, apoptosis, and Ca(2+) entry through transient receptor potential melastatin 2 (TRPM2) and transient receptor potential vanilloid 1 (TRPV1) channels in SCI-induced DRG neurons of rats. Rats were divided into four groups as control, HP, SCI, and SCI + HP. The HP groups received 30mg/kg HP for three concessive days after SCI induction. The SCI-induced TRPM2 and TRPV1 currents and cytosolic free Ca(2+) concentration were reduced by HP. The SCI-induced decrease in glutathione peroxidase and cell viability values were ameliorated by HP treatment, and the SCI-induced increase in apoptosis, caspase 3, caspase 9, cytosolic reactive oxygen species (ROS) production, and mitochondrial membrane depolarization values in DRG of SCIgroup were overcome by HP treatment. In conclusion, we observed a protective role of HP on SCI-induced oxidative stress, apoptosis, and Ca(2+) entry through TRPM2 and TRPV1 in the DRG neurons. Our findings may be relevant to the etiology and treatment of SCI by HP. Graphical Abstract Possible molecular pathways of involvement of Hypericum perforatum (HP) on apoptosis, oxidative stress, and calcium accumulation through TRPM2 and TRPV1 channels in DRG neurons of SCI-induced rats. The TRPM2 channel is activated by ADP-ribose and oxidative stress through activation of ADP-ribose pyrophosphate although it was inhibited by N-(p-amylcinnamoyl) anthranilic acid (ACA) and 2-aminoethyl diphenylborinate (2APB). The TRPV1 channel is activated by oxidative stress and capsaicin and it is blocked by capsazepine. Injury in the DRG can result in augmented ROS release, leading to Ca(2+) uptake through TRPM2 and TRPV1 channels. Mitochondria were reported to accumulate Ca(2+), provided intracellular Ca(2+) rises, thereby leading to depolarization of mitochondrial membranes and release of apoptosis-inducing factors such as caspase 3 and caspase 9. HP via regulation of NADPH oxidase and PKC inhibits TRPM2 and TRPV1 channels. The molecular pathway may be a cause of SCI-induced pain and neuronal death, and the subject should be urgently investigated.", "BACKGROUND: Hypericum perforatum (HP) (St. John's Wort-Kantaron) has been used widely for the treatment of burn injuries for many years in traditional Turkish medicine. The aim of study was to investigate HP treatment in experimental thermal burns and compare it with silver sulfadiazine (SS) treatment.METHODS: Thirty-five rats were randomly assigned to one of the five groups, 7 rats in each. A second-degree thermal burn was created on the dorsal sites of rats by exposing an area of 4?4 cm to 100 C boiled water for 10 seconds. All groups were provided with irrigation for three (3) minutes with 50 cc saline solution (SS). Group 1 (Control Group) was not administered any treatment. Group 2 (Burn Control Group) was administered only irrigation, Group 3 (topical silver sulfadiazine [SS]) was administered SS twice a day, Group 4 (the Topical HP Group) was administered HP four times a day (every six hours), Group 5 (treatment with agent -gel-) was administered other topical material used for the preparation of HP four times a day (every six hours). Wound site healing on the skin was histopathologically evaluated.RESULTS: It was found that collagen discoloration of the HP treatment group was localized in the lower part of the epidermal layer and did not go up to the depth of dermis compared to the other groups, and epidermis, hair follicles and sebaceous glands remained protected compared to the groups administered burn, gel and SS in every hour of the experiment and it was the group closest to the control group structurally. It was determined that the epidermal thickness and the number of vessels of the HP Group were significantly higher compared to the other groups (p<0.05), which was the group closest to the control group in terms of these parameters and these numbers did not show any difference within hours (p>0.05). The number of degenerated hair follicles in the HP Group was significantly less than the other groups (p <0.05), and it was determined that the total number of hair follicles significantly increased in the twenty-fourth (p<0.05) and this number did not differ by the control group (p>0.05).CONCLUSION: Administration of HP four times a day within the first 24 hours is clearly effective in wound healing in the experimental thermal second degree burn modality and is significantly superior to SS treatment." ]
Given a question, retrieve Pubmed passages that answer the question
synthetic
What are the symptoms of Glycogen storage disease type 1B ?
[ " What are the signs and symptoms of Glycogen storage disease type 1B? The Human Phenotype Ontology provides the following list of signs and symptoms for Glycogen storage disease type 1B. If the information is available, the table below includes how often the symptom is seen in people with this condition. You can use the MedlinePlus Medical Dictionary to look up the definitions for these medical terms. Signs and Symptoms Approximate number of patients (when available) Autosomal recessive inheritance - Decreased glomerular filtration rate - Delayed puberty - Doll-like facies - Elevated hepatic transaminases - Enlarged kidneys - Focal segmental glomerulosclerosis - Gout - Hepatocellular carcinoma - Hepatomegaly - Hyperlipidemia - Hypertension - Hypoglycemia - Lactic acidosis - Lipemia retinalis - Nephrolithiasis - Neutropenia - Oral ulcer - Osteoporosis - Pancreatitis - Proteinuria - Protuberant abdomen - Recurrent bacterial infections - Short stature - Xanthomatosis - The Human Phenotype Ontology (HPO) has collected information on how often a sign or symptom occurs in a condition. Much of this information comes from Orphanet, a European rare disease database. The frequency of a sign or symptom is usually listed as a rough estimate of the percentage of patients who have that feature. The frequency may also be listed as a fraction. The first number of the fraction is how many people had the symptom, and the second number is the total number of people who were examined in one study. For example, a frequency of 25/25 means that in a study of 25 people all patients were found to have that symptom. Because these frequencies are based on a specific study, the fractions may be different if another group of patients are examined. Sometimes, no information on frequency is available. In these cases, the sign or symptom may be rare or common." ]
[ " What are the signs and symptoms of Glucose transporter type 1 deficiency syndrome? The most common form of glucose transporter type 1 deficiency syndrome (GLUT1 deficiency syndrome), called the classic type, may be characterized by: Recurrent seizures (epilepsy) beginning in the first months of life Microcephaly (unusually small head size) that develops after birth Developmental delay Intellectual disability Speech and language impairment Movement abnormalities (i.e. involuntary eye movements, spasticity, ataxia, dystonia) Behavioral problems Other signs and symptoms may include headaches, confusion, loss of energy and/or myoclonus (muscle twitches). Approximately 10% of affected people have the non-epileptic form of GLUT1 deficiency syndrome. This form is associated with all the typical symptoms of the condition without seizures. The Human Phenotype Ontology provides the following list of signs and symptoms for Glucose transporter type 1 deficiency syndrome. If the information is available, the table below includes how often the symptom is seen in people with this condition. You can use the MedlinePlus Medical Dictionary to look up the definitions for these medical terms. Signs and Symptoms Approximate number of patients (when available) Seizures 75% Autosomal recessive inheritance 5% Abnormality of metabolism/homeostasis - Ataxia - Autosomal dominant inheritance - Babinski sign - Choreoathetosis - Confusion - Delayed speech and language development - Dysarthria - EEG abnormality - Hemiparesis - Hyperreflexia - Hypoglycorrhachia - Infantile onset - Intellectual disability - Myoclonus - Paralysis - Paroxysmal dystonia - Paroxysmal involuntary eye movements - Paroxysmal lethargy - Phenotypic variability - Postnatal microcephaly - Sleep disturbance - Spasticity - Specific learning disability - The Human Phenotype Ontology (HPO) has collected information on how often a sign or symptom occurs in a condition. Much of this information comes from Orphanet, a European rare disease database. The frequency of a sign or symptom is usually listed as a rough estimate of the percentage of patients who have that feature. The frequency may also be listed as a fraction. The first number of the fraction is how many people had the symptom, and the second number is the total number of people who were examined in one study. For example, a frequency of 25/25 means that in a study of 25 people all patients were found to have that symptom. Because these frequencies are based on a specific study, the fractions may be different if another group of patients are examined. Sometimes, no information on frequency is available. In these cases, the sign or symptom may be rare or common.", " What are the signs and symptoms of Autoimmune polyglandular syndrome type 1? The Human Phenotype Ontology provides the following list of signs and symptoms for Autoimmune polyglandular syndrome type 1. If the information is available, the table below includes how often the symptom is seen in people with this condition. You can use the MedlinePlus Medical Dictionary to look up the definitions for these medical terms. Signs and Symptoms Approximate number of patients (when available) Abnormality of calcium-phosphate metabolism 90% Abnormality of the cerebral vasculature 90% Abnormality of the fingernails 90% Autoimmunity 90% Hypercortisolism 90% Hypoparathyroidism 90% Opacification of the corneal stroma 90% Photophobia 90% Primary adrenal insufficiency 90% Visual impairment 90% Cataract 50% Abnormal hair quantity 7.5% Cerebral calcification 7.5% Hypopigmented skin patches 7.5% Alopecia - Anemia - Asplenia - Autosomal dominant inheritance - Autosomal recessive inheritance - Cholelithiasis - Chronic active hepatitis - Chronic atrophic gastritis - Chronic mucocutaneous candidiasis - Diarrhea - Female hypogonadism - Hypoplasia of dental enamel - Juvenile onset - Keratoconjunctivitis - Malabsorption - Type I diabetes mellitus - Vitiligo - The Human Phenotype Ontology (HPO) has collected information on how often a sign or symptom occurs in a condition. Much of this information comes from Orphanet, a European rare disease database. The frequency of a sign or symptom is usually listed as a rough estimate of the percentage of patients who have that feature. The frequency may also be listed as a fraction. The first number of the fraction is how many people had the symptom, and the second number is the total number of people who were examined in one study. For example, a frequency of 25/25 means that in a study of 25 people all patients were found to have that symptom. Because these frequencies are based on a specific study, the fractions may be different if another group of patients are examined. Sometimes, no information on frequency is available. In these cases, the sign or symptom may be rare or common." ]
Given a question, retrieve relevant documents that answer the question
medquad
how long is a baseball field in feet
[ "Overall Dimensions. The outside measurements for College and NCAA football fields below include the End Zone. Length: 360 feet or 120 yards. Width: 160 feet or 53 1/3 yards. End Zone: College/NCAA fields have 10 yard deep end zones. End Line: A six foot end line border marks the back of the end zone. Field Numbers: The Field Numbers for College and NCAA football fields are 6 feet high and 4 feet wide. Restraining Line: The restraining line designates how close non-players can be to the field. The College restraining line is 6′ from the sidelines." ]
[ "Team Benches: Team benches are placed along the Restraining Line between the 30 yard markers. Field Numbers: NFL field numbers are 6 feet high and 4 feet wide. Restraining Line: NFL fields have a 6’ line along the side lines that designate the closest non-players can be to the field. Hash Marks: NFL Hash marks are the narrowest of all the levels of football play.", "Yes. Often an acre of land is compared to a football field. In reality, an acre is equal to about 76% of a football field, when you consider both end zones. A football field (including the two end zones) is 360 feet long and 160 feet wide for a total of 57,600 square feet.When you take away the two 30-foot-long end zones at each end, the field is 48,000 square feet, making an acre about 91% of the field.n reality, an acre is equal to about 76% of a football field, when you consider both end zones." ]
Given a web search query, retrieve relevant passages that answer the query
msmarco
externalization of conductor in biotronik leads
[ "Conductor externalization is a frequent complication with the St. Jude Medical Riata lead. Single case reports also reported externalization of conductors for dual-coil Biotronik leads. Up to now, conductor externalization has not yet been reported for any single coil leads. We report for the first time an externalization of conductors in a Biotronik Kentrox single-coil implantable cardioverter defibrillator (ICD) lead." ]
[ "An externally-applied electric field can polarize a neuron, especially a neuron with elongated dendrites, and thus modify its excitability. Here we use a computational model to examine, predict, and explain these effects. We use a two-compartment Pinsky-Rinzel model neuron polarized by an electric potential difference imposed between its compartments, and we apply an injected ramp current. We vary three model parameters: the magnitude of the applied potential difference, the extracellular potassium concentration, and the rate of current injection. A study of the Time-To-First-Spike (TTFS) as a function of polarization leads to the identification of three regions of polarization strength that have different effects. In the weak region, the TTFS increases linearly with polarization. In the intermediate region, the TTFS increases either sub- or super-linearly, depending on the current injection rate and the extracellular potassium concentration. In the strong region, the TTFS decreases. Our results in the weak and strong region are consistent with experimental observations, and in the intermediate region, we predict novel effects that depend on experimentally-accessible parameters. We find that active channels in the dendrite play a key role in these effects. Our qualitative results were found to be robust over a wide range of inter-compartment conductances and the ratio of somatic to dendritic membrane areas. In addition, we discuss preliminary results where synaptic inputs replace the ramp injection protocol. The insights and conclusions were found to extend from our polarized PR model to a polarized PR model with I h dendritic currents. Finally, we discuss the degree to which our results may be generalized.", "The purpose of this work is to present a new method that can be used to estimate and mitigate RF induced currents on Deep Brain Stimulation (DBS) leads. Here, we demonstrate the effect of RF induced current mitigation on both RF heating and image quality for a variety of brain MRI sequences at 3 T. We acquired pre-scan images around a DBS lead (in-situ and ex-vivo) using conventional Gradient Echo Sequence (GRE) accelerated by parallel imaging (i.e GRAPPA) and quantified the magnitude and phase of RF induced current using the relative location of the B1+ null with respect to the lead position. We estimated the RF induced current on a DBS lead implanted in a gel phantom as well as in a cadaver head study for a variety of RF excitation patterns. We also measured the increase in tip temperature using fiber-optic probes for both phantom and cadaver studies. Using the magnitude and phase information of the current induced separately by two transmit channels of the body coil, we calculated an implant friendly (IF) excitation. Using the IF excitation, we acquired T1, T2 weighted Turbo Spin Echo (TSE), T2 weighted SPACE-Dark Fluid, and Ultra Short Echo Time (UTE) sequences around the lead. Our induced current estimation demonstrated linear relationship between the magnitude of the induced current and the square root SAR at the tip of the lead as measured in phantom studies. The \"IF excitation pattern\" calculated after the pre-scan mitigated RF artifacts and increased the image quality around the lead. In addition, it reduced the tip temperature significantly in both phantom and cadaver studies compared to a conventional quadrature excitation while keeping equivalent overall image quality. We present a relatively fast method that can be used to calculate implant friendly excitation, reducing image artifacts as well as the temperature around the DBS electrodes. When combined with a variety of MR sequences, the proposed method can improve the image quality and patient safety in clinical imaging scenarios." ]
Given a question, retrieve Pubmed passages that answer the question
synthetic
did glenn die
[ "Glenn's not dead! Though The Walking Dead characters are in constant peril, there was at least some relief in the tense season 5 finale — Daryl Dixon (Norman Reedus) and Glenn Rhee (Steven Yeun) are still alive and well." ]
[ "News of singer Sade’s death spread quickly earlier this week causing concern among fans across the world. However the April 2017 report has now been confirmed as a complete hoax and just the latest in a string of fake celebrity death reports.", "They risk their lives everyday on-screen, battling zombies as Daryl Dixon and Glenn Rhee in The Walking Dead. But Norman Reedus and Steven Yeun turned out to be real life heroes after they stumbled across a car crash in Peachtree City, Atlanta, on Thursday. Driving to the set of the hit AMC show, the pair suddenly became aware of the incident and jumped off their motorbikes to see how they could help. Scroll down for video. Partners in crime: Norman Reedus and Steven Yeun turned out to be real life heroes after they stumbled across a car crash in Peachtree City, Atlanta, on Thursday. Rushing over to the scene, the duo checked if the victims were hurt and waited with the group until the paramedics arrived." ]
Given a web search query, retrieve relevant passages that answer the query
msmarco
Parents can make the best decisions for their kids, and if they are looking for quality day care, it isn't likely to be because someone in a lab coat tells them it will mean an IQ 4.6 points higher at age 15.
[ "Kids in quality day care grow up to be a bit smarter by age 15." ]
[ "Parents will never make the best decisions for their kids." ]
Given a premise, retrieve hypotheses that are entailed by the premise
nli
How does an LED bulb work? How is it different from fluorescent?
[ " When you run a current through a gas like mercury, it shoots off ultraviolet light. If you put a phosphorescent coating next to the gas, it absorbs the ultraviolet light and glows with visible light. That's how fluorescent lighting works. \n\nIncandescent lighting is slightly different, it's called black body radiation. Essentially the heating of an object causes it to give off energy in the form of light. \n\nLEDs use semiconductors, where a controlled number of electrons move through a piece of material with an excess of electrons into a material with \"holes\" or places for electrons to go. The free electron material generally has them floating at higher energy level than in the material with \"holes\" so when the current flows and electrons cross the junction they drop energy levels, emitting the photons or light. It's called the photo electric effect.", " LEDs work because electrons and holes are created when a current is passed through a semiconductor material. The resulting interaction of the electrons and holes produces photons. \nFluorescent bulbs are an ionized gas producing UV light which hits a phosphor coating that brightens the room with the familiar light we know." ]
[ " As far as I'm aware, it's simply that LED bulbs have a much smaller light-emitting region, so for a given brightness the light density is much higher. Fluorescent and incandescent bulbs tend to be frosted for consistency and aesthetics, whereas with LED bulbs you're often looking straight at the diode itself. There are frosted LED bulbs: I'd expect those to give you roughly the same experience as staring at the other two.", " Incandescent lights work by heating up a strip of metal until it's hot enough to glow. This uses a lot of electricity and produces a lot of heat, both of which are bad things.\n\nFluorescent lights work by adding energy to mercury gas. The mercury stays high-energy for a little bit, then loses that energy in the form of invisible ultraviolet light. This light, in turn, hits a special coating inside the lightbulb which glows under UV light (much like your teeth glow under a blacklight). This is more efficient than incandescence, but still inefficient since there are so many steps to the process. It is not heat-based, so that is an advantage over incandescent lightbulbs. It requires mercury, which is toxic. Finally, it is not a steady process, but a series of very fast zaps of electricity, which produces a flicker (but the flicker is so fast that the human eye can't normally detect it). \n\nLEDs basically work the same as fluorescent lights, but cut out some steps. Instead, they directly send energy to a substance which produces visible light, instead of UV light like mercury does. With fewer steps involved, this is much more efficient, and can be kept \"on\" steadily instead of flickering like a fluorescent bulb." ]
Given a question, retrieve the highest voted answers on Reddit forum
eli5
can an employee file unfair business practices
[ "When most people think of labor law violations, they probably think of “Big Business.” But employees, employers, and labor organizations file thousands of charges each year called Unfair Labor Practices against unions and union officials.mployees also file ULPs against union leaders for intimidation, coercion, violence, and many other labor law violations. The National Labor Relations Board’s annual report for fiscal year 2010 included the number of Unfair Labor Practices alleged against employers and unions." ]
[ "When you file a complaint, the employer's actions that you're complaining about are referred to as unfair labor practices, or ULPs. As you study the NLRA, draft a list of specific incidents where you believe your employer denied your rights.or example, if your employer discovered that a labor union representative was holding meetings at the local watering hole after work and your boss threatened to fire you if you attended any of the meetings, that's a clear indication that your employer may have engaged in an unfair labor practice.", "Unfair Management Practices: Management sometimes indulges in unfair practices like: 1 Wage discrimination. 2 Non-compliance with promotional policies and transfer policies. 3 Discrimination in allotment of work. 4 Defective handling of grievances. 5 Payment of low wages. 6 Delay in payment of wages. 7 Creating low quality work life etc." ]
Given a web search query, retrieve relevant passages that answer the query
msmarco
Is quality of diet associated with insulin resistance in the Cree ( Eeyouch ) indigenous population of northern Québec?
[ "Indigenous people worldwide have a greater disease burden than their non-aboriginal counterparts with health challenges that include increased obesity and higher prevalence of diabetes. We investigate the relationships of dietary patterns with nutritional biomarkers, selected environmental contaminants and measures of insulin resistance in the Cree (Eeyouch) of northern Québec Canada. The cross-sectional 'Nituuchischaayihitaau Aschii: A Multi-Community Environment-and-Health Study in Eeyou Istchee' recruited 835 adult participants (≥18 y) from 7 communities in the James Bay region of northern Québec. The three dietary patterns identified by principal component analysis (PCA) were: inland and coastal patterns with loadings on traditional foods, and a junk food pattern with high-fat and high-sugar foods. We investigated dietary patterns scores (in quantiles) in relation with nutritional biomarkers, environmental contaminants, anthropometry, blood pressure, fasting plasma glucose and insulin, and insulin resistance. Homeostatic model assessment (HOMA-IR) was used as surrogate markers of insulin resistance. ANCOVA ascertained relationships between dietary patterns relationship and outcomes. Greater scores for the traditional patterns were associated with higher levels of n-3 fatty acids, mercury and polychlorinated biphenyls (PCBs) (P trend <0.001). Higher scores for the junk food pattern were associated with lower levels of PCBs and Vitamin D, but higher fasting plasma insulin and HOMA-IR" ]
[ "The purpose of this study was to examine the association of intrapersonal influences of diet quality as defined by the Health Belief Model constructs in women with recent histories of gestational diabetes. A descriptive, correlational, cross-sectional design was used to analyze relationships between diet quality and intrapersonal variables, including perceptions of threat of type 2 diabetes mellitus development, benefits and barriers of healthy eating, and dietary self-efficacy, in a convenience sample of 75 community-dwelling women (55% minority; mean age, 35.5 years; SD, 5.5 years) with previous gestational diabetes mellitus. Diet quality was defined by the Alternative Healthy Eating Index (AHEI). Multiple regression was used to identify predictors of AHEI diet quality. Women had moderate AHEI diet quality (mean score, 47.6; SD, 14.3). Only higher levels of education and self-efficacy significantly predicted better AHEI diet quality, controlling for other contributing variables", "The incidence of the insulin resistance syndrome has increased at an alarming rate worldwide, creating a serious challenge to public health care in the 21st century. Recently, epidemiological studies have associated the prevalence of type 2 diabetes with elevated body burdens of persistent organic pollutants (POPs). However, experimental evidence demonstrating a causal link between POPs and the development of insulin resistance is lacking. We investigated whether exposure to POPs contributes to insulin resistance and metabolic disorders. Sprague-Dawley rats were exposed for 28 days to lipophilic POPs through the consumption of a high-fat diet containing either refined or crude fish oil obtained from farmed Atlantic salmon. In addition, differentiated adipocytes were exposed to several POP mixtures that mimicked the relative abundance of organic pollutants present in crude salmon oil. We measured body weight, whole-body insulin sensitivity, POP accumulation, lipid and glucose homeostasis, and gene expression and we performed microarray analysis. Adult male rats exposed to crude, but not refined, salmon oil developed insulin resistance, abdominal obesity, and hepatosteatosis. The contribution of POPs to insulin resistance was confirmed in cultured adipocytes where POPs, especially organochlorine pesticides, led to robust inhibition of insulin action. Moreover, POPs induced down-regulation of insulin-induced gene-1 (Insig-1) and Lpin1, two master regulators of lipid homeostasis" ]
Given a question, retrieve relevant Pubmed passages that answer the question
qa_pairs
does cynicism cause burnout
[ "Research on the negative effects of student cynicism has been limited, especially regarding its relation to student burnout. This study examined the relations among student cynicism (policy cynicism, academic cynicism, social cynicism, and institutional cynicism) and student burnout, as evidenced by emotional exhaustion, depersonalization, and reduced personal accomplishment, in a sample of 276 Chinese undergraduates. Hierarchical multiple regressions showed that four aspects of student cynicism together explained substantial variance in student burnout. Policy cynicism was the strongest contributor to emotional exhaustion. Social cynicism was the primary contributor to depersonalization, and also to reduced personal accomplishment. Student cynicism overall had the strongest relationship with reduced sense of personal achievement. The findings outline the negative functional relations between student cynicism and student burnout." ]
[ "Burnout in nursing staff is a major cause for turnover and absenteeism. Identifying risk and protective factors may be helpful in decreasing burnout symptoms. Moreover, research indicates that ambulatory assessments of the autonomic nervous system might be helpful in detecting long-term stress and burnout symptoms. One hundred and ten forensic nursing staff members completed questionnaires measuring experiences with aggressive behaviour, emotional intelligence, personality, and job stress during four waves of data collection across a 2-year period. Multilevel analyses were used to test the predicted associations and moderation effects with (the development of) burnout symptoms. Burnout was predicted by a combination of emotional intelligence, job stress, aggression, personality factors, and skin conductance, but no moderation effects over time were found. Over a period of 2years, the model approximately predicts a change in one burnout category on the Maslach Burnout Inventory. The amount of burnout symptoms in nurses might be used as an indicator to predict turnover and absenteeism considering the increase in symptoms over time. Nursing staff who experience severe aggression and who have relatively low levels of emotional intelligence and altruism and high levels of neuroticism and job stress should be monitored and supported to decrease the risk of burnout. Staff members can be trained to increase their emotional intelligence and relieve stress to decrease their burnout symptoms and turnover and absenteeism on the long term. Ambulatory assessment might be helpful as a nonintrusive way to detect increasing levels of burnout.", "BACKGROUND: Recent studies show that teachers, especially in Secondary Education present varying levels of burnout syndrome. This problem could be caused by internal factors unique to the subject (psychological characteristics) or external factors (overwork, social climate, etc.).METHOD: The objective of this study is to analyze the influence of interpersonal relationships on the development of burnout in a sample of 794 secondary education teachers from the Community of Madrid, applying structural equation modeling methodology.RESULTS: it was observed that the teacher-student relationship has a significant effect on each of the three dimensions of the syndrome (exhaustion, cynicism, and inefficacy), and the teacher-superiors and teacher-coworker relationships show a moderate effect on these dimensions.CONCLUSIONS: The results show the importance of taking care of interpersonal relationships in schools to ensure the well-being of teachers and, ultimately, the quality of the learning process." ]
Given a question, retrieve Pubmed passages that answer the question
synthetic
Does necroX-5 suppress IgE/Ag-stimulated anaphylaxis and mast cell activation by regulating the SHP-1-Syk signaling module?
[ "IgE/Ag-stimulated mast cells release various pro-allergic inflammatory mediators, including histamine, eicosanoids, and pro-inflammatory cytokines. NecroX-5, a cell permeable necrosis inhibitor, showed cytoprotective effects in both in vitro and in vivo models. However, the anti-allergic effect of NecroX-5 has not yet been investigated. The aims of this study were to evaluate the anti-allergic activity of NecroX-5 in vivo and to investigate the underlying mechanism in vitro. The anti-allergic activity of NecroX-5 was evaluated in vitro using bone marrow-derived mast cells (BMMCs) and IgE receptor-bearing RBL-2H3 or KU812 cells and in vivo using a mouse model of passive anaphylaxis. The levels of histamine, eicosanoids (PGD2 and LTC4 ), tumor necrosis factor-α (TNF-α), and interleukin-6 (IL-6) were measured using enzyme immunoassay kits. The mechanism underlying the action of NecroX-5 was investigated using immunoblotting, immunoprecipitation, and gene knockdown techniques. NecroX-5 markedly inhibited mast cell degranulation and the synthesis of eicosanoids, TNF-α, and IL-6 by suppressing the activation of Syk, LAT, phospholipase Cγ1, MAP kinases, the Akt/NF-κB pathway, and intracellular Ca(2+) mobilization via the activation of phosphatase SHP-1. Oral administration of NecroX-5 effectively suppressed mast cell-dependent passive cutaneous and systemic anaphylactic reactions in a dose-dependent manner" ]
[ "Necroptosis, an inflammatory form of cell death, is initiated by the activation of receptor-interacting protein kinase 3 (RIPK3), which depends on its interaction with RIPK1. Although catalytically inactive, the RIPK3 mutant D161N still stimulates RIPK1-dependent apoptosis and embryonic lethality in RIPK3 D161N homozygous mice. Whereas the absence of RIPK1 rescues RIPK3 D161N homozygous mice, we report that the absence of RIPK1 leads to embryonic lethality in RIPK3 D161N heterozygous mice. This suggested that the kinase domain of RIPK3 had a noncatalytic function that was enhanced by a conformation induced by the D161N mutation. We found that the RIPK3 kinase domain homodimerized through a surface that is structurally similar to that of the RAF family members. Mutation of residues at the dimer interface impaired dimerization and necroptosis. Kinase domain dimerization stimulated the activation of RIPK3 through cis-autophosphorylation. This noncatalytic, allosteric activity was enhanced by certain kinase-deficient mutants of RIPK3, including D161N. Furthermore, apoptosis induced by certain RIPK3 inhibitors was also dependent on the kinase dimerization interface. Our studies reveal that the RIPK3 kinase domain exhibits catalytically independent function that is important for both RIPK3-dependent necroptosis and apoptosis.", "OBJECTIVE: To observe the effects of prolonged exposure to high concentrations of PM2.5 on the trachea and lungs of mice and to determine whether the damages to the trachea and lung are induced by necroptosis.METHODS: Six- to eight-week-old female Balb/C mice of PM group were restrained in an animal restraining device using a nose-only \"PM2.5 online enrichment system\" for 8 weeks, in Shijiazhuang, Hebei, China. Anti -Fas group was exposed to PM2.5 inhalation and anti-Fas treatment via intranasal instillation. The mice in the control group inhaled filtered clean air. PM2.5 sample was collected and analyzed. Airway Hyperresponsiveness (AHR) was tested. Lung tissue and bronchoalveolar lavage fluid (BALF) were analyzed for Hematoxylin and eosin (HE) staining, electron microscopy, cellular inflammation, cytokines, Tunel, Fas, RIPK3 and MLKL expression.RESULTS: Compared to the other two groups, PM group displayed significantly increased AHR, neutrophils in BALF, significant bronchitis and alveolar epithelial hyperplasia and inflammation and necroptosis which were indicated by increased TUNEL, Fas, RIPK3 and MLKL measure.CONCLUSION: Our findings suggest that PM2.5 can enhance AHR and these changes are induced by necroptosis-related inflammation." ]
Given a question, retrieve relevant Pubmed passages that answer the question
qa_pairs
who played lucas mccain son on the rifleman
[ "Chuck Connors Kevin Joseph Aloysius \"\"Chuck\"\" Connors (April 10, 1921 – November 10, 1992) was an American actor, writer and professional basketball and baseball player. He is one of only 12 athletes in the history of American professional sports to have played both Major League Baseball and in the National Basketball Association. With a 40-year film and television career, he is best known for his five-year role as Lucas McCain in the highly rated ABC series \"\"The Rifleman\"\" (1958–63). Connors was born on April 10, 1921 in Brooklyn, New York, the elder child of two children born to Marcella (née", "Lucas McCain Lucas McCain is a fictional character in the Western television series, \"\"The Rifleman\"\", which ran on ABC from 1958 to 1963. A rancher and widowed father with a penchant for using his Winchester firearm as a last resort, the part was portrayed by former athlete-turned-actor Chuck Connors. In the story, Lucas earns enough money from a turkey shoot contest to purchase a ranch near the fictitious town of North Fork in the New Mexico Territory, where, presumably in the 1880s, he dedicates himself to rearing his son, Mark McCain, played by singer/actor and former Mousketeer Johnny Crawford. The" ]
[ "In 2004, he was cast in the starring role of Max in the 2005 film \"\"The Adventures of Sharkboy and Lavagirl\"\". He played young Warren Worthington III in \"\"\"\", and he was cast in the lead role in the 2007 film \"\"Have Dreams, Will Travel\"\" (originally titled \"\"A West Texas Children’s Story\"\"). He appeared on episodes of such television series as \"\"Crossing Jordan\"\", \"\"Cold Case\"\", \"\"Close to Home\"\" and \"\"Scrubs\"\". In 2008, he appeared alongside Julia Roberts and Willem Dafoe in \"\"Fireflies in the Garden\"\". In 2015 Boyd also had a role on the television series \"\"Awkward\"\" playing Jenna's Marine", "I've been a Democrat, but the last several presidential elections have finally convinced me that I might as well go ahead and admit I'm a Republican.\"\" His first presidential vote was for Democrat Hubert Humphrey in 1968. At the 1992 Republican National Convention, McRaney introduced Second Lady Marilyn Quayle. In 2008, McRaney supported Republican candidate John McCain for president. McRaney has appeared in TV commercials on behalf of the National Rifle Association dating back to 1987. Gerald McRaney Gerald Lee McRaney (born August 19, 1947) is an American television and movie actor. McRaney is best known as one of the" ]
Given a question, retrieve Wikipedia passages that answer the question
nq
A group of tourists are standing on a bridge.
[ "The people are not from that area." ]
[ "The bridge is underwater." ]
Given a premise, retrieve hypotheses that are entailed by the premise
nli
why is ethnicity important to ptsd research
[ "OBJECTIVE: Racial and ethnic disparities in posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD) and its treatment have been documented for both civilians and military veterans. To better understand the presence of disparities and factors that might contribute to them, accurate assessment of race and ethnicity is critical; however there still remains unstandardized assessment and challenges to implementation. The authors highlight specific problems in the assessment of race and ethnicity in research, such as missing data, misclassification, classification categories too limited to reflect many peoples' social identities, and inappropriate aggregation of ethnoracial subgroups.CONCLUSIONS: A proposal is made for a minimal uniform assessment standard of race and ethnicity. Additional recommendations incorporate principles proposed by the Institute of Medicine that allow for more granular assessment of race and ethnicity to better capture individual identity and cultural factors as they relate to the assessment, experience and management of PTSD. (PsycINFO Database Record" ]
[ "The objectives of this study were to: (1) Determine the feasibility of a community-based intervention for Latinas with PTSD who experienced IPV; (2) Explore the intervention effectiveness in reducing PTSD and improving quality of life, social support and self-efficacy. This was a feasibility study, using intervention pre-test/post-test qualitative and quantitative data. The experience of living through and surviving IPV was far more important than ethnicity in cultural identity. Significant reductions in PTSD and MDD and increased self-efficacy were sustained 6-months post-intervention. Culturally relevant mental health IPV interventions can be feasible and appropriate across ethnic groups.", "Latinos comprised 17.1% of the U.S. population and 33.1% of US prisoners, yet they are underrepresented in the psychopathology literature. Despite higher rates of trauma among incarcerated individuals than in the general population, most of the previous research in this area focused primarily on women samples, and very few studies examined sex differences in PTSD and traumatic experiences. In addition, there is a need for research assessing traumatic experiences and probable PTSD in men and women Latino inmates to inform culturally competent care and sex sensitive care for this vulnerable and underserved population. Our study examined whether men and women Latino inmates with probable Posttraumatic Stress Disorder (PTSD), based on the cut off 40 or more symptoms on the Davidson Trauma Scale (DTS), differed significantly by the number of event types experienced, the type of potentially traumatizing event, and in co-occurring psychiatric conditions. A multi-stage sample design was used to select a probabilistic sample of 1,331 inmates from 26 penal institutions in PR of which 1179 participated in the study. Bivariate associations were calculated for each type of traumatic event and probable PTSD. Mean number of types of potentially traumatizing event experienced was comparable for both sexes (F = 3.83, M = 3.74) yet sex differences were found in the nature of the event. Women with probable PTSD had higher rates of experiencing rape and sexual abuse. Men had higher rates of experiencing combat in war, a life-threatening accident, of witnessing violence, and being threatened with a weapon. Men with significant ADHD symptoms in childhood and with Generalized Anxiety Disorder (GAD) during adulthood were almost 5 and 7 times as likely to score above threshold on the DTS whereas women were >3 times as likely in the presence of ADHD symptoms in childhood or depression during adulthood. This study underscores the need to improve understanding of the clinical manifestations of trauma and co-occurring psychiatric conditions for appropriate sex sensitive interventions targeting Latinos living in prisons." ]
Given a question, retrieve Pubmed passages that answer the question
synthetic
Figure 4: DOD's Concurrent Approach to Weapon System Development
[ "Figure 4 contains DOD's approach to weapon system development." ]
[ "The DOD has no approach to weapon systems." ]
Given a premise, retrieve hypotheses that are entailed by the premise
nli
what is a bibionidae
[ "The Bibionidae are a family belonging to the suborder Bibionomorpha with four genera and 17 species known from Colombia. This work expands the distribution of these species to other localities in the country." ]
[ "Barnacles are marine crustaceans with a sessile adult and free-swimming, planktonic larvae. The barnacle Balanus (Amphibalanus) improvisus is particularly relevant as a model for the studies of osmoregulatory mechanisms because of its extreme tolerance to low salinity. It is also widely used as a model of settling biology, in particular in relation to antifouling research. However, natural seasonal spawning yields an unpredictable supply of cyprid larvae for studies. A protocol for the all-year-round culturing of B. improvisus has been developed and a detailed description of all steps in the production line is outlined (i.e., the establishment of adult cultures on panels, the collection and rearing of barnacle larvae, and the administration of feed for adults and larvae). The description also provides guidance on troubleshooting and discusses critical parameters (e.g., the removal of contamination, the production of high-quality feed, the manpower needed, and the importance of high-quality seawater). Each batch from the culturing system maximally yields roughly 12,000 nauplii and can deliver four batches in a week, so up to almost 50,000 larvae per week can be produced. The method used to culture B. improvisus is, probably, to a large extent also applicable to other marine invertebrates with free-swimminglarvae. Protocols are presented for the dissection of various tissues from adults as well as the production of high-quality RNA for studies on gene expression. It is also described how cultured adults and reared cyprids can be utilized in a wide array of experimental designs for examining gene expression in relation to external factors. The use of cultured barnacles in gene expression is illustrated with studies of possible osmoregulatory roles of Na+/K+ ATPase and aquaporins.", "Stenus is the largest genus of rove beetles and the second largest among animals. Its evolutionary success was associated with the adhesive labial prey-capture apparatus, a unique apomorphy of that genus. Definite Stenus with prey-capture apparatus are known from the Cenozoic fossils, while the age and early evolution of Steninae was hardly ever hypothesized. Our study of several Cretaceous Burmese amber inclusions revealed a stem lineage of Steninae that possibly possesses the Stenus-like prey-capture apparatus. Phylogenetic analysis of extinct and extant taxa of Steninae and putatively allied subfamilies of Staphylinidae with parsimony and Bayesian approaches resolved the Burmese amber lineage as a member of Steninae. It justified the description of a new extinct stenine genus Festenus with two new species, F. robustus and F. gracilis. The Late Cretaceous age of Festenus suggests an early origin of prey-capture apparatus in Steninae that, perhaps, drove the evolution towards the crown Stenus. Our analysis confirmed the well-established sister relationships between Steninae and Euaesthetinae and resolved Scydmaeninae as their next closest relative, the latter having no stable position in recent phylogenetic studies of rove beetles. Close affiliation of Megalopsidiinae, a subfamily often considered as a sister group to Euaesthetinae + Steninae clade, is rejected." ]
Given a question, retrieve Pubmed passages that answer the question
synthetic
does olfactory fossa depth measure bmi
[ "BACKGROUND/AIMS: Spontaneous cerebrospinal fluid (SCSF) leaks are associated with a high body mass index (BMI) and an expanded skull base. The purpose of this study is to determine if a correlation exists between BMI and olfactory fossa depth (OFD) in patients with SCSF leaks and those without.METHODS: This is a cross-sectional study evaluating the correlation between OFD and BMI in patients with and without SCSF leaks. OFD was measured on computed tomography obtained in temporal proximity to the BMI.RESULTS: Patients with SCSF leaks had a deeper mean OFD than controls (6.39 vs. 5.46 mm, p = 0.013) and a larger BMI (38.2 vs. 30.5, p = 0.0003). Pearson correlation was positive between BMI and OFD in women from the control group (R = 0.319, n = 93, p = 0.002 on the left; R = 0.313, n = 93, p = 0.002 on the right) but insignificant in men.CONCLUSIONS: The olfactory fossa is deeper and the BMI higher in patients with SCSF leaks than in those without. Differences were statistically significant. Higher BMI may predict deeper olfactory fossa in women but not in men. These findings suggest expansion of weak points in the skull base as precursors to the development of SCSF leaks in response to elevated CSF pressures, particularly in women." ]
[ "The worldwide epidemic of obesity has inspired a great deal of research into its causes and consequences. It is therefore surprising that so few studies have examined such a fundamental part of eating behavior: our sense of smell. The aim of the present study was to examine the differences in olfaction in obese and nonobese individuals. Participants (n = 40) categorized as obese (body mass index ? 30) or nonobese (body mass index < 30) completed a standardized olfactory threshold test to an ecologically valid food-related odor (chocolate), followed by a taste test. We found that compared with those not obese, obese individuals rated the chocolate odor as more pleasant and were substantially more sensitive to the odor. There was also evidence that their sense of taste was more acute for sour and salty tastants. Correlational analyses further revealed that those measures of olfaction and taste were positively associated with body mass index. These findings suggest that obese individuals show increased sensitivity and preference for an odor associated with energy dense foods. They also suggest that differences in our sense of smell offer a promising area for future research in obesity.", "This study uses novel biometric figure rating scales (FRS) spanning body mass index (BMI) 13.8 to 32.2kg/m2 and BMI 18 to 42kg/m2 . The aims of the study were (i) to compare FRS body weight dissatisfaction and perceptual distortion of women with anorexia nervosa (AN) to a community sample; (ii) how FRS parameters are associated with questionnaire body dissatisfaction, eating disorder symptoms and appearance comparison habits; and (iii) whether the weight spectrum of the FRS matters. Women with AN (n = 24) and a community sample of women (n = 104) selected their current and ideal body on the FRS and completed additional questionnaires. Women with AN accurately picked the body that aligned best with their actual weight in both FRS. Controls underestimated their BMI in the FRS 14-32 and were accurate in the FRS 18-42. In both FRS, women with AN desired a body close to their actual BMI and controls desired a thinner body. Our observations suggest that body image disturbance in AN is unlikely to be characterized by a visual perceptual disturbance, but rather by an idealization of underweight in conjunction with high body dissatisfaction. The weight spectrum of FRS can influence the accuracy of BMI estimation. Copyright 2017 John Wiley & Sons, Ltd and Eating Disorders Association." ]
Given a question, retrieve Pubmed passages that answer the question
synthetic
what is hud eiv form
[ "The EIV System. HUD developed the EIV (Enterprise Income Verification) system as a tool to meet the objective of assuring that the right benefits go to the right persons.. The EIV system is a federal database that provides quick, easy access to resident income information.", "The EIV system is a web-based computer system, which. contains employment and income information of. individuals (including you) who participate in HUD rental. assistance programs. All Public Housing Agencies (PHAs) are required to use HUD’s EIV system. What information is in EIV and where." ]
[ "Form 990-EZ Short Form Return of Organization Exempt from Income Tax Instructions for Form 990-EZ, Short Form Return of Organization Exempt From Income Tax Under Section 501(c), 527, or 4947(a)(1) of the Internal Revenue Code", "This day and a half course outlines the basic requirements of the HUD Project-Based. Section 8 Program, with particular emphasis on combining the Section 8 program. with the federal Low-Income Housing Tax Credit. The training provides an overview." ]
Given a web search query, retrieve relevant passages that answer the query
msmarco
ADHD treatment in children with stutter
[ "PURPOSE: This study described the proportion of children who stutter who exhibit Attention Deficit Hyperactivity Disorder (ADHD) symptoms, manifesting in inattentive and hyperactive/impulsive behaviours. Children who stutter with these challenging behaviours may not respond as quickly and successfully to stuttering treatment. A preliminary exploration of differences in treatment responsiveness for children with and without ADHD symptoms was undertaken.METHOD: Participants were 185 preschool children who stutter who had completed stuttering therapy within 3 months prior to study commencement. Differences between groups of children who stutter with and without elevated ADHD symptoms were investigated, in terms of pre-treatment stuttering features (stuttering severity and typography), demographic variables (age at onset, time between onset and commencement of therapy, family history and sex) and treatment data (post-treatment stuttering severity and number of sessions to achieve discharge criteria).RESULTS: One-half (50%) of participants exhibited elevated ADHD symptoms. These children required 25% more clinical intervention time to achieve successful fluency outcomes than children without elevated ADHD symptoms. Findings suggest that more ADHD symptoms, increased pre-treatment stuttering severity, and male sex were associated with poorer responsiveness to stuttering treatment.CONCLUSION: The large proportion of children exhibiting elevated ADHD symptoms, and the increase in clinical contact time required in this subgroup to achieve successful fluency outcomes, is suggestive of the need for clinicians to tailor stuttering intervention to address these concomitant behaviour challenges. Findings support the use of careful caseload management strategies to account for individual differences between children, and strengthen prognostic information available to parents and clinicians." ]
[ "OBJECTIVES: Although many attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) care models have been studied, few have demonstrated individual-level symptom improvement. We sought to test whether complementing basic collaborative care with interventions that address common reasons for symptom persistence improves outcomes for children with inattention and hyperactivity/impulsivity.METHODS: We conducted a randomized comparative effectiveness trial of 2 care management systems for 6- to 12-year-old children being evaluated for ADHD (n = 156). All participants received care management with decision support. Care managers in the enhanced care arm also were trained in motivational and parent management techniques to help parents engage in their child's treatment, address their own mental health needs, and manage challenging child behaviors. We used multivariable models to assess inattention, hyperactivity/impulsivity, oppositionality, and social skills over 1 year.RESULTS: Both treatment arms generated guideline concordant diagnostic processes in 94% of cases; 40% of children had presentations consistent with ADHD. For the entire sample, there were no differences in symptom trajectories between study arms; mean differences in change scores at 12 months were -0.14 (95% confidence interval -0.34 to 0.07) for inattention; -0.13 (-0.31 to 0.05) for hyperactivity/impulsivity; -0.09 (-0.28 to 0.11) for oppositionality; and 3.30 (-1.23 to 7.82) for social skills. Among children with ADHD-consistent presentations, enhanced arm participants experienced superior change scores for hyperactivity/impulsivity of -0.36 (-0.69 to -0.03), oppositionality -0.40 (-0.75 to -0.05), and social skills 9.57 (1.85 to 17.28).CONCLUSIONS: Among children with ADHD-consistent presentations, addressing barriers to engagement with care and challenging child behaviors has potential to improve the effectiveness of collaborative care.", "BACKGROUND: Pharmacotherapy is an effective therapeutic option for attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD). Understanding the patterns of medication treatment is crucial for clinical practice. This study employed nationwide population-based data to elucidate the initiation and persistence of pharmacotherapy (immediate-release methylphenidate [IR-MPH], osmotic controlled-release formulations of methylphenidate [OROS-MPH] and atomoxetine [ATX]) for youths with ADHD in Taiwan.METHODS: Patients first receiving an ADHD diagnosis at age 18 or younger between January 2000 and December 2009 (n = 112,140; mean age at ADHD diagnosis: 7.7 years) were selected from Taiwan's National Health Insurance database. All patients were monitored through December 31, 2011, with an average follow-up time of 5.8 years. The initiation of ADHD drug therapy was defined as the first patient prescription, and discontinuation was defined as the cessation of ADHD medication for 180 days or longer.RESULTS: Within the first year after ADHD diagnosis, 47.3%, 14.4%, and 0.8% of the patients were prescribed IR-MPH, OROS-MPH, and ATX, respectively. Regarding the patients prescribed IR-MPH, OROS-MPH, and ATX, 17.8%, 12.6%, and 18.8%, respectively, received the prescription only once and never returned for a drug refill, and 51.0%, 38.9%, and 58.8%, respectively, discontinued drug therapy within 1 year after the first prescription. Male sex and neuropsychiatric comorbidities were associated with higher probabilities of being prescribed one of the medications. An older age at first prescription and a higher daily dose of prescription were significant predictors of early discontinuation of ADHD medication.CONCLUSIONS: The current findings suggest that IR-MPH is the most frequently prescribed drug for ADHD treatment in Taiwan. Patients treated with OROS-MPH possessed the highest persistence rate, whereas those treated with ATX had the lowest persistence rate. The results provide insight into the delivery of pediatric mental health services and have crucial implications for ADHD medication treatment in real clinical settings." ]
Given a question, retrieve Pubmed passages that answer the question
synthetic
what is a javelina
[ "The javelina, a hoofed, pig-like mammal, has wandered north from part of its traditional range in southern Arizona into Grand Canyon National Park. — madeline ostrander, Smithsonian, The National Parks Face a Looming Existential Crisis, 14 Sep. 2017" ]
[ "1 Javelina are not pigs. 2 They look similar, but pigs are from the Old World and peccary are New World animals. 3 There are many other differences most having to do with differences in physical anatomy.4 Adult females can give birth at anytime of the year.ne major adaptation for survival is the fact that javelina live in large family groups. The average group size is 10 or less, but a few herds have known to number up to 53 animals. Each group defends a territory which includes their sleeping and feeding areas.", "Never get between a dog and Javelina, as in the ensuing melee you may get bit! Remember, when Javelina charge to the aid of a herd member being attacked or to drive off a predator (in this case the dog), they come armed with razor sharp canine teeth that are longer then that of any carnivore in North America. There are several credible reports of Javelina facing off and chasing off mountain lions. - AP Jones Hello." ]
Given a web search query, retrieve relevant passages that answer the query
msmarco
what are yokan
[ "Yokan \"Browse > Home > Encyclopedia > Dishes > Desserts > Wagashi Yokan Yokan is a Japanese sweet made from agar, sugar, arrowroot powder, water, and adzuki bean paste. It ends up something like Turkish Delight. Sometimes additional flavourings such as fruit or chestnuts are added. Westerners tend to prefer these, finding that for them the plain ones have no taste. You can buy it in Japan ready-made, sold in pieces packaged in plastic bags. It's not always just sold solid, though: it sometimes can be bought in a liquidy form in a snack-sized can that comes with its own spoon for eating straight out of the can. A Chinese version, called Pea Jelly, is made with split peas. Cha Yokan (aka Matcha Yokan)Yokan flavoured with matcha powdered green tea. Kuri Yokan Yokan with pieces of steamed chestnuts (marrons) in it. Yoru no Ume Yokan made from paste from Dainagon Beans (a premium variety of Adzuki beans. )Imo Yokan Made from sweet potatoes instead of bean paste. Cooking Tips To make at home, you soak the agar-agar in water for half an hour, tear it into small pieces, then simmer until it has dissolved, then strain. You then add sugar and bean paste to the water, simmer for about 5 minutes, remove from heat, let cool and pour into a tray or mould. You then set it aside to let it firm up. It is cut into squares to serve. Storage Hints Store indefinitely in refrigerator. History Notes Yokan started to evolve as a dessert between 1600 and the mid 1800s (the Edo period), as sugar slowly became available to more cooks. See also: Adzuki Beans; Candy; Pea Jelly; Turkish Delight Wagashi Anko; Daifuku; Monaka; Namagashi; Wagashi; Yokan; Yukimi Daifuku Print Page Please share this information with your friends. They may love it. Also called: Muzu Yokan; Youkan (Italian)Citation Oulton, Randal. \"\"Yokan.\"\" Cooks Info.com. Published 09 November 2004; revised 23 August 2007. Web. Accessed 04/06/2018. < http://www.cooksinfo.com/yokan >. © Copyright 2018. All rights reserved and enforced. You are welcome to cite Cooks Info.com as a reference, but no direct copying and republishing is allowed. \"" ]
[ "Antidepressants 90 terms cjhayes23Antidepressants Antidepressant - 1. Preventing or relieving depression. 2. An agent used for relief of symptoms of depression. Learn Flashcards Write Spell Test Match Gravity Advertisement Upgrade to remove ads Sort Antidepressants are divided into 4 groups. What are they: 1. TCAs (tricyclics) 2. SSRIs (selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors) 3. Atypical antidepressants (heterocyclic) 4. MAOIs (monoamine oxidase inhibitors)What is the action of TCAs: To block the uptake of the neurotransmitters norepinephrine and serotonin in the brain. What is the action of SSRIs: To block the reuptake of serotonin into the nerve terminal of the CNS, thereby enhancing its transmission at the serotonergic synapse. What is the action of Atypical antidepressants: They affect one or two of the three neurotransmitters: serotonin, norepinephrine, and dopamine. What is the action of MAOIs: The enzyme monoamine oxidase inactivates norepinephrine, dopamine, epinephrine, and serotonin. Name some of the TCA drugs: amitriptyline (Elavil) desipramine HCl (Norpramin, Pertofrane) doxepin HCl (Sinequan, Zonalon) imipramine HCl (Tofranil) nortriptyline HCl (Aventyl) protriptyline HCl (Vivactil) trimipramine maleate (Surmontil)Name some of the SSRI drugs: citalopram (Celexa) fluoxetine HCl (Prozac) paroxetine HCl (Paxil) sertraline HCl (Zoloft) fluvoxamine (Luvox) escitalopram (Lexapro) duloxetine (Cymbalta)Name some of the Atypical antidepressants: amoxapine (Asendin) maprotiline HCl (Ludiomil) trazodone HCl (Desyrel) bupropion HCl (Wellbutrin) mirtazapine (Remeron) venlafaxine (Effexor)Name some of the MAOI drugs: isocarboxazid (Marplan) phenelzine sulfate (Nardil) tranylcypromine sulfate (Parnate) selegiline HCl (Emsam, Eldepryl, Zelapar) lithium citrate (Eskalith, Lithibid) carbamazepine (Equetro, Carbatrol, Tegretol)amitriptyline (Elavil, Endep, Enovil) What are the - (1) Classification (2) Indications (3) Actions - of this drug CLASSIFICATION - Antidepressant INDICATIONS - PO: Depression. Unlabeled Use: Anxiety, insomnia, treatment-resistant depression. Chronic pain syndromes (fibromyalgia, neuropathic pain/chronic pain, headache, low back pain). ACTIONS - PO: Potentiates the effect of serotonin and norepinephrine in the CNS. Has significant anticholinergic properties. PROTEIN BINDING: 95% bound to plasma proteinsamitriptyline (Elavil, Endep, Enovil) What are the - (1) Contraindications (2) Adverse Reactions (3) Normal Dose - of this drug CONTRAINDICATIONS - Angle-closure Glaucoma; Known history of QTc prolongation, recent MI, heart failure. ADVERSE REACTIONS - SUICIDAL THOUGHTS, ARRHYTHMIAS, Lethargy, Sedation, Hypotension, Blurred vision, Dry eyes, Dry mouth, Constipation, increased appetite, weight gain, urinary retention, decreased libido, photosensitivity, changes in blood glucose NORMAL DOSE - PO: (Adults) 75 mg/day in divided doses; may be increased up to 150 mg/day or 50-100 mg at bedtime. PO: (Geriatric Patients and Adolescents) 10 mg tid and 20 mg at bedtime or 25 mg at bedtime initially, slowly increased to 100 mg/day as a single bedtime dose or divided doses.amitriptyline (Elavil, Endep, Enovil) What are the - Nursing Implications - of this drug ~Dose increases should be made at bedtime because of sedation. Dose titration is a slow process, may take weeks to months. May give entire dose at bedtime. May require tapering to avoid withdrawal effects ~Administer med with or immediately after a meal to minimize gastric upset. Tablet may be crushed and given with food or fluids. ~Obtain weight and BMI initially and periodically ~Assess fasting glucose and cholesterol levels in overweight/obese individuals ~Monitor blood pressure and pulse before and during initial therapy. Notify MD of decreases in B/P (10 - 20 mm Hg) or sudden increase in Pulse rate ~Assess for suicidal tendencies, especially during early therapy. Restrict amount of drug available to patient ~Assess intensity, quality, and location of pain ~Assess leukocyte and differential blood counts, liver function, serum glucose, serum bilirubin, and alkaline phosphatase ~Orthostatic hypotension, sedation, and confusion are common during early therapy, especially in geriatric patients. Protect patient from falls. Advise patient to change positions slowly. ~May cause drowsiness or blurred vision. Caution patient to avoid driving and other activities requiring alertness until response to drug is known.desipramine (Norpramin, Pertofrane) What are the - (1) Classification (2) Indications (3) Actions - of this drug CLASSIFICATION - Antidepressant INDICATIONS - PO: Depression. Unlabeled Use: Chronic pain syndromes. Anxiety. Insomnia. ACTIONS - PO: Potentiates the effect of serotonin and norepinephrine in the CNS. Has significant anticholinergic properties. PROTEIN BINDING: 90-92%desipramine (Norpramin, Pertofrane) What are the - (1) Contraindications (2) Adverse Reactions (3) Normal Dose - of this drug CONTRAINDICATIONS - Angle-closure Glaucoma; Known history of QTc prolongation, recent MI, heart failure. ADVERSE REACTIONS - ARRHYTHMIAS, Drowsiness, Fatigue, Hypotension, Blurred vision, Dry eyes, Dry mouth, Constipation, increased appetite, weight gain, urinary retention, decreased libido, photosensitivity, changes in blood glucose NORMAL DOSE - PO: (Adults) 100-200 mg/day as a single dose or in divided doses up to 300 mg/day. PO: (Geriatric Patients) 25-50 mg/day in divided doses up to 150 mg/day. PO: (Children >12yr) 25-50 mg/day in divided doses, increased as needed up to 100 mg/day.desipramine (Norpramin, Pertofrane) What are the - Nursing Implications - of this drug ~Dose increases should be made at bedtime because of sedation. Dose titration is a slow process, may take weeks to months. May give entire dose at bedtime. May require tapering to avoid withdrawal effects ~Administer med with or immediately after a meal to minimize gastric upset. Tablet may be crushed and given with food or fluids. ~Obtain weight and BMI initially and periodically ~Assess fasting glucose and cholesterol levels in overweight/obese individuals ~Monitor blood pressure and pulse before and during initial therapy. Notify MD of decreases in B/P (10 - 20 mm Hg) or sudden increase in Pulse rate ~Assess for suicidal tendencies, especially during early therapy. Restrict amount of drug available to patient ~Assess intensity, quality, and location of pain ~Assess leukocyte and differential blood counts, liver function, serum glucose, serum bilirubin, and alkaline phosphatase ~May cause drowsiness or blurred vision. Caution patient to avoid driving and other activities requiring alertness until response to drug is known. ~Orthostatic hypotension, sedation, and confusion are common during early therapy, especially in geriatric patients. Protect patient from falls. Advise patient to change positions slowly. ~Inform patient that URINE may turn BLUE-GREEN in color.doxepin (Sinequan, Zonalon) What are the - (1) Classification (2) Indications (3) Actions - of this drug CLASSIFICATION - Antidepressant INDICATIONS - PO: Depression. Topical: Short-term control of pruritus associated with: Eczematous dermatitis, Lichen simplex chronicus. Unlabeled Use: PO: Chronic pain syndromes: Pruritis, Dermatitis, Anxiety, Insomnia ACTIONS: PO: Prevents the reuptake of norepinephrine and serotonin by presynaptic neurons; resultant accumulation of neurotransmitters potentiates their activity. Also possesses significant anticholinergic properties. TOPICAL: Antipruritic action due to antihistaminic properties. PROTEIN BINDING: Not listeddoxepin (Sinequan, Zonalon) What are the - (1) Contraindications (2) Adverse Reactions (3) Normal Dose - of this drug CONTRAINDICATIONS - Hypersensitivity; Some products contain bisulfites and should be avoided in patients with known intolerance; Untreated angle-closure glaucoma; Period immediately after myocardial infarction; history of QTc prolongation, heart failure, cardiac arrhythmia. ADVERSE REACTIONS - Fatigue, Sedation, Blurred Vision, Hypotension, Constipation, Dry Mouth, agitation, confusion, arrhythmias, increased appetite, weight gain. NORMAL DOSE - PO (Adults) 25 mg 3 times daily, may be increased as needed up to 150 mg/day in outpatients or 300 mg/day in inpatients. Once stabilized entire daily dose may be given at bedtime. PO: (Geriatric) 25-50 mg/day initially, may be increased as needed. TOPICAL: (Adults) Apply 4 times daily (wait 3-4 hr between applications) for up to 8 days.doxepin (Sinequan, Zonalon) What are the - Nursing Implications - of this drug ~Dose increases should be made at bedtime because of sedation. Dose titration is a slow process, may take weeks to months. May give entire dose at bedtime. May require tapering to avoid withdrawal effects ~Administer med with or immediately after a meal to minimize gastric upset. Capsules may be opened and mixed with food or fluids if patient has difficulty swallowing. ~Oral concentrate must be diluted in at least 120 ml of water, milk, or fruit juice. DO NOT mix with carbonated beverages or grape juice. ~Monitor blood pressure and pulse before and during initial therapy. Notify MD of decreases in B/P (10 - 20 mm Hg) or sudden increase in Pulse rate ~Orthostatic hypotension, sedation, and confusion are common during early therapy, especially in geriatric patients. Protect patient from falls. Advise patient to change positions slowly. ~Inform patient that URINE may turn BLUE-GREEN in color.imipramine (Tofranil) What are the - (1) Classification (2) Indications (3) Actions - of this drug CLASSIFICATION - Antidepressant INDICATIONS - Various forms of depression. Enuresis in children. Unlabeled Use: Adjunct in the management of chronic, incontinence (in adults), vascular headache prophylaxis, cluster headache, insomnia. ACTIONS - Potentiates the effect of serotonin and norepinephrine. Has significant anticholinergic properties. PROTEIN BINDING: 89-92%imipramine (Tofranil) What are the - (1) Contraindications (2) Adverse Reactions (3) Normal Dose - of this drug CONTRAINDICATIONS - Hypersensitivity; Cross-sensitivity with other antidepressants may occur; Angle-closure glaucoma; Hypersensitivity to tartrazine or sulfietes; Recent MI, known history of QTc prolongation, heart failure. ADVERSE REACTIONS - ARRHYTHMIAS, Drowsiness, Fatigue, Blurred Vision, Dry Eyes, Hypotension, Constipation, Dry Mouth, agitation, confusion, hallucinations, insomnia, nausea, weight gain, urinary retention, decreased libido. MAY CAUSE HYPOTENSION, TACHYCARDIA, AND POTENTIALLY FATAL REACTIONS WHEN USED WITH MAO INHIBITORS. CONCURRENT USE WITH SSRIs MAY RESULT IN INCREASED TOXICITY. CONCURRENT USE WITH CLONIDINE MAY RESULT IN HYPERTENSIVE CRISIS. NORMAL DOSE - PO: (Adults) 25-50 mg 3-4 times daily (NTE 300 mg/day); total daily dose may be given at bedtime. PO: (Geriatric) 25 mg at bedtime initially, up to 100 mg/day in divided doses. PO: (Children > 12 yr) 25-50 mg/day in divided doses (NTE 100 mg/day) IM: (Adults) Up to 100 mg/day in divided doses (NTE 300 mg/day)imipramine (Tofranil) What are the - Nursing Implications - of this drug ~Monitor B/P and pulse rate prior to and during initial therapy. ~Monitor plasma levels in treatment-resistant patients. ~Monitor weight and BMI initially and periodically throughout therapy. ~Monitor baseline and periodic ECGs in elderly patients or patients with heart disease and before increasing dose with children treated for enuresis. May cause prolonged PR and QT intervals and may flatten T waves. ~Dose increases should be made at bedtime because of sedation. Dose titration is a slow process, may take weeks to months. May give entire dose at bedtime. ~Inform patient that URINE may turn BLUE-GREEN in color. ~Protect patient from falls. Advise patient to change positions slowly. ~PO: Administer med with or immediately after a meal to minimize gastric upset. ~IM: May be slightly yellow or red in color. Crystals may develop if solution is cool; place ampule under warm running water for 1 min to dissolve.nortriptyline (Aventyl, Pamelor) What are the - (1) Classification (2) Indications (3) Actions - of this drug CLASSIFICATION - Antidepressant INDICATIONS - Various forms of depression. Unlabeled Use: Management of chronic neurogenic pain. ACTIONS - Potentiates the effect of serotonin and norepinephrine. Has significant anticholinergic properties. PROTEIN BINDING: 92%nortriptyline (Aventyl, Pamelor) What are the - (1) Contraindications (2) Adverse Reactions (3) Normal Dose - of this drug CONTRAINDICATIONS - Hypersensitivity; Angle-closure glaucoma; Alcohol intolerance. ADVERSE REACTIONS - ARRHYTHMIAS, Drowsiness, Fatigue, Lethargy, Blurred Vision, Dry Eyes, Hypotension, Constipation, Dry Mouth, agitation, confusion, hallucinations, headache, insomnia, weight gain, unpleasant taste, urinary retention. MAY CAUSE HYPERTENSION, HYPERPYREXIA, SEIZURES, AND DEATH WHEN USED WITH MAO INHIBITORS. (Avoid concurrent use--discontinue 2 wk before starting nortriptyline). NORMAL DOSE - PO: (Adults) 25 mg 3-4 times daily, up to 150 mg/day. PO: (Geriatric or Adolescents) 30-50 mg/day in divided doses or as a single dose.nortriptyline (Aventyl, Pamelor) What are the - Nursing Implications - of this drug ~Doseprotriptyline (Vivactil) What are the - (1) Classification (2) Indications (3) Actions - of this drug CLASSIFICATION - Antidepressantprotriptyline (Vivactil) What are the - (1) Contraindications (2) Adverse Reactions (3) Normal Dose - of this drug CONTRAINDICATIONS -protriptyline (Vivactil) What are the - Nursing Implications - of this drug ~Dosetrimipramine maleate (Surmontil) What are the - (1) Classification (2) Indications (3) Actions - of this drug CLASSIFICATION - Antidepressanttrimipramine maleate (Surmontil) What are the - (1) Contraindications (2) Adverse Reactions (3) Normal Dose - of this drug CONTRAINDICATIONS -trimipramine maleate (Surmontil) What are the - Nursing Implications - of this drug ~Dosecitalopram (Celexa) What are the - (1) Classification (2) Indications (3) Actions - of this drug CLASSIFICATION - Antidepressantcitalopram (Celexa) What are the - (1) Contraindications (2) Adverse Reactions (3) Normal Dose - of this drug CONTRAINDICATIONS -citalopram (Celexa) What are the - Nursing Implications - of this drug ~Dosefluoxetine (Prozac) What are the - (1) Classification (2) Indications (3) Actions - of this drug CLASSIFICATION - Antidepressantfluoxetine (Prozac) What are the - (1) Contraindications (2) Adverse Reactions (3) Normal Dose - of this drug CONTRAINDICATIONS -fluoxetine (Prozac) What are the - Nursing Implications - of this drug ~Doseparoxetine (Paxil) What are the - (1) Classification (2) Indications (3) Actions - of this drug CLASSIFICATION - Antidepressantparoxetine (Paxil) What are the - (1) Contraindications (2) Adverse Reactions (3) Normal Dose - of this drug CONTRAINDICATIONS -paroxetine (Paxil) What are the - Nursing Implications - of this drug ~Dosesertraline (Zoloft) What are the - (1) Classification (2) Indications (3) Actions - of this drug CLASSIFICATION - Antidepressantsertraline (Zoloft) What are the - (1) Contraindications (2) Adverse Reactions (3) Normal Dose - of this drug CONTRAINDICATIONS -sertraline (Zoloft) What are the - Nursing Implications - of this drug ~Dosefluvoxamine (Luvox) What are the - (1) Classification (2) Indications (3) Actions - of this drug CLASSIFICATION - Antidepressantfluvoxamine (Luvox) What are the - (1) Contraindications (2) Adverse Reactions (3) Normal Dose - of this drug CONTRAINDICATIONS -fluvoxamine (Luvox) What are the - Nursing Implications - of this drug ~Doseescitalopram (Lexapro) What are the - (1) Classification (2) Indications (3) Actions - of this drug CLASSIFICATION - Antidepressantescitalopram (Lexapro) What are the - (1) Contraindications (2) Adverse Reactions (3) Normal Dose - of this drug CONTRAINDICATIONS -escitalopram (Lexapro) What are the - Nursing Implications - of this drug ~Doseduloxetine (Cymbalta) What are the - (1) Classification (2) Indications (3) Actions - of this drug CLASSIFICATION - Antidepressantduloxetine (Cymbalta) What are the - (1) Contraindications (2) Adverse Reactions (3) Normal Dose - of this drug CONTRAINDICATIONS -duloxetine (Cymbalta) What are the - Nursing Implications - of this drug ~Doseamoxapine (Asendin) What are the - (1) Classification (2) Indications (3) Actions - of this drug CLASSIFICATION - Antidepressantamoxapine (Asendin) What are the - (1) Contraindications (2) Adverse Reactions (3) Normal Dose - of this drug CONTRAINDICATIONS -amoxapine (Asendin) What are the - Nursing Implications - of this drug ~Dosemaprotiline (Ludiomil) What are the - (1) Classification (2) Indications (3) Actions - of this drug CLASSIFICATION - Antidepressantmaprotiline (Ludiomil) What are the - (1) Contraindications (2) Adverse Reactions (3) Normal Dose - of this drug CONTRAINDICATIONS -maprotiline (Ludiomil) What are the - Nursing Implications - of this drug ~Dosetrazodone (Desyrel) What are the - (1) Classification (2) Indications (3) Actions - of this drug CLASSIFICATION - Antidepressanttrazodone (Desyrel) What are the - (1) Contraindications (2) Adverse Reactions (3) Normal Dose - of this drug CONTRAINDICATIONS -trazodone (Desyrel) What are the - Nursing Implications - of this drug ~Dosebupropion (Wellbutrin) What are the - (1) Classification (2) Indications (3) Actions - of this drug CLASSIFICATION - Antidepressantbupropion (Wellbutrin) What are the - (1) Contraindications (2) Adverse Reactions (3) Normal Dose - of this drug CONTRAINDICATIONS -bupropion (Wellbutrin) What are the - Nursing Implications - of this drug ~Dosemirtazapine (Remeron) What are the - (1) Classification (2) Indications (3) Actions - of this drug CLASSIFICATION - Antidepressantmirtazapine (Remeron) What are the - (1) Contraindications (2) Adverse Reactions (3) Normal Dose - of this drug CONTRAINDICATIONS -mirtazapine (Remeron) What are the - Nursing Implications - of this drug ~Dosevenlafaxine (Effexor) What are the - (1) Classification (2) Indications (3) Actions - of this drug CLASSIFICATION - Antidepressantvenlafaxine (Effexor) What are the - (1) Contraindications (2) Adverse Reactions (3) Normal Dose - of this drug CONTRAINDICATIONS -venlafaxine (Effexor) What are the - Nursing Implications - of this drug ~Doseisocarboxazid (Marplan) What are the - (1) Classification (2) Indications (3) Actions - of this drug CLASSIFICATION - Antidepressantisocarboxazid (Marplan) What are the - (1) Contraindications (2) Adverse Reactions (3) Normal Dose - of this drug CONTRAINDICATIONS -isocarboxazid (Marplan) What are the - Nursing Implications - of this drug ~Dosephenelzine sulfate (Nardil) What are the - (1) Classification (2) Indications (3) Actions - of this drug CLASSIFICATION - Antidepressantphenelzine sulfate (Nardil) What are the - (1) Contraindications (2) Adverse Reactions (3) Normal Dose - of this drug CONTRAINDICATIONS -phenelzine sulfate (Nardil) What are the - Nursing Implications - of this drug ~Dosetranylcypromine sulfate (Parnate) What are the - (1) Classification (2) Indications (3) Actions - of this drug CLASSIFICATION - Antidepressanttranylcypromine sulfate (Parnate) What are the - (1) Contraindications (2) Adverse Reactions (3) Normal Dose - of this drug CONTRAINDICATIONS -tranylcypromine sulfate (Parnate) What are the - Nursing Implications - of this drug ~Doseselegiline (Emsam, Eldepryl, Zelapar) What are the - (1) Classification (2) Indications (3) Actions - of this drug CLASSIFICATION - Antidepressantselegiline (Emsam, Eldepryl, Zelapar) What are the - (1) Contraindications (2) Adverse Reactions (3) Normal Dose - of this drug CONTRAINDICATIONS -selegiline (Emsam, Eldepryl, Zelapar) What are the - Nursing Implications - of this drug ~Doselithium citrate (Eskalith, Lithibid) What are the - (1) Classification (2) Indications (3) Actions - of this drug CLASSIFICATION - Antidepressantlithium citrate (Eskalith, Lithibid) What are the - (1) Contraindications (2) Adverse Reactions (3) Normal Dose - of this drug CONTRAINDICATIONS -lithium citrate (Eskalith, Lithibid) What are the - Nursing Implications - of this drug ~Dosecarbamazepine (Equetro, Carbatrol, Tegretol) What are the - (1) Classification (2) Indications (3) Actions - of this drug CLASSIFICATION - Antidepressantcarbamazepine (Equetro, Carbatrol, Tegretol) What are the - (1) Contraindications (2) Adverse Reactions (3) Normal Dose - of this drug CONTRAINDICATIONS -carbamazepine (Equetro, Carbatrol, Tegretol) What are the - Nursing Implications - of this drug ~Dosenefazodone What are the - (1) Classification (2) Indications (3) Actions - of this drug CLASSIFICATION - Antidepressantnefazodone What are the - (1) Contraindications (2) Adverse Reactions (3) Normal Dose - of this drug CONTRAINDICATIONS -nefazodone What are the - Nursing Implications - of this drug ~Dose" ]
Given a web search query, retrieve relevant documents that answer the query
msmarco_doc
why does china use vulnerability in its elderly policy
[ "Facing a rapidly aging population, China has recently started to formulate and implement policies with the aim to provide old-age care. While well-developed old-age care policies commonly include a built-in component that assesses eligibility based on vulnerability, no such process is established in the context of China. Here, based on data from the China Health and Retirement Longitudinal Study collected in both 2011 and 2013, we (a) developed a simple and effective strategy for identifying vulnerable Chinese elderly, which can serve as a basis for policy targeting, and (b) improved the policy relevance and targeting efficiency of this vulnerability measure by including additional health indicators. Our vulnerability measures identify 35% to 46% of Chinese elderly as vulnerable, covering up to 67% of elderly at high risk of death or functional decline. They can serve as an initial screening step for more comprehensive geriatric assessments and enable policy makers to effectively target vulnerable elderly persons in China." ]
[ "In addition to birth and death, migration is also an important factor that determines the level of population aging in different regions, especially under the current context of low fertility and low mortality in China. Drawing upon data from the fifth and sixth national population census of 287 prefecture-level cities in China, this study explored the spatial patterns of population aging and its trends from 2000 to 2010 in China. We further examined how the large-scale internal migration was related to the spatial differences and the changes of aging by using multivariate quantitative models. Findings showed that the percentage of elder cities (i.e. proportion of individuals aged 65 and above to total population is higher than 7%) increased from 50% to 90% in the total 287 cities within the decade. We also found that regional imbalances of population aging have changed since 2000 in China. The gap of aging level between East zone and the other three zones (i.e. West, Central, and North-east) has considerably narrowed down. In 2000, Eastern region had the greatest number (65) of and the largest proportion (74.7%) of elder cities among all four regions. By 2010, the proportion (87.4%) of elder cities in the eastern region was slightly lower than Central (91.4%), Western (88.2%) and North-east sectors (91.2%). Results from multivariate quantitative models showed that the regional differences of population aging appear to be affected much more by the large-scale internal migration with clear age selectivity and orientation preference than by the impact of fertility and mortality. Population aging is expected to continue in China, which will in turn exacerbate regional imbalances. Policies and implications are discussed to face the challenges that the divergent aging population may present in China.", "BACKGROUND: Elder mistreatment (EM) is a pervasive public health issue and is associated with morbidity and premature mortality. This study aimed to examine how the prevalence of EM and its subtypes vary using different definitions among U.S. Chinese older adults.METHODS: The Population Study of Chinese Elderly in Chicago is a population-based epidemiological survey of 3,159 U.S. Chinese older adults in the Greater Chicago area that is guided by a community-based participatory research approach. Participants answered questions regarding psychological, physical, and sexual abuse, caregiver neglect, and financial exploitation. Definitional approaches for EM and its subtypes were constructed from least restrictive to most restrictive.RESULTS: Using different definitional criteria, the prevalence of psychological abuse was 1.1%-9.8%, physical abuse was 1.1%, sexual abuse was 0.2%, caregiver neglect was 4.6%-11.1%, and financial exploitation was 8.8%-9.3%. Overall, EM varied from 13.9% to 25.8%, depending on the defining criteria. Regardless of the definition used, those who experienced EM were more likely to be older and have higher educational attainment, poor health status, poor quality of life, and worsened health change in the last year. However, among the different definitions of overall EM, there were no statistically significant differences across sociodemographic characteristics or self-reported health status associated with EM criteria.CONCLUSIONS: Elder mistreatment is prevalent among U.S. Chinese older adults regardless of the definitional criteria. Sociodemographic characteristics associated with EM did not differ by definitional criteria. Future longitudinal studies are needed to quantify the risk and protective factors associated with EM in Chinese aging populations." ]
Given a question, retrieve Pubmed passages that answer the question
synthetic
who is garten>
[ "Ina Garten Biography - Affair, Married, Husband, Nationality, Net Worth, Height | Who is Ina Garten? Ina Garten is an American author and host who has been known best for her hosting skills portrayed in the program of the of the Food Network named Barefoot Contessa. She was born on February 2, 1948, in Brooklyn, New york, U.S. Garten had no formal training; she taught herself culinary techniques with the aid of French and New England cookbooks." ]
[ "Erno Valer Vertes is the husband of Jill Vertes, and the father of Kendall Vertes. He also has two other daughters, Ryleigh and Charlotte Vertes. In 'Twas the Fight Before Christmas he was included in one of the interview segments.", "Erno Valer Vertes is the husband of Jill Vertes, and the father of Kendall Vertes. He also has two other daughters, Ryleigh and Charlotte Vertes. On Dance Moms. In 'Twas the Fight Before Christmas he was included in one of the interview segments." ]
Given a web search query, retrieve relevant passages that answer the query
msmarco
what are the main objectives of the stability of a patient with chronic heart failure?
[ "Actuality. The results of the EPOCH study showed that in 16 years in the Russian Federation the number of patients with chronic heart failure (CHF) of I-IV FC increased significantly. The main objectives of the treatment of CHF are the stabilization of the patient's condition and the reduction of the risks of cardiovascular mortality, decompensation and repeated hospitalizations for heart failure. But a single concept of \"stable\" CHF does not exist either in Russian or in foreign recommendations.OBJECTIVE: To assess how ofen the subjective assessment of a doctor regarding the stability of a patient with CHF coincides with the subjective opinion of the patient with CHF regarding the stability of his condition; and to identify those parametrs that have a leading in?uence on the assessment of the stability of the state from the point of view of the physician and the patient.MATERIALS AND METHODS: Data collection was carried out in the form of interviews among general practitioners and cardiologists in outpatient clinics (OC) of Nizhny Novgorod, which were randomly selected by the method of blind envelopes. In parallel, a survey was conducted of patients with CHF who applied for outpatient medical care about this syndrome to this OC, which the doctors were not informed about, because patient interviews were conducted after the end of outpatient admission in a separate room. Answers of doctors about a patient with CHF were compared with the answers of the corresponding patient; for this, a single code was assigned to both questionnaires. The study included 211 patients with CHF of any etiology older than 18 years. The study involved 25 doctors. The study was conducted from 11/01/17 to 11/30/17.RESULTS: Analysis of the data suggests that the doctor is more likely to consider the patient more stable in cases when the patient notes a decrease in the severity of shortness of breath, weakness and does not detect edema, while the fact of therapy with loop diuretics (LD) or an increase in them did not a?ect assessment of stability from the point of view of the doctor. From the point of view of the patient, the absence of the first three signs also testifies to the stability of the condition, however, unlike doctors, patients more often (p &lt;0.001) considered themselves unstable in those cases when they needed LD therapy or an increase in LD dose. A logit regression analysis and ROC analysis based on selected signs and symptoms of CHF confirmed that a model that combines questions about persistent weakness and edema is best suited to predict the patient's subjective assessment of patient's stability from a doctor's point of view (61.8% of the results can be correctly predicted), and at the cuto? threshold of 0.5, it has the highest sensitivity of 64.9%. To predict the subjective assessment of stability in relation to the patient, the optimal model turned out to be the one that includes answers to the questions of \"shortness of breath\", \"weakness\" and \"intake of loop diuretics\", which allows to predict 66.7% of the results correctly at the cut‑o? threshold 0, 5 has a better balance of sensitivity and specificity (54.9 and 78.6, respectively).CONCLUSION: Reducing the severity of dyspnea, weakness and lack of edema of the lower extremities are important signs of the stability of the condition, both in the opinion of the doctor and in the opinion of the patient. Unlike the doctor, the patient is more likely to be classified as unstable in those cases when he is forced to receive therapy with loop diuretics at the outpatient stage or to increase their dose. The model for assessing the stability of a patient with CHF from the point of view of a physician more often allows one to confirm the patient's stable condition, while the model used by patients more often allows to identify patient instability and worsening of the course of CHF." ]
[ "BACKGROUND: There is limited information on drivers of utilities in patients with chronic heart failure (CHF).OBJECTIVES: To analyze determinants of utility in CHF and drivers of change over 1 year in a large sample from clinical practice.METHODS: We included 5334 patients from the Swedish Heart Failure Registry with EuroQol five-dimensional questionnaire information available following inpatient or outpatient care during 2008 to 2010; 3495 had 1-year follow-up data. Utilities based on Swedish and UK value sets were derived. We applied ordinary least squares (OLS) and two-part models for utility at inclusion and OLS regression for change over 1 year, all with robust standard errors. We assessed the predictive accuracy of both models using cross-validation.RESULTS: Patients' mean age was 73 years, 65% were men, 19% had a left ventricular ejection fraction of 50% or more, 23% had 40% to 49%, 27% had 30% to 39%, and 31% had less than 30%. For both models and value sets, utility at inclusion was affected by sex, age, New York Heart Association class, ejection fraction, hemoglobin, blood pressure, lung disease, diabetes, angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors/angiotensin receptor blockers, nitrates, antiplatelets, and diuretics. The OLS model performed slightly better than did the two-part model on a population level and for capturing utility ranges. Change in utility over 1 year was influenced by age, sex, and (measured at inclusion) disease duration, New York Heart Association class, blood pressure, ischemic heart disease, lung disease, angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors/angiotensin receptor blockers, and antiplatelets.CONCLUSIONS: Utilities in CHF and their change over time are influenced by diverse demographic and clinical factors. Our findings can be used to target clinical interventions and for economic evaluations of new therapies.", "IMPORTANCE: Heart failure (HF) has a major effect on patients' health status, including their symptom burden, functional status, and health-related quality of life.OBJECTIVE: To determine the effectiveness of a collaborative care patient-centered disease management (PCDM) intervention to improve the health status of patients with HF.DESIGN, SETTING, AND PARTICIPANTS: The Patient-Centered Disease Management (PCDM) trial was a multisite randomized clinical trial comparing a collaborative care PCDM intervention with usual care in patients with HF. A population-based sample of 392 patients with an HF diagnosis from 4 Veterans Affairs centers who had a Kansas City Cardiomyopathy Questionnaire (KCCQ) overall summary score of less than 60 (heavy symptom burden and impaired functional status and quality of life) were enrolled between May 2009 and June 2011.INTERVENTIONS: The PCDM intervention included collaborative care by a multidisciplinary care team consisting of a nurse coordinator, cardiologist, psychiatrist, and primary care physician; home telemonitoring and patient self-management support; and screening and treatment for comorbid depression.MAIN OUTCOMES AND MEASURES: The primary outcome was change in the KCCQ overall summary score at 1 year (a 5-point change is clinically significant). Mortality, hospitalization, and depressive symptoms (Patient Health Questionnaire 9) were secondary outcomes.RESULTS: There were no significant differences in baseline characteristics between patients randomized to the PCDM intervention (n=187) vs usual care (n=197); baseline mean KCCQ overall summary scores were 37.9 vs 36.9 (P=.48). There was significant improvement in the KCCQ overall summary scores in both groups after 1 year (mean change, 13.5 points in each group), with no significant difference between groups (P=.97). The intervention was not associated with greater improvement in the KCCQ overall summary scores when the effect over time was estimated using 3-month, 6-month, and 12-month data (P=.74). Among secondary outcomes, there were significantly fewer deaths at 1 year in the intervention arm (8 of 187 [4.3%]) than in the usual care arm (19 of 197 [9.6%]) (P = .04). Among those who screened positive for depression, there was a greater improvement in the Patient Health Questionnaire 9 scores after 1 year in the intervention arm than in the usual care arm (2.1 points lower, P=.01). There was no significant difference in 1-year hospitalization rates between the intervention arm and the usual care arm (29.4% vs 29.9%, P=.87).CONCLUSIONS AND RELEVANCE: This multisite randomized trial of a multifaceted HF PCDM intervention did not demonstrate improved patient health status compared with usual care.TRIAL REGISTRATION: clinicaltrials.gov Identifier: NCT00461513." ]
Given a question, retrieve Pubmed passages that answer the question
synthetic
Is central neck dissection a safe procedure in the treatment of papillary thyroid cancer?
[ "The role of central neck dissection in the treatment of papillary thyroid carcinoma is debated. This retrospective investigation was undertaken to assess whether it augments total thyroidectomy morbidity.PATIENTS/ A total of 305 consecutive patients who had undergone total thyroidectomy for papillary thyroid carcinoma were divided into three groups: group A (n = 64) showed evidence of node metastases and received therapeutic bilateral central node dissection; group B (n = 93) showed negative nodes and received prophylactic ipsilateral central node dissection; group C (n = 148) showed negative nodes and received total thyroidectomy alone. The rates of transient and permanent complications within the three groups were compared. Histopathological examination detected node metastases in 46 (72%) group A patients and in 20 (21%) group B patients. Parathyroid autotransplantation was carried out in 41 (64%) patients in group A, 55 (59%) in group B, and 43 (29%) in group C (P<0.001). One or more parathyroid glands were found in 20% of the specimens from group A, 11% of those from group B, and 9% of those from group C. None of the patients in either group A or group B reported permanent laryngeal recurrent nerve paralysis, but two (1.3%) in group C did. Transient laryngeal recurrent nerve paralysis occurred most often in group A patients (7.8% versus 5.4% versus 1.3%, respectively) and was bilateral in two patients (one in group A and one in group B). None of the patients in either group A or group B developed permanent hypoparathyroidism, but four (2.7%) in group C did. Transient hypoparathyroidism was highest in group A patients (31% versus 27% versus 13%, respectively; P = 0.003). Postoperative bleeding requiring reoperation occurred in one group B patient and in two group C patients" ]
[ "Ipsilateral central compartment node dissection has been proposed to reduce the morbidity of prophylactic bilateral central compartment node dissection in papillary thyroid carcinoma (PTC), but it carries the risk of contralateral metastases being overlooked in approximately 25 % of patients. We aimed to verify if frozen section examination (FSE) can identify patients who could benefit from bilateral central compartment node dissection. All the consenting patients with clinically unifocal PTC, without any preoperative evidence of lymph node involvement, observed between September 2010 and September 2011 underwent total thyroidectomy plus bilateral central compartment node dissection. Ipsilateral central compartment nodes were sent for FSE. Forty-eight patients were included. Mean number of removed nodes was 13.2 ± 6.8. Final histology showed lymph node metastases in 21 patients: ipsilateral in 15, bilateral in 6. FSE accurately predicted lymph node status in 43 patients (27 node negative, 16 node positive). Five node metastases were not detected at FSE: three were micrometastases (≤ 2 mm). Sensitivity, specificity and overall accuracy of FSE in definition of N status status were 80.7, 100, and 90 %, respectively", "OBJECTIVE: To investigate the experience and efficacy of endoscopic thyroidectomy for papillary thyroid microcarcinoma (PTMC) through total areola approach.
 Methods: A total of 117 PTMC patients, who were diagnosed pathologically in Minimally Invasive Surgical Center, Second Xiangya Hospital, Central South University from June 2016 to December 2017, were divided into a endoscopic surgery group (n=72) and an open surgery group (n=45). The number of dissected central lymph nodes, blood loss, amount of drainage, occurrence of postoperative complication and recurrence were collected and compared.
 Results: Compared with the open surgery group, the blood loss was less and the operative time was longer in the endoscopic surgery group (P<0.05). There were no significant differences between the 2 groups in the number of dissected central lymph nodes, amount of drainage and occurrence of postoperative complication (all P>0.05). The mean follow-up time was more than 20 months, and there was no recurrence in the 2 groups. 
 Conclusion: Endoscopic thyroidectomy with central compartment neck dissection through total areola approach is safe and feasible in patients with PTMC. It has many advantages, such as no scar on neck, less blood loss, shorter hospital stay and more acceptable to young patients." ]
Given a question, retrieve relevant Pubmed passages that answer the question
qa_pairs
do veterans have insomnia
[ "STUDY OBJECTIVES: To examine the prevalence of self-reported insomnia symptoms, identify subgroups of female veterans with clinically significant insomnia symptoms, and examine the effect on psychosocial functioning and health care utilization.METHODS: Cross-sectional analysis of insomnia symptoms and associated characteristics among a stratified random sample of female veterans using Department of Veterans Affairs primary care facilities between October 1, 2010 and September 30, 2011 (n = 6,261) throughout the United States. The primary outcome was reported presence of insomnia symptoms. Other variables included psychological disorders, chronic conditions, chronic pain, and demographic variables.RESULTS: Overall, 47.39% of female veterans screened positively for insomnia symptoms. They differed demographically from those without insomnia symptoms and reported more substance use, chronic physical conditions, and psychological conditions. Receiver operating characteristic analysis indicated the primary factor that differentiated those with versus those without insomnia symptoms was depression. Individuals were further differentiated based on presence of pain and posttraumatic stress disorder. Results yielded eight homogenous subgroups of women at low and high risk of experiencing insomnia symptoms.CONCLUSIONS: Sleep problems are common among female veterans (47.39%) despite limited diagnosis of sleep disorders (0.90%). Eight unique subgroups of female veterans with both low and high insomnia symptoms were observed. These subgroups differed in terms of psychosocial functioning and health care utilization, with those with depression, posttraumatic stress disorder, and pain having the poorest outcomes. These results shed light on the prevalence of insomnia symptoms experienced among female veterans and the effect on psychosocial functioning and health care utilization. Results can inform targeted detection and customized treatment among female veterans." ]
[ "PURPOSE: Female veterans are at high risk for sleep problems, and there is a need to provide effective treatment for this population who experience insomnia. This study's primary goal was to compare the acceptability of medication versus nonmedication treatments for insomnia among female veterans. In addition, we examined the role of patient age, severity of sleep disturbance, and psychiatric symptoms on acceptability of each treatment approach and on the differences in acceptability between these approaches.METHODS: A large nationwide postal survey was sent to a random sample of 4000 female veterans who had received health care at a Veterans Administration (VA) facility in the previous 6 months (May 29, 2012-November 28, 2012). A total of 1559 completed surveys were returned. Survey items used for the current analyses included: demographic characteristics, sleep quality, psychiatric symptoms, military service experience, and acceptability of medication and nonmedication treatments for insomnia. For analysis, only ratings of \"very acceptable\" were used to indicate an interest in the treatment approach (vs ratings of \"not at all acceptable,\" \"a little acceptable,\" \"somewhat acceptable,\" and \"no opinion/don?t know\").FINDINGS: In the final sample of 1538 women with complete data, 57.7% rated nonmedication treatment as very acceptable while only 33.5% rated medication treatment as very acceptable. This difference was statistically significant for the group as a whole and when examining subgroups of patients based on age, sleep quality, psychiatric symptoms, and military experience. The percentage of respondents rating medication treatment as very acceptable was higher for women who were younger, had more severe sleep disturbances, had more psychiatric symptoms, who were not combat exposed, and who had experienced military sexual trauma. By contrast, the percentage of respondents rating nonmedication treatment as very acceptable differed only by age (younger women were more likely to find nonmedication treatment acceptable) and difficulty falling asleep.IMPLICATIONS: Female veterans are more likely to find nonmedication insomnia treatment acceptable compared with medication treatment. Thus, it is important to match these patients with effective behavioral interventions such as cognitive behavioral therapy for insomnia. Efforts to educate providers about these preferences and about the efficacy of cognitive behavioral therapy for insomnia may serve to connect female veterans who have insomnia to the treatment they prefer. These findings also suggest that older female veterans may be less likely to find either approach as acceptable as their younger counterparts.", "OBJECTIVE: To determine the point prevalence of sleep disordered breathing (SDB) in a community-based sample of older male veterans and to determine if common markers of SDB apply to this population.METHODS: Two hundred fourteen older male Veterans (age 55-89 years) were recruited for a study on post-traumatic stress disorder and cognitive decline. Questionnaires concerning anthropomorphic and psychological variables were obtained, as was an overnight polysomnographic examination of sleep.RESULTS: Only 13% of the participants lacked clinically meaningful SDB, whereas 33% had moderate SDB and 54% had severe SDB. Being overweight, self-reported snoring, and excessive daytime sleepiness all had good sensitivity (0.86-0.92) but very poor specificity (0.10-0.28) for the prediction of SDB.CONCLUSIONS: Undiagnosed SDB was more than threefold higher than expected in these community-dwelling older veterans. Traditional markers of SDB were not specific for predicting clinically relevant SDB." ]
Given a question, retrieve Pubmed passages that answer the question
synthetic
sae2 gene definition in cancer
[ "BACKGROUND: SUMO-activating enzyme subunit 2 (SAE2) is the sole E1-activating enzyme required for numerous important protein SUMOylation, abnormal of which is associated with carcinogenesis. SAE2 inactivation was recently reported to be a therapeutic strategy in cancers with Myc overexpression. However, the roles of SAE2 in small cell lung cancer (SCLC) are largely unknown.METHODS: Stably SAE2 knockdown in H446 cells were established with a lentiviral system. Cell viability, cell cycle, and apoptosis were analyzed using MTT assay and flow cytometric assay. Expression of SAE2 mRNA and protein were detected by qPCR, western blotting, and immunohistochemical staining. Cell invasion and migration assay were determined by transwell chamber assay. H446 cells with or without SAE2 knockdown, nude mice models were established to observe tumorigenesis.RESULTS: SAE2 was highly expressed in SCLC and significantly correlated with tumorigenesis in vivo. Cancer cells with RNAi-mediated reduction of SAE2 expression exhibited growth retardation and apoptosis increasing. Furthermore, down-regulation of SAE2 expression inhibited migration and invasion, simultaneously increased the sensitivity of H446 to etoposide and cisplatin.CONCLUSIONS: SAE2 plays an important role in tumor growth, metastasis, and chemotherapy sensitivity of H446 and is a potential clinical biomarker and therapeutic target in SCLC with high c-Myc expression." ]
[ "The aminoacyl tRNA synthetase complex-interacting multifunctional protein 2 (AIMP2) splice variant designated DX2 is induced by cigarette smoke carcinogens and is often detected in human lung cancer specimens. However, the function of DX2 in lung carcinogenesis is obscure. In this study, we found that DX2 expression was induced by oncogenes in human lung cancer tissues and cells. DX2 prevented oncogene-induced apoptosis and senescence and promoted drug resistance by directly binding to and inhibiting p14/ARF. Through chemical screening, we identified SLCB050, a novel compound that blocks the interaction between DX2 and p14/ARF in vitro and in vivo SLCB050 reduced the viability of human lung cancer cells, especially small cell lung cancer cells, in a p14/ARF-dependent manner. Moreover, in a mouse model of K-Ras-driven lung tumorigenesis, ectopic expression of DX2 induced small cell and non-small cell lung cancers, both of which could be suppressed by SLCB050 treatment. Taken together, our findings show how DX2 promotes lung cancer progression and how its activity may be thwarted as a strategy to treat patients with lung cancers exhibiting elevated DX2 levels. Cancer Res; 76(16); 4791-804. 2016 AACR.", "Tumor necrosis factor (TNF)--induced protein 8-like 2 (TNFAIP8L2, TIPE2) is a novel anti-inflammatory factor involved in maintaining immune homeostasis. Accumulating evidence has also shown that TIPE2 displays tumor-suppressive effects in several tumor types. Previous studies revealed that TIPE2 inhibits hepatocellular carcinoma metastasis by repressing Ral and Rac1 GTPases. However, its antimetastatic activity and underlying mechanism in other human cancers is largely unknown. We investigated TIPE2 in AGS, HGC-27 and SGC-7901 human gastric cancer cells compared with GES-1 normal human gastric mucous epithelial cells. We demonstrated that TIPE2 was expressed in GES-1 gastric mucous epithelial cells but lost in all three types of gastric cancer cells. We then performed a gain-of-function study by adenovirus-mediated TIPE2 overexpression (AdVTIPE2) and investigated the effects of TIPE2 on migration and invasion of AGS human gastric cancer cells. Wound healing and Transwell invasion assays showed that forced expression of TIPE2 markedly suppressed the gastric cancer cell migration and invasion in vitro. Mechanistically, TIPE2 remarkably reduced the total levels of pAKT, pGSK3 and -catenin as well as the nuclear level of -catenin in gastric cancer cells. The TIPE2-elicited antimetastatic effect in gastric cancer was closely associated with the inhibition of AKT signaling and enhancement of GSK3 activity followed by the degradation and decreased translocation to nucleus of -catenin. These results provide the first compelling evidence that TIPE2 suppresses gastric cancer metastasis via downregulating -catenin signaling through inhibiting AKT and activating GSK3, indicating that TIPE2 is a promising therapeutic target for human gastric cancer metastasis." ]
Given a question, retrieve Pubmed passages that answer the question
synthetic
Does down-Regulation of miR-92 in Breast Epithelial Cells and in Normal but Not Tumour Fibroblasts contribute to Breast Carcinogenesis?
[ "MicroRNA (miR) expression is commonly dysregulated in many cancers, including breast. MiR-92 is one of six miRs encoded by the miR-17-92 cluster, one of the best-characterised oncogenic miR clusters. We examined expression of miR-92 in the breast epithelium and stroma during breast cancer progression. We also investigated the role of miR-92 in fibroblasts in vitro and showed that down-regulation in normal fibroblasts enhances the invasion of breast cancer epithelial cells. We used laser microdissection (LMD) to isolate epithelial cells from matched normal, DCIS and invasive tissue from 9 breast cancer patients and analysed miR-92 expression by qRT-PCR. Expression of ERβ1, a direct miR-92 target, was concurrently analysed for each case by immunohistochemistry. LMD was also used to isolate matched normal (NFs) and cancer-associated fibroblasts (CAFs) from 14 further cases. Effects of miR-92 inhibition in fibroblasts on epithelial cell invasion in vitro was examined using a Matrigel™ assay. miR-92 levels decreased in microdissected epithelial cells during breast cancer progression with highest levels in normal breast epithelium, decreasing in DCIS (p<0.01) and being lowest in invasive breast tissue (p<0.01). This was accompanied by a shift in cell localisation of ERβ1 from nuclear expression in normal breast epithelium to increased cytoplasmic expression during progression to DCIS (p = 0.0078) and invasive breast cancer (p = 0.031). ERβ1 immunoreactivity was also seen in stromal fibroblasts in tissues. Where miR-92 expression was low in microdissected NFs this increased in matched CAFs; a trend also seen in cultured primary fibroblasts. Down-regulation of miR-92 levels in NFs but not CAFs enhanced invasion of both MCF-7 and MDA-MB-231 breast cancer epithelial cells" ]
[ "MicroRNAs are modifiers of gene expression, acting to reduce translation through either translational repression or mRNA cleavage. Recently, it has been shown that some microRNAs can act to promote or suppress cell transformation, with miR-17-92 described as the first oncogenic microRNA. The association of miR-17-92 encoded microRNAs with a surprisingly broad range of cancers not only underlines the clinical significance of this locus, but also suggests that miR-17-92 may regulate fundamental biological processes, and for these reasons miR-17-92 has been considered as a therapeutic target. In this study, we show that miR-17-92 is a cell cycle regulated locus, and ectopic expression of a single microRNA (miR-17-5p) is sufficient to drive a proliferative signal in HEK293T cells. For the first time, we reveal the mechanism behind this response - miR-17-5p acts specifically at the G1/S-phase cell cycle boundary, by targeting more than 20 genes involved in the transition between these phases. While both pro- and anti-proliferative genes are targeted by miR-17-5p, pro-proliferative mRNAs are specifically up-regulated by secondary and/or tertiary effects in HEK293T cells", "Dysregulation of microRNAs (miRNAs) has been linked to the progress of a number of autoimmune diseases including multiple sclerosis (MS), and its animal model, experimental autoimmune encephalomyelitis (EAE). IFN-ã-producing Th1 cells are major players in MS/EAE pathogenesis. It is known that differentiation of T cells towards the Th1 phenotype is influenced by various factors including miRNAs. The miR-92a shows substantial upregulation in MS; however, little is known about its role in the development of autoimmune and inflammatory responses. Herein, we investigated the role of miR-92a in the pathogenesis of MS, focusing on its potential effects on differentiation of Th1 cells. The expression levels of miR-92a were assessed in the spinal cord tissues and splenocytes from mice with EAE using real-time RT-PCR. Next, using transfection with miR-92a mimic sequences, the potential involvement of miR-92a in Th1 polarization was investigated by flow cytometric analysis. Moreover, the expression levels of miR-92a targets were explored in spinal cord tissues of EAE mice. miR-92a expression was enhanced in mouse spinal cord samples at the peak of EAE disease. Overexpression of miR-92a in splenocytes led to increased differentiation of Th1 cells compared with cells transfected with negative control sequences. Enhanced miR-92a expression was accompanied by reduced expression TSC1 or DUSP10, predicted miR-92a targets, in EAE spinal cords. Our data point to a potential role for miR-92a in neuroinflammatory responses in EAE. Our results indicate that miR-92a might affect Th1 differentiation, likely due to downregulation of TSC1 and DUSP10." ]
Given a question, retrieve relevant Pubmed passages that answer the question
qa_pairs
hev antibody level standard
[ "Although hepatitis E virus (HEV) infection is a zoonosis, there is, currently, no standardized assay for quantitatively measuring anti-HEV antibody levels in HEV animal reservoirs. In this study, anti-HEV antibody positive serum from a rabbit (RS26) was calibrated by dose-response parallel line assay using the World Health Organization (WHO) reference standard for anti-HEV antibodies. After evaluating the stability of the RS26 serum, a quantification assay of anti-HEV antibodies using RS26 as a standard was developed and evaluated for both reproducibility and suitability to field studies. The anti-HEV antibody level of RS26 was calculated to be 39.54 IU/ml. A series of standard working serum for anti-HEV antibodies consisted of five serum dilutions (3.950 IU/ml, 1.975 IU/ml, 0.986 IU/ml, 0.494 IU/ml, and 0.247 IU/ml). The quantitative assay using RS26 showed good range and reproducibility, effectively measuring the dynamics of anti-HEV antibody concentrations in pigs and rabbits. In conclusion, we have developed a a stable and reproducible serum standard for the quantitation of anti-HEV antibodies. J. Med. Virol. 89:497-501, 2017. 2016 Wiley Periodicals, Inc." ]
[ "AIM: Blood transfusion is one route of transmission of hepatitis E virus (HEV). The aim of this study was to assess both the prevalence of HEV antibodies and HEV infection in New Zealand blood donors.METHOD: To determine HEV seroprevalence, donor plasma samples (n=1,013) were tested for HEV antibodies using two commercially available ELISA kits, the Wantai HEV IgG ELISA and the MP Diagnostics HEV ELISA 4.0. To assess the prevalence of HEV infection, pooled plasma samples from individual plasma donors (n=5,000) were tested for HEV RNA using RT-qPCR. Samples that tested HEV antibody positive or gave an equivocal result with either ELISA were also tested for HEV RNA.RESULTS: The HEV seroprevalence in New Zealand blood donors was 9.7% using the Wantai HEV IgG ELISA and 8.1% using the MP Diagnostics HEV ELISA 4.0. The presence of HEV antibodies was significantly and positively correlated with increasing donor age. HEV RNA was not detected in any of the samples tested, indicating no evidence of current infection.CONCLUSION: This study, the largest to date to assess HEV seroprevalence in New Zealand, provides valuable baseline information on HEV seroprevalence and infection in New Zealand blood donors. The seroprevalence rate in New Zealand is similar to that reported in other developed countries.", "A truncated mutant of the Open Reading Frame 2 (ORF2, aa384-606) was amplified from cDNA of genotype IV hepatitis E virus (HEV) by polymerase chain reaction (PCR), subcloned to expression plasmid pTO-T7, and expressed in Escherichia coli. SDS-PAGE and Western blotting were used to detect and identify the recombinant protein, namely rP24. After washing of inclusion bodies, dissolving in denaturing agents, refoldeding by dialysis, ion exchange chromatography and gel chromatography, dynamic light scatter was used to study the hydrated radius of rP24. Western blotting was applied to detect the immunoreactivity of rP24, and mouse immunity test and indirect enzyme linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA) were applied to evaluate the immunogenicity and the detection rate of HEV positive and negative serum. SDS-PAGE and Western blotting show that rP24 was highly expressed in the form of inclusion bodies after induction, and had strong immunoreactivity to monoclonal antibody (McAb) 15B2. After a multi-step purification of rP24, Western blotting indicated that the purified rP24 also had strong immunoreactivity to neutralizing McAb 8C11 and HEV positive serum, suggesting that rP24 simulated the nature structure of HEV capsid protein. Dynamic light scatter demonstrated that the average hydration radius of purified rP24 was 7.48 nm. The mouse immunity test showed that the purified rP24 also had good immunogenicity, and the period of serum antibodies converted from negative to positive was very short, but the antibodies maintained more than 20 weeks. Indirect ELISA tests showed that the detection rate of was the same as anti-HEV-IgG diagnostic kit (Wan Tai corporation). Taken together, the rP24 simulated the neutralizing epitopes of natural HEV, and had strong immunoreactivity and immunogenicity. It provided a basis for the further investigation of the difference of infection mechanism between genotype I and genotype IV HEV." ]
Given a question, retrieve Pubmed passages that answer the question
synthetic
salary employees maximum hours
[ "In the case of salaried employees, the maximum hours to be divided by, for most cases, is 40 hours. I will work a couple samples here to illustrate: The Simple Case: Let us say that an employee makes $70,000 a year and works 50 hours a week." ]
[ "What are the maximum hours I can be expected to work over an average working day? Workers covered by the Working Time Regulations must not be required to work more than 13 hours per day. Also individuals must not be required, against their wishes, to work an average of more than 48 hours a week.Workers may agree in writing to work more than the 48 hours per week on average, and can withdraw their agreement at any time. Here is some guidance explaining how to 'opt back in' to the 48-hour week.The hours that an individual works in a week are averaged out over what is termed a ' reference period'.orkers may agree in writing to work more than the 48 hours per week on average, and can withdraw their agreement at any time. Here is some guidance explaining how to 'opt back in' to the 48-hour week. The hours that an individual works in a week are averaged out over what is termed a ' reference period'.", "0 attorneys agreed. Re: Maximum Work Hours Allowed. Generally, the only restriction on hours worked under federal law is that you have to be paid 1-1/2 your regular rate for every hour in excess of 40 during a single workweek.This only applies if you work in a nonexempt position.enerally, the only restriction on hours worked under federal law is that you have to be paid 1-1/2 your regular rate for every hour in excess of 40 during a single workweek." ]
Given a web search query, retrieve relevant passages that answer the query
msmarco
is standard icd rpm transmitted
[ "BACKGROUND: Among patients with implantable defibrillators (ICD), use of remote patient monitoring (RPM) is associated with lower risk of death and rehospitalization. Standard ICD RPM can be supplemented with weight and blood pressure data. It is not known whether standard RPM plus routine weight and blood pressure transmission (RPM+) is associated with better outcomes.METHODS AND RESULTS: RPM+ patients (n=4106) were compared with patients who only transmitted standard ICD RPM data (n=14 183). Logistic regression models identified patient, physician, and hospital characteristics associated with RPM+ utilization. Mortality and rehospitalization were examined using landmark analyses at 180 days after ICD implant in Medicare fee-for-service patients. In these analyses, we examined the independent association between RPM+ utilization and times to events up to 3 years after device implantation with Cox regression models. We further examined whether the association between RPM+ and outcomes varied by frequency or type of transmissions. Determinants of RPM+ utilization included impaired ejection fraction, cardiac resynchronization therapy, and institutional practice. The risk of mortality of RPM+ patients was similar to standard ICD RPM patients (hazard ratio, 1.06; 95% confidence interval, 0.94-1.19; P=0.34). RPM+ patients also had similar risks of all-cause hospitalization (subdistribution hazard ratio, 1.03; 95% confidence interval, 0.94-1.14; P=0.52), cardiovascular hospitalization (subdistribution hazard ratio, 0.92; 95% confidence interval, 0.83-1.02; P=0.15), or heart failure hospitalizations (subdistribution hazard ratio, 0.90; 95% confidence interval, 0.78-1.05; P=0.18). RPM+ transmission frequency was not associated with outcomes.CONCLUSIONS: In patients using standard ICD RPM, the added transmission of weight and blood pressure data was not associated with improved outcomes." ]
[ "Aims: Totally subcutaneous implantable cardioverter defibrillator (S-ICD) delivers higher shock energy and can have longer time to therapy compared to transvenous implantable cardioverter defibrillator (T-ICD). Aim of the study was to compare time to therapy and to investigate cardiac, cerebral and systemic injuries of S-ICD and T-ICD shocks delivered after ventricular fibrillation (VF) induction.Methods and results: Fourteen pigs were randomly implanted with a S-ICD (n = 7) or a T-ICD (n = 7). Five VF episodes were induced in each pig. For each VF episode, up to two shocks could be delivered by the T-ICD or the S-ICD to terminate the arrhythmia. Cardiac, systemic, and cerebral toxicity were monitored. Mean time to therapy was longer in the S-ICD group compared to the T-ICD group (19[18; 23] s vs. 9 [7; 10] s; P = 0.001, respectively). High-sensitivity troponin T levels were significantly higher in the T-ICD group from 1 to 24 h after the procedure (P ? 0.02). Creatine phosphokinase activity levels were significantly higher in the S-ICD group, at 3, 6, and 24 h after the procedure (P ? 0.05). Lactate levels were not significantly different between groups. S100 protein level was similar in both groups at 1 h after the procedure and then decreased in the T-ICD group compared to the S-ICD group (P = 0.04).Conclusions: Time to therapy in S-ICD was twice as long as for T-ICD, but didn't induce relevant brain injury. Conversely, S-ICD shocks were less cardiotoxic than T-ICD shocks.", "We report on a case of a 78-years-old patient with a subcutaneous implantable cardioverter defibrillator (S-ICD) and an episode of a sustained ventricular tachycardia (VT) at a rate slower than the programmed shock zone. Because of T-wave oversensing the device interpreted it as fast VT that triggered the delivery of an \"inappropriately appropriate shock\" that terminated it. The patient had again more VT episodes but after programming the SMART pass algorithm (previously programmed \"OFF\") the device showed no longer frequent T-wave oversensing and no additional inappropriate shocks occurred." ]
Given a question, retrieve Pubmed passages that answer the question
synthetic
short definition of confidence
[ "Confidence is generally described as a state of being certain either that a hypothesis or prediction is correct or that a chosen course of action is the best or most effective." ]
[ "Self-confidence does not necessarily imply self-belief or a belief in one's ability to succeed. For instance, one may be inept at a particular sport or activity, but remain confident in one's demeanor, simply because one does not place a great deal of emphasis on the outcome of the activity.", "What does confidence mean? Definitions for confidence ˈkɒn fɪ dəns Here are all the possible meanings and translations of the word confidence. Princeton's WordNet (0.00 / 0 votes) Rate this definition:" ]
Given a web search query, retrieve relevant passages that answer the query
msmarco
which seabirds are contaminated with mercury
[ "We studied mercury contamination in 25 seabird species breeding along a latitudinal gradient across the Southern Ocean, from Gough Island (40S) through Marion Island (47S) to Byers Peninsula (63S). Total mercury concentrations in body feather samples of adults caught at breeding colonies from 2008 to 2011 were determined. Krill (Euphausia spp.) and other zooplankton consumers had low mercury concentrations (gentoo penguin Pygoscelis papua, chinstrap penguin Pseudomonas Antarctica, common diving petrel Pelecanoides urinatrix, broad-billed prion Pachyptila vittata; mean levels 308-753ngg(-1)), whereas seabirds consuming squid or carrion had high mercury concentrations (ascending order: Kerguelen petrel Aphrodroma brevirostris, southern giant petrel Macronectes giganteus, soft-plumaged petrel Pterodroma mollis, sooty albatross Phoebetria fusca, Atlantic petrel Pterodroma incerta, northern giant petrel Macronectes halli, great-winged petrel Pterodroma macroptera; 10,720-28038ngg(-1)). The two species with the highest mercury concentrations, northern giant petrels and great-winged petrels, bred at Marion Island. Among species investigated at multiple sites, southern giant petrels had higher mercury levels at Marion than at Gough Island and Byers Peninsula. Mercury levels among Byers Peninsula seabirds were low, in two species even lower than levels measured 10 years before at Bird Island, South Georgia. Replicate measurements after about 25yearsat Gough Island showed much higher mercury levels in feathers of sooty albatrosses (by 187%), soft-plumaged petrels (53%) and Atlantic petrels (49%). Concentrations similar to the past were detected in southern giant petrels at Gough and Marion islands, and in northern giant petrels at Marion. There were no clear indications that timing of moult or migratory behavior affected mercury contamination patterns among species. Causes of inter-site or temporal differences in mercury contamination could not be verified due to a lack of long-term data related to species' diet and trophic levels, which should be collected in future together with data on mercury contamination." ]
[ "Of the various forms of Hg occurring in nature, (mono) methylmercury (MeHg) is an especially toxic form and practically all forms of Hg can be converted into MeHg as a result of natural processes. Total mercury (THg) and MeHg were determined in tissues of two piscivorous birds: razorbill Alca torda and black-throated loon Gavia arctica to provide baseline data on current mercury concentrations for liver, kidneys and pectoral muscle mercury concentrations of birds which winter on the south Baltic Sea coast. Intra and inter-specific comparisons were carried out. The study is conducted between winter and autumn and the distributions of mercury in tissues were compared with data in other studies. The following paper contains discussion of the results based on the statistical analysis and ecology aspect. The highest average Hg content was in the liver (loon ? 3.86 mg kg-1 dw; razorbill ? 1.57 mg kg-1 dw), then in the kidneys (loon ? 3.14 mg kg-1 dw; razorbill ? 1.53 mg kg-1 dw) and the lowest concentrations were in pectoral muscles (loon ? 1.97 mg kg-1 dw; razorbill ? 0.67 mg kg-1 dw).", "We conducted a detailed assessment of the maternal transfer of mercury and selenium to eggs in three bird species (n=107 parents and n=339 eggs), and developed predictive equations linking contaminant concentrations in eggs to those in six tissues of the mother (blood, muscle, liver, kidney, breast feathers, and head feathers). Mercury concentrations in eggs were positively correlated with mercury concentrations in each of the mother's internal tissues (R(2)?0.95), but generally not with feathers. For each species, the proportion of mercury transferred to eggs decreased as mercury concentrations in the mother increased. At the same maternal mercury concentration, the proportion of mercury transferred to eggs differed among species, such that Forster's tern (Sterna forsteri) and black-necked stilt (Himantopus mexicanus) females transferred more methylmercury to their eggs than American avocet (Recurvirostra americana) females. Selenium concentrations in eggs also were correlated with selenium concentrations in the mother's liver (R(2)=0.87). Furthermore, mercury and selenium concentrations in tern eggs were positively correlated with those in the father (R(2)=0.84). Incubating male terns had 21% higher mercury concentrations in blood compared to incubating females at the same egg mercury concentration. We provide equations to predict contaminant concentrations in eggs from each of the commonly sampled bird tissues." ]
Given a question, retrieve Pubmed passages that answer the question
synthetic
what is autophagy in prrsv
[ "Abstract Autophagy is an evolutionarily conserved lysosome-dependent degradation pathway that acts in the maintenance of cellular homeostasis and plays important functions in viral replication and pathogenesis. In this study, we investigated the role of autophagy in the replication of porcine reproductive and respiratory syndrome virus (PRRSV), an agent that has caused devastating losses in the international swine industry since the late 1980s. Using protein quantification and microscopy, we observed that PRRSV infection results in LC3-I/II conversion, an increased accumulation of punctate GFP-LC3-expressing cells, and a higher number of autophagosome-like double-membrane vesicles in the cytoplasm of host cells. Inhibition of autophagy using 3-methyladenine (3-MA) or small interfering RNAs targeting ATG7 and Beclin-1 led to a significant reduction in PRRSV titers and protein expression. Conversely, induction of autophagy by rapamycin resulted in increased viral replication. These results demonstrate that PRRSV infection induces autophagy which, in turn, enhances viral replication efficiency." ]
[ "Porcine reproductive and respiratory syndrome (PRRS) virus is an RNA virus that replicates in the cytoplasm, but the viral nucleocapsid (N) protein localizes specifically in the nucleus and nucleolus of virus-infected cells. Nuclear localization of N is non-essential for PRRSV replication in cultured cells but has been shown to modulate the pathogenesis of virus in pigs, suggesting that N plays an accessory role in the nucleus during infection. We identified by yeast two-hybrid screening the inhibitor of MyoD family-a (I-mfa) domain-containing protein (HIC) as a cellular partner for PRRS virus (PRRSV) N protein. This protein is a homolog of human HIC, a recently identified cellular transcription factor. The specific interaction of PRRSV N with HIC was confirmed in cells by mammalian two-hybrid assay and co-immunoprecipitation and in vitro by GST pull-down assay. HIC is a zinc-binding protein and confocal microscopy demonstrated co-localization of N with the HIC-p40 isomer in the nucleus and nucleolus, and in the cytoplasm with HIC-p32, which is the N-terminal truncation of HIC-p40. The porcine homolog of HIC is universally expressed in pig tissues including alveolar macrophages. The interaction of viral capsid with the cellular transcription factor implicates a possible regulation of host cell gene expression by the N protein during PRRSV infection.", "Abstract Autophagy is an evolutionarily conserved process central to host metabolism. Among its major functions are conservation of energy during starvation, recycling organelles, and turnover of long-lived proteins. Besides, autophagy plays a critical role in removing intracellular pathogens and very likely represents a primordial intrinsic cellular defence mechanism. More recent findings indicate that it has not only retained its ability to degrade intracellular pathogens, but also functions to augment and fine tune antiviral immune responses. Interestingly, viruses have also co-evolved strategies to manipulate this pathway and use it to their advantage. Particularly intriguing is infection-dependent activation of autophagy with positive stranded (+)RNA virus infections, which benefit from the pathway without succumbing to lysosomal degradation. In this review we summarise recent data on viral manipulation of autophagy, with a particular emphasis on +RNA viruses and highlight key unanswered questions in the field that we believe merit further attention." ]
Given a query on COVID-19, retrieve documents that answer the query
synthetic
Why does touching something really hot sometimes feel cold for a second?
[ " Or vice versa, touching something really cold feels really hot. \n\nI believe it has to do with how your pain receptors work. First you touch something with a temperature difference which causes pain, and the pain you sense is just that. Pain. The neurons associated with pain will fire first. \n\nYou have to be above a certain threshold for this to hold true do, but as soon as you touch something that has a temperature that causes you pain, you will feel the pain and not the temperature first." ]
[ " For the same reason why when you stick your hand in really really cold water, the first instant feels like fire hot. It's a sudden shock to your nerves and impulses to your brain saying \"HOLY COW WHAT THE HECK DONT TOUCH THIS.\" The nerves in your hand didn't have enough time to register heat in that fraction of second you first made contact, just really really stimulus.", " The answer is actually that you're feeling different volumes of air. \n\nWhen you exhale with your mouth wide open and your hand near your face, you feel your hot breath. \n\nWhen you hold your lips together, you increase the air speed exiting your mouth, and this is actually pushing ambient air over your hand, and you feel cold because the pushed ambient air is removing heat from your hand due to forced convection. \n\nIf you bring your hand close to your face, and blow air with your lips close, you can feel the hot air that's actually coming from your mouth." ]
Given a question, retrieve the highest voted answers on Reddit forum
eli5
multisegment clot sign for stroke
[ "BACKGROUND AND PURPOSE: The multisegment clot sign has been observed at the site of large-artery occlusion in patients with acute ischemic stroke. This study aimed to assess its occurrence rate and relationship with stroke etiologies in patients with acute intracranial large-artery occlusion.MATERIALS AND METHODS: We included consecutive patients with acute ischemic stroke who had acute intracranial large-artery occlusion and underwent perfusion CT within 8 hours after stroke onset. The multisegment clot sign was assessed on dynamic CT angiography derived from perfusion CT. The stroke etiologies were defined by the international Trial of Org 10172 in Acute Stroke Treatment criteria. Poisson regression analyses and diagnostic testing were used to investigate the relationship between the multisegment clot sign and stroke etiologies.RESULTS: Finally, 194 patients with intracranial large-artery occlusion were enrolled. According to the Trial of Org 10172 in Acute Stroke Treatment criteria, 110 (56.7%) patients were diagnosed with cardioembolism; 43 (22.2%), with large-artery atherosclerosis; and 41 (21.1%), with undetermined etiology. The multisegment clot sign was found in 74 (38%) patients. Poisson regression analysis showed that the presence of the multisegment clot sign was significantly higher in patients with cardioembolism than in those with large-artery atherosclerosis (52.7% versus 9.3%; prevalence ratio, 1.53; 95% confidence interval, 1.03-2.90; P = .037). For determined etiologies, the sensitivity, specificity, and positive and negative predictive values of the multisegment clot sign for predicting cardioembolism were 52.7%, 90.7%, 93.5%, and 42.9%, respectively.CONCLUSIONS: The presence of the multisegment clot sign on dynamic CTA specifically indicates intracranial large-artery occlusion caused by an embolism from a cardiac source, which may be useful for acute management and secondary prevention of stroke." ]
[ "A 76-year-old female was referred to our department because of diplopia for two months and intermittent claudication for five months. She showed medial longitudinal fasciculus (MLF) syndrome. Brain MRI (T2WI) showed multiple infarctions in the right pontine tegmentum and left paramedian midbrain. A biopsy of superficial temporal artery showed the characteristic findings of glanulomatous inflammation indicative of giant cell arteritis. We thought the mechanism of this cerebral infarction as artery to artery embolization or intracranial arteritis. Treatment with oral prednisolone (1 mg/kg/day) improved her limb claudication and normalized serum C-reactive protein level.", "BACKGROUND AND PURPOSE: Predicting the risk of further infarct growth in stroke patients is critical to therapeutic decision making. We aimed to predict early infarct growth and clinical outcome from prominent vessel sign (PVS) identified on the first susceptibility-weighted image (SWI) after acute stroke.MATERIALS AND METHODS: Twenty-two patients with middle cerebral artery (MCA) infarction had diffusion-weighted imaging, SWI, MR angiography, and clinical evaluation using the National Institutes of Health Stroke Scale at 7-60 hours and 5-14 days after stroke onset. Late-stage clinical evaluation at 1 and 3 months used the modified Rankin Scale. The infarct area and growth were scored from 10 (none) to 0 (infarct or growth in all 10 zones) using the Alberta Stroke Program Early CT Score (ASPECTS) system.RESULTS: Infarct growth on the second MRI occurred in 13 of 15 patients with PVS on the first MRI and not in any patient without PVS (n=7; r=0.86, P<0.001). The extent of PVS was significantly correlated with infarct growth (r=0.82, P<0.001) and early-stage outcome (P=0.02). No between-group difference in late-stage clinical outcome was found.CONCLUSION: PVS on the first SWI after acute MCA territory stroke is a useful predictor of early infarct growth. Extensive PVS within the large MCA territory is related to poor early-stage outcome and could be useful for clinical assessment of stroke." ]
Given a question, retrieve Pubmed passages that answer the question
synthetic
define the concept of operation
[ "Concept of Operations (CONOP) Concept of operations (CONOP) is a document describing what a system does in easily understood language allowing those without a technical background to know what it is and how it functions." ]
[ "Making the world better, one answer at a time. An operation executive is an employee who oversees all aspects of a company. They will handle the hiring and firing of managers and typically report directly to the CEO of a company.peration executives handle the hiring of other managers--such as those in sales, advertising and marketing--and typ … ically report only to an executive board.", "Operation managers play a central role in stabilizing an organization's policies and procedures across major business areas including finance, planning and technology. In small businesses, the role of the operation manager is often assumed by the business's owner or its general manager. The job involves overseeing the company's strategic approach to its on-site operations." ]
Given a web search query, retrieve relevant passages that answer the query
msmarco
who wrote it do n 't mean a thing
[ "inducted into the Grammy Hall of Fame in 2008. It Don't Mean a Thing (If It Ain't Got That Swing) \"\"It Don't Mean a Thing (If It Ain't Got That Swing)\"\" is a 1931 composition by Duke Ellington, whose lyrics were written by Irving Mills. It is now accepted as a jazz standard, and jazz historian Gunther Schuller characterized it as \"\"now legendary\"\" and \"\"a prophetic piece and a prophetic title.\"\" The music was composed and arranged by Ellington in August 1931 during intermissions at Chicago's Lincoln Tavern and was first recorded by Ellington and his orchestra for Brunswick Records" ]
[ "comparisons are more than welcome, because—as Keys understands so well—everyone needs love, no matter how independent they may be.\"\" Nick Levine of Digital Spy gave the song a favorable review, saying that \"\"the production is classic and gimmick-free, the chorus has the same timeless feel that turned 'No One' and 'If I Ain't Got You' into modern standards, and the whole thing oozes class the way a ripe brie oozes cheesey goodness\"\" and then adding \"\"the words 'classic' and 'timeless' apply to the lyrics too.\"\" The music video for \"\"Doesn't Mean Anything\"\" was filmed on September 27–28, 2009. It was", "joining his church the president exploded to his press secretary, \"\"You go and tell that goddam minister that if he gives out one more story about my religious faith I will not join his goddam church!\"\" And I don't care what it is \"\"And I don't care what it is\"\" is a phrase attributed to U.S. President Dwight Eisenhower, and often misquoted. For example, one encyclopedia says: \"\"Eisenhower once remarked that 'America makes no sense without a deeply held faith in God—and I don't care what it is. Some commentators, such as Will Herberg, argued that Eisenhower favored a generic," ]
Given a question, retrieve Wikipedia passages that answer the question
nq
invasive bacterial infection in infants
[ "OBJECTIVES: To help guide empiric treatment of infants ?60 days old with suspected invasive bacterial infection by describing pathogens and their antimicrobial susceptibilities.STUDY DESIGN: Cross-sectional study of infants ?60 days old with invasive bacterial infection (bacteremia and/or bacterial meningitis) evaluated in the emergency departments of 11 children's hospitals between July 1, 2011 and June 30, 2016. Each site's microbiology laboratory database or electronic medical record system was queried to identify infants from whom a bacterial pathogen was isolated from either blood or cerebrospinal fluid. Medical records of these infants were reviewed to confirm the presence of a pathogen and to obtain demographic, clinical, and laboratory data.RESULTS: Of the 442 infants with invasive bacterial infection, 353 (79.9%) had bacteremia without meningitis, 64 (14.5%) had bacterial meningitis with bacteremia, and 25 (5.7%) had bacterial meningitis without bacteremia. The peak number of cases of invasive bacterial infection occurred in the second week of life; 364 (82.4%) infants were febrile. Group B streptococcus was the most common pathogen identified (36.7%), followed by Escherichia coli (30.8%), Staphylococcus aureus (9.7%), and Enterococcus spp (6.6%). Overall, 96.8% of pathogens were susceptible to ampicillin plus a third-generation cephalosporin, 96.0% to ampicillin plus gentamicin, and 89.2% to third-generation cephalosporins alone.CONCLUSIONS: For most infants ?60 days old evaluated in a pediatric emergency department for suspected invasive bacterial infection, the combination of ampicillin plus either gentamicin or a third-generation cephalosporin is an appropriate empiric antimicrobial treatment regimen. Of the pathogens isolated from infants with invasive bacterial infection, 11% were resistant to third-generation cephalosporins alone." ]
[ "Adhesion of gut bacteria to the intestinal epithelium is the first step in their colonization of the neonatal immature gut. Bacterial colonization of the infant gut is influenced by several factors, of which the most important are the mode of delivery and breast-feeding. Breast-fed infants ingest several grams of human milk oligosaccharides (HMOs) per day, which can become receptor decoys for intestinal bacteria. The most abundant intestinal bacteria in vaginally delivered infants are bifidobacteria, whereas infants born by cesarean section are colonized by clostridia. The influence of HMOs on the adhesion of five strains of intestinal bacteria (three bifidobacterial strains and two clostridial strains) to mucus-secreting and non-mucus-secreting human epithelial cells was investigated. Bifidobacterium bifidum 1 and Bifidobacterium longum displayed almost the same level of adhesion in the presence and absence of HMOs. By contrast, adhesion of Clostridium butyricum 1 and 2 decreased from 14.41% to 6.72% and from 41.54% to 30.91%, respectively, in the presence of HMOs. The results of this study indicate that HMOs affect bacterial adhesion and are an important factor influencing bacterial colonization of the gut. Adhesion of the tested bacteria correlates with their ability to autoaggregate.", "BACKGROUND AND OBJECTIVE: Urinary tract infection (UTI) represents the most common bacterial infection in infants, and its prevalence increases with the presence of high-grade vesicoureteral reflux (VUR). However, voiding cystourethrography (VCUG) is invasive, and its indication in infants <3 months is not yet defined. This study aims to investigate, in infants aged 0-3 months, if the presence of Escherichia coli versus non-E. coli bacteria and/or normal or abnormal renal ultrasound (US) could avoid the use of VCUG.METHOD: One hundred and twenty-two infants with a first febrile UTI were enrolled. High-grade VUR was defined by the presence of VUR grade ?III. The presence of high-grade VUR was recorded using VCUG, and correlated with the presence of E. coli/non-E. coli UTI and with the presence of normal/abnormal renal US. The Bayes theorem was used to calculate pretest and post-test probability.RESULTS: The probability of high-grade VUR was 3% in the presence of urinary E. coli infection. Adding a normal renal US finding decreased this probability to 1%. However, in the presence of non-E. coli bacteria, the probability of high-grade VUR was 26%, and adding an abnormal US finding increased further this probability to 55%.CONCLUSIONS: In infants aged 0-3 months with a first febrile UTI, the presence of E. coli and normal renal US findings allow to safely avoid VCUG. Performing VCUG only in infants with UTI secondary to non-E. coli bacteria and/or abnormal US would save many unnecessary invasive procedures, limit radiation exposure, with a very low risk (<1%) of missing a high-grade VUR." ]
Given a question, retrieve Pubmed passages that answer the question
synthetic
define what is paper chromatography
[ "Paper chromatography is a technique for separating and identifying mixtures that are (or can be) coloured. It has been largely replaced by thin layer chromatography, but is still a powerful teaching tool. Double-way paper chromatography, also called 'two-dimensional chromatography', uses two solvents and rotates the paper 90° in between." ]
[ "Qualitative filter paper is also suitable for doing paper chromatography. An example of this can be seen if you click on the adjacent Technical Tab. Filter Paper-Ink Chromatography If you cut filter paper into a rectangular shape you can use it to do paper chromatography. Any of our sizes will do but most experiments can be done with the 70, 90 or 110mm sizes.", "Chromo paper. A paper which is coated and then supercalendered (polished) on one side. only. Used for greetings cards and label stock. Cast-coated paper. A paper which is coated in the conventional way but with the coating dried. by passing the wet-coated web around a highly polished drying cylinder.hromo paper. A paper which is coated and then supercalendered (polished) on one side. only. Used for greetings cards and label stock. Cast-coated paper. A paper which is coated in the conventional way but with the coating dried. by passing the wet-coated web around a highly polished drying cylinder." ]
Given a web search query, retrieve relevant passages that answer the query
msmarco
can onyx cause fistula to recur
[ "Endovascular embolization with Onyx has been increasingly used to treat intracranial and spinal dural arteriovenous fistulas (DAVFs). Several case series have been published in recent years reporting high DAVF cure rates with this technique. Although it is seldom reported, DAVF recurrence may occur despite initial \"cure.\" The authors present 3 separate cases of a recurrent DAVF after successful transarterial Onyx embolization. Despite adequate Onyx penetration into the fistula and draining vein, these cases demonstrate that DAVF recanalization may reappear with filling from previous or newly recruited arterial feeders. Other published reports of DAVF recurrence are examined, and potential contributory factors are discussed. These cases highlight the need for awareness of this possible phenomenon and suggest that follow-up angiography should be considered in patients treated with catheter embolization." ]
[ "OBJECTIVE We describe treatment with Onyx embolization in a series of cases of tentorial dural arteriovenous fistula (DAVF) with pial arterial supply. The aim of this study was to analyze the cause of intraoperative hemorrhage and to explore therapeutic strategies. METHODS Retrospective review was performed of 53 consecutive patients with DAVF treated by Onyx embolization between February 2009 and December 2014. Tentorial DAVF with pial arterial supply was diagnosed in 6 patients (2 women and 4 men; mean age, 47.3 years ± 10.2), and transarterial Onyx embolization was performed in these patients. Fisher exact test was used to analyze differences of incidence of procedure-related complications. RESULTS Intraoperative hemorrhage occurred in 2 of 6 patients with pial arterial supply. One patient died as a result of hemorrhage, and the other patient survived after craniotomy. The incidence of complications for these 6 patients (2 of 6; 33.3%) was significantly higher (P = 0.0309) compared with patients with DAVF without pial arterial supply (1 of 47; 2.1%). CONCLUSIONS Pial arterial supply may be a risk factor for intraoperative hemorrhage during transarterial embolization of DAVF through dural feeders. Identification of pial feeders and early superselective occlusion of such feeders are important for safe management.", "PURPOSE The aim of this study was to report our experience in embolization of high flow peripheral arteriovenous malformations (AVMs) with Onyx. MATERIAL AND METHODS Nineteen patients (10 men, 9 women) with peripheral high-flow AVMs who were treated with arteruial embolization using Onyx were retrospectively included. AVMs were located in the head and neck (6), extremities (5), chest (2), kidney (2), uterus (2), pelvis (1) and parietal (1). In 13 patients, embolization was done using Onyx only. One patient underwent embolization by direct puncture, the others by transarterial approach. Embolization was performed in one or multiple sessions (up to 5). A total of 28 sessions were performed. Follow-up was performed with a delay between 10 and 34 months. RESULTS Technical success was achieved in all patients. Complete devascularization was obtained in 12 patients. Surgical excision was performed in 9 patients. Non-target Onyx embolization was not observed. One patient developed stroke. In 1 patient microcatheter fracture occured. One patient presented severe pain and bradycardia during the procedure that disappeared shortly after. One patient had persistent but less frequent epistaxis after embolization. Another patient had persistent pain without improvement. One patient was lost to follow-up. Other patients were free of symptoms on follow-up. CONCLUSIONS Embolization with Onyx® is an interesting option for management of peripheral high-flow AVMs either preoperatively or as a single treatment." ]
Given a query on COVID-19, retrieve documents that answer the query
synthetic
Are both Lt. Robin Crusoe, U.S.N. and 102 Dalmatians productions made by Walt Disney?
[ " 102 Dalmatians 102 Dalmatians is a 2000 American live action and CG-animated film adventure drama film directed by Kevin Lima in his live-action directorial debut and produced by Edward S. Feldman and Walt Disney Pictures. It is the sequel to the 1996 film \"101 Dalmatians\", a live-action remake of the 1961 Disney animated film of the same name and stars Glenn Close reprising her role as Cruella de Vil as she attempts to steal puppies for her \"grandest\" fur coat yet. Close and Tim McInnerny were the only two actors from the first film to return for the sequel, however. The film was nominated for an Academy Award for Best Costume Design, but lost to \"Gladiator.\"", " Lt. Robin Crusoe, U.S.N. Lt. Robin Crusoe USN is a 1966 comedy film released and scripted by Walt Disney, and starring Dick Van Dyke as a U.S. Navy pilot who becomes a castaway on a tropical island. Some filming took place in San Diego, while a majority of the film was shot on Kauai, Hawaii." ]
[ " The Jungle Book (1994 film) Rudyard Kipling's The Jungle Book is a 1994 live-action American adventure film co-written and directed by Stephen Sommers, produced by Edward S. Feldman and Raju Patel, from a story by Ronald Yanover and Mark Geldman. It is the second film adaptation by The Walt Disney Company of the Mowgli stories from \"The Jungle Book\" and \"The Second Jungle Book\" by Rudyard Kipling.", " Adventures of Robinson Crusoe, a Sailor from York Adventures of Robinson Crusoe, a Sailor from York (Czech: \"Dobrodružství Robinsona Crusoe, námořníka z Yorku\" ) is a 1982 Czechoslovak stop motion-animated film, with animated flashbacks, directed by Stanislav Látal. The film is based on the 1719 novel \"Robinson Crusoe\" by Daniel Defoe." ]
Given a multi-hop question, retrieve documents that can help answer the question
hotpotqa
Is unprovoked and glyceryl trinitrate-provoked head-up tilt table test safe in older people : a review of 10 years ' experience?
[ "To test the safety of the head-up tilt test (HUT) in older adults. Direct observation and measurements. Tests performed in a quiet room with dim lighting in a laboratory setting. One thousand ninety-six subjects aged 60 to 74; 873 aged 75 and older. Blood pressure and pulse at baseline for 10 minutes and 70 degrees tilt for maximum of 45 minutes. Subjects with unprovoked HUT had test repeated on a separate day after 800 mg glyceryl trinitrate (GTN). One thousand four hundred ninety-five drug-free and 474 GTN-provoked HUTs were studied. In those aged 60 to 74, the proportion of hypotensive unprovoked HUT was 16% (27% in those aged > or =75); this was higher with GTN provocation (43% in those aged 60-74, 44% in those aged > or =75; P<.01). Systolic blood pressure decreased during provoked HUT (lowest mean+/-standard deviation=67+/-20 in those aged 60-74, 63+/-24 in those aged > or =75; P<.01). There was one cardiovascular and no neurological complications" ]
[ "To determine whether the responses of elders compared with younger patients differed significantly on a structured dizziness case history. Retrospective case reviews. Outpatient balance function testing center. Two-hundred thirty-three adults who underwent vestibular function testing and completed a structured case history. The mean age of the adult group (18-64 yr) was 46.4 years. The mean age of the old adult group (65 yr and older) was 76.2 years. Patient's self-reported symptoms on a structured case history questionnaire. Younger adults reported significantly more complaints of true vertigo and associated nausea and vomiting compared with older patients. Older patients tended to report symptoms of unsteadiness or falling. Despite the lack of vertiginous symptoms, BPPV was common in older adults", "Electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) administration rises in frequency with age, with older depressed adults often showing clinical features predictive of good response. Recent reviews suggest that older people experience few if any long-term cognitive adverse effects after contemporary ECT, despite their increased vulnerability to these. However, the broader clinical validity of research findings is not assured as most studies of ECT-related cognitive effects do not discuss cognitive test nonparticipants. This study examines whether cognitive test participants and nonparticipants are comparable. We recently completed a study of cognition in depressed patients 65 years and older treated with ECT. Only 35% of eligible patients completed neuropsychological testing at 2 time points, the remainder either refusing or unable to consent. To examine whether exclusion of most eligible patients from cognitive testing might have affected the clinical applicability of findings, we compared demographic and clinical characteristics of patients who participated with those who did not based on a subset of patients from our original study" ]
Given a question, retrieve relevant Pubmed passages that answer the question
qa_pairs
Does regional- and age-dependent reduction in trkB receptor expression in the hippocampus is associate with altered spine morphologies?
[ "Changes in densities and in the morphology of dendritic spines in the hippocampus are linked to hippocampal long-term potentiation (LTP), spatial learning, and depression. Decreased brain-derived neurotrophic factor (BDNF) levels seem to contribute to depression. Through its receptor trkB, BDNF is also involved in hippocampal LTP and hippocampus-dependent learning. Conditionally gene-targeted mice in which the ablation of trkB is restricted to the forebrain and occurs only during postnatal development display impaired learning and LTP. To examine whether there is a link among impaired hippocampal synaptic plasticity, altered spines, and trkB receptors, we performed a quantitative analysis of spine densities and spine length in the hippocampal area CA1 and the dentate gyrus in conditional mutant mice (trkB(lox/lox)CaMKII-CRE mice). TrkB protein and mRNA levels were assayed using Western blot and in situ hybridization analysis. Fifteen-week-old mutant mice exhibit specific reductions in spine densities and a significant increase in spine length of apical and basal dendrites in area CA1. These alterations correlate with a time- and region-specific reduction in full-length trkB mRNA in the hippocampus" ]
[ "Endocytic dysfunction and neurotrophin signaling deficits may underlie the selective vulnerability of hippocampal neurons during the progression of Alzheimer's disease (AD), although there is little direct in vivo and biochemical evidence to support this hypothesis. Microarray analysis of hippocampal CA1 pyramidal neurons acquired via laser capture microdissection was performed using postmortem brain tissue. Validation was achieved using real-time quantitative polymerase chain reaction and immunoblot analysis. Mechanistic studies were performed using human fibroblasts subjected to overexpression with viral vectors or knockdown via small interference RNA. Expression levels of genes regulating early endosomes (rab5) and late endosomes (rab7) are selectively upregulated in homogeneous populations of CA1 neurons from individuals with mild cognitive impairment and AD. The levels of these genes are selectively increased as antemortem measures of cognition decline during AD progression. Hippocampal quantitative polymerase chain reaction and immunoblot analyses confirmed increased levels of these transcripts and their respective protein products. Elevation of select rab GTPases regulating endocytosis paralleled the downregulation of genes encoding the neurotrophin receptors TrkB and TrkC. Overexpression of rab5 in cells suppressed TrkB expression, whereas knockdown of TrkB expression did not alter rab5 levels, suggesting that TrkB downregulation is a consequence of endosomal dysfunction associated with elevated rab5 levels in early AD", "Data on the association between vertebral endplate changes and low back pain are contradictory. This study was designed to assess whether this association exists among Southern European subjects. Patients in this study serving as cases were 35-50 years of age with low back pain lasting >90 days, for whom a lumbar MR imaging had been prescribed. Controls were subjects 35-50 years of age, having a cranial MR imaging for headache with normal findings, and no history of clinically relevant LBP. Two hundred forty cases and 64 controls were recruited consecutively in the radiology services across 6 cities in Spain. Imaging findings and subject characteristics were gathered through previously validated instruments. Radiologists who interpreted MRI were blinded to the subject characteristics. A multivariate logistic regression model was developed to assess the association of vertebral endplate changes with LBP, adjusting for sex, age, body mass index, lifetime exposure to smoking, physical activity, disk degeneration, and the interaction between disk degeneration and vertebral endplate changes" ]
Given a question, retrieve relevant Pubmed passages that answer the question
qa_pairs
There are a number of tombs and temples scattered in farmland here; the most prominent is the mortuary temple of Ramses II, the Ramesseum.
[ "There are a lot of tombs and temples around." ]
[ "The temple of Ramses II is not an important one." ]
Given a premise, retrieve hypotheses that are entailed by the premise
nli
what is ibex
[ "Definition of ibex for English Language Learners. : a wild goat that lives chiefly in the mountains of Europe, Asia, and northeastern Africa." ]
[ "The IBA Technology was specifically developed to address coal ash and incinerator bottom ash (IBA), which is the resulting residue that is created after the combustion process of burning coal or solid waste to generate electric power.", "American Stock Exchange. Definition. AMEX. The second-largest stock exchange in the U.S., after the New York Stock Exchange (NYSE). In general, the listing rules are a little more lenient than those of the NYSE, and thus the AMEX has a larger representation of stocks and bonds issued by smaller companies than the NYSE." ]
Given a web search query, retrieve relevant passages that answer the query
msmarco
what is chicory
[ "chicory chicory Also found in: Thesaurus, Medical, Encyclopedia, Wikipedia. Related to chicory: chicory root, chicory plantchic·o·ry (chĭk′ə-rē)n. pl. chic·o·ries1. A perennial herb (Cichorium intybus) of the composite family, native to Europe and widelynaturalized in North America, usually having blue flowers. Also called succory.2. Any of various forms of this plant cultivated for their edible leaves, such as radicchio.3. The dried, roasted, ground roots of this plant, used as an adulterant of or substitute forcoffee. [Middle English cicoree (from Old French cichoree) and French chicorée, both from Latincichorium, cichorēum, from Greek kikhoreia, pl. diminutive of kikhorā . ]American Heritage® Dictionary of the English Language, Fifth Edition. Copyright © 2016 by Houghton Mifflin Harcourt Publishing Company. Published by Houghton Mifflin Harcourt Publishing Company. All rights reserved.chicory ( ˈtʃɪkərɪ) n, pl -ries1. (Plants) Also called: succory a blue-flowered plant, Cichorium intybus, cultivated for itsleaves, which are used in salads, and for its roots: family Asteraceae (composites)2. (Cookery) the root of this plant, roasted, dried, and used as a coffee substitute [C15: from Old French chicorée, from Latin cichorium, from Greek kikhōrion]Collins English Dictionary – Complete and Unabridged, 12th Edition 2014 © Harper Collins Publishers 1991, 1994, 1998, 2000, 2003, 2006, 2007, 2009, 2011, 2014chic•o•ry (ˈtʃɪk ə ri)n., pl. -ries.1. a composite plant, Cichorium intybus, having blue flowers and toothed oblong leaves,cultivated as a salad plant and for its root. Compare endive (def. 2).2. the root of this plant used roasted and ground as a substitute for or additive to coffee. [1350–1400; Middle English < Middle French chicoree, alter. of earlier cicoree (by influence of Italiancicoria) < Latin cichorēa < Greek kichória, kíchora]Random House Kernerman Webster's College Dictionary, © 2010 K Dictionaries Ltd. Copyright 2005, 1997, 1991 by Random House, Inc. All rights reserved. Thesaurus Antonyms Related Words Synonyms Legend: Switch to new thesaurus Noun 1. chicory - the dried root of the chicory plant: used as a coffee substitutechicory rootchicory plant, Cichorium intybus, succory, chicory - perennial Old World herbhaving rayed flower heads with blue florets cultivated for its root and its heads of crispedible leaves used in saladsroot - (botany) the usually underground organ that lacks buds or leaves or nodes;absorbs water and mineral salts; usually it anchors the plant to the ground2. chicory - perennial Old World herb having rayed flower heads withblue florets cultivated for its root and its heads of crisp edible leaves used in saladschicory plant, Cichorium intybus, succorycurly endive, chicory - crisp spiky leaves with somewhat bitter taste Cichorium, genus Cichorium - chicorychicory, chicory root - the dried root of the chicory plant: used as a coffee substituteherb, herbaceous plant - a plant lacking a permanent woody stem; many areflowering garden plants or potherbs; some having medicinal properties; some are pests3. chicory - root of the chicory plant roasted and ground to substitute for or adulterate coffeechicory rootcoffee substitute - a drink resembling coffee that is sometimes substituted for it4. chicory - crisp spiky leaves with somewhat bitter tastecurly endivesalad green, salad greens - greens suitable for eating uncooked as in saladsradicchio - prized variety of chicory having globose heads of red leaveschicory plant, Cichorium intybus, succory, chicory - perennial Old World herbhaving rayed flower heads with blue florets cultivated for its root and its heads of crispedible leaves used in salads Based on Word Net 3.0, Farlex clipart collection. © 2003-2012 Princeton University, Farlex Inc. Translations Select a language:chicory [ˈtʃɪkərɪ] N ( in coffee) → achicoria f; ( as salad) → escarola f Collins Spanish Dictionary - Complete and Unabridged 8th Edition 2005 © William Collins Sons & Co. Ltd. 1971, 1988 © Harper Collins Publishers 1992, 1993, 1996, 1997, 2000, 2003, 2005chicory ( ˈtʃikəri) nouna plant whose leaves are used in salads and whose root is ground and mixed with coffee. Kernerman English Multilingual Dictionary © 2006-2013 K Dictionaries Ltd. Want to thank TFD for its existence? Tell a friend about us, add a link to this page, or visit the webmaster's page for free fun content . Link to this page: Facebook Twitter" ]
[ "chicory chicorynavigation search Contents [ hide ]1 English1.1 Etymology1.2 Noun1.2.1 Derived terms1.2.2 Translations1.3 Further reading1.4 Anagrams English [ edit]A common chicory ( Cichorium intybus) flower (sense 1). A chicory ( Cichorium endivia) salad or endive (sense 1.2)Roasted chicory roots used as coffee substitute (sense 2). Etymology [ edit]Borrowed from Middle French chicorée, from Old French cicoree, from Late Latin*cichōria, from Latin cichōrium, from Ancient Greek κιχώριον ( kikhṓrion). Doublet of succory. Noun [ edit]chicory ( countable and uncountable, plural chicories) ( botany) Either of two plants of the Asteraceae family Common chicory ( Cichorium intybus ), the source of radicchio, Belgian endive, and sugarloaf. Endive ( Cichorium endivia ), the source of escarole and frisée. ( cooking) A coffee substitute made from the roasted roots of the common chicory, sometimes used as a cheap adulterant in real coffee. quotations ▼Derived terms [ edit]leaf chicoryroot chicory Translations [ edit]± show ▼Cichorium intybus Cichorium endivia — see endive± show ▼ coffee substitute Further reading [ edit]chicory on Wikipedia. Cichorium on Wikispecies. Anagrams [ edit]hiccory Categories: English terms borrowed from Middle French English terms derived from Middle French English terms derived from Old French English terms derived from Late Latin English terms derived from Latin English terms derived from Ancient Greek English doublets English lemmas English nouns English uncountable nouns English countable nouns en: Botany en: Cooking English 3-syllable wordsen: Cichorieae tribe plants" ]
Given a web search query, retrieve relevant documents that answer the query
msmarco_doc
what is the lims
[ "A laboratory information management system (LIMS) is central to the informatics infrastructure that underlies biobanking activities. To date, a wide range of commercial and open-source LIMSs are available and the decision to opt for one LIMS over another is often influenced by the needs of the biobank clients and researchers, as well as available financial resources. The Baobab LIMS was developed by customizing the Bika LIMS software ( www.bikalims.org ) to meet the requirements of biobanking best practices. The need to implement biobank standard operation procedures as well as stimulate the use of standards for biobank data representation motivated the implementation of Baobab LIMS, an open-source LIMS for Biobanking. Baobab LIMS comprises modules for biospecimen kit assembly, shipping of biospecimen kits, storage management, analysis requests, reporting, and invoicing. The Baobab LIMS is based on the Plone web-content management framework. All the system requirements for Plone are applicable to Baobab LIMS, including the need for a server with at least 8 GB RAM and 120 GB hard disk space. Baobab LIMS is a server-client-based system, whereby the end user is able to access the system securely through the internet on a standard web browser, thereby eliminating the need for standalone installations on all machines." ]
[ "We previously described that LIM domain containing 2 (LIMD2) overexpression was closely correlated with metastatic process in papillary thyroid carcinoma (PTC). We here evaluated the expression of LIMD2 in a series of non-metastatic and metastatic PTC and their matched lymph node metastases via immunohistochemistry. LIMD2 was expressed in 74 (81%) of primary PTC and 35 (95%) of lymph node metastases. Sub-analysis performed in 37 matched samples demonstrated that in four cases, LIMD2 is expressed in lymph node metastases, while it is not expressed in primary tumors. Moreover, in eight cases, the staining intensity of LIMD2 was stronger in the patient-matched lymph node metastases than in the primary tumors. Next, the expression of LIMD2 was correlated with clinical pathological parameters and BRAF V600E and RET/PTC mutational status. The expression of LIMD2 in primary tumors was correlated with the presence of BRAF V600E mutation (P= 0.0338). Western blot analysis in thyroid cell lines demonstrated that LIMD2 is expressed in two PTC cell lines, while it is not expressed in normal thyroid and follicular thyroid carcinoma cell lines. Importantly, its expression was higher in a PTC cell line that harbors BRAF V600E mutation than in a PTC cell line that harbors RET/PTC1. The available genomic profiling data generated by The Cancer Genome Atlas Research Network confirmed that LIMD2 expression is higher in BRAF-like PTC samples. Our data suggest that LIMD2 may play an important role in the metastatic process of PTC, predominantly in BRAF V600E-positive tumors.", "LIM homeobox 8 (Lhx8) is a germ cell-specific transcription factor essential for the development of oocytes during early oogenesis. In mice, Lhx8 deficiency causes postnatal oocyte loss and affects the expression of many oocyte-specific genes. The aims of this study were to characterize the bovine Lhx8 gene, determine its mRNA expression during oocyte development and early embryogenesis, and evaluate its interactions with other oocyte-specific transcription factors. The bovine Lhx8 gene encodes a protein of 377 amino acids. A splice variant of Lhx8 (Lhx8_v1) was also identified. The predicted bovine Lhx8 protein contains two LIM domains and one homeobox domain. However, one of the LIM domains in Lhx8_v1 is incomplete due to deletion of 83 amino acids near the N terminus. Both Lhx8 and Lhx8_v1 transcripts were only detected in the gonads but none of the somatic tissues examined. The expression of Lhx8 and Lhx8_v1 appears to be restricted to oocytes as none of the transcripts was detectable in granulosa or theca cells. The maternal Lhx8 transcript is abundant in GV and MII stage oocytes as well as in early embryos but disappear by morula stage. A nuclear localization signal that is required for the import of Lhx8 into nucleus was identified, and Lhx8 is predominantly localized in the nucleus when ectopically expressed in mammalian cells. Finally, a novel interaction between Lhx8 and Figla, another transcription factor essential for oogenesis, was detected. The results provide new information for studying the mechanisms of action for Lhx8 in oocyte development and early embryogenesis." ]
Given a question, retrieve Pubmed passages that answer the question
synthetic
what does the effect of particle size of the aerosol have on the beetle
[ "A series of laboratory studies was conducted to assess the effect of droplet size on efficacy of pyrethrin aerosol against adults of Tribolium confusum Jacqueline DuVal, the confused flour beetle. A vertical flow aerosol exposure chamber that generated a standardized particle size diameter was used for these trials. In the first experiments, adults were exposed in the chamber for 2.5-45 min to aerosol dispensed at a volumetric median particle size diameter (VMD) of 16 m, and then held in the arenas in which they were exposed or transferred to new arenas with or without a flour food source. All adults were initially knocked down when removed from the chamber. Recovery from knockdown decreased as exposure interval increased, but the presence of a food source enhanced recovery at the lower exposure intervals. In the second experiment, the aerosol was applied at a VMD of 2 m and adults were exposed for between 5 and 75 min. Knockdown of adults was ?10% when adults were removed from the chamber regardless of exposure time and afterward there was essentially complete recovery of adults. In the third and final experiment, the same 2-m VMD particle size and exposure times were used, but the concentration of aerosol was increased by ?4? compared with the previous experiment. In this test, initial knockdown was greater at the higher exposure intervals, but by 3 and 4 d posttreatment, recovery was again essentially 100%. This is the first published test assessing the efficacy of specific aerosol particle sizes on a stored product insect. Results indicate that particle size was a more important factor in conferring toxicity than the actual concentration or number of aerosol particles." ]
[ "Although they are currently unregulated, atmospheric ultrafine particles (<100 nm) pose health risks because of, e.g., their capability to penetrate deep into the respiratory system. Ultrafine particles, often minor contributors to atmospheric particulate mass, typically dominate aerosol particle number concentrations. We simulated the response of particle number concentrations over Europe to recent estimates of future emission reductions of aerosol particles and their precursors. We used the chemical transport model PMCAMx-UF, with novel updates including state-of-the-art descriptions of ammonia and dimethylamine new particle formation (NPF) pathways and the condensation of organic compounds onto particles. These processes had notable impacts on atmospheric particle number concentrations. All three emission scenarios (current legislation, optimized emissions, and maximum technically feasible reductions) resulted in substantial (10-50%) decreases in median particle number concentrations over Europe. Consistent reductions were predicted in Central Europe, while Northern Europe exhibited smaller reductions or even increased concentrations. Motivated by the improved NPF descriptions for ammonia and methylamines, we placed special focus on the potential to improve air quality by reducing agricultural emissions, which are a major source of these species. Agricultural emission controls showed promise in reducing ultrafine particle number concentrations, although the change is nonlinear with particle size.", "It is well-known that the health effects of PM increase as particle size decreases: particularly, great concern has risen on the role of UltraFine Particles (UFPs). Starting from the knowledge that the main fraction of atmospheric aerosol in Rome is characterized by significant levels of PM2.5 (almost 75% of PM10 fraction is PM2.5), the paper is focused on submicron particles in such great urban area. The daytime/nighttime, work-/weekdays and cold/hot seasonal trends of submicron particles will be investigated and discussed along with NOx and total PAH drifts demonstrating the primary origin of UFPs from combustion processes. Furthermore, moving from these data, the total dose of submicron particles deposited in the respiratory system (i.e., head, tracheobronchial and alveolar regions in different lung lobes) has been estimated. Dosimeter estimates were performed with the Multiple-Path Particle Dosimetry model (MPPD v.2.1). The paper discusses the aerosol doses deposited in the respiratory system of individuals exposed in proximity of traffic. During traffic peak hours, about 6.6?10(10) particles are deposited into the respiratory system. Such dose is almost entirely made of UFPs. According to the greater dose estimated, right lung lobes are expected to be more susceptible to respiratory pathologies than left lobes." ]
Given a question, retrieve Pubmed passages that answer the question
synthetic
what does ep stand for for albums?
[ "EP means extended play. An EP is a short CD/Album released with 4 to 6 songs on it. The opposite of an LP which usually has 10 to 14 songs on it." ]
[ "Difference Between LP and EP. LP vs EP. Both LP and EP offer tracks that the audience demands for and for most, the difference between LP and EP would not matter as long as one gets to hear their desired form of music.", "LP and EP, that is Long Play and Extended Play have been a common name since the introduction of vinyl. However, these terms are still used even during the advent of the compact disk era. Both of these records have deep rooted history and have been constantly evolving in the music circle." ]
Given a web search query, retrieve relevant passages that answer the query
msmarco
Does self-monitoring of blood pressure promote achievement of blood pressure target in primary health care?
[ "The majority of hypertensive patients do not reach the target blood pressure (BP). We sought to clarify whether intermittent self-monitoring of BP leads to better BP control compared to ordinary treatment in general practice. Two hundred sixty-nine hypertensive patients participated in this multicenter, randomized, parallel-group study in primary health care. Home BP was measured in the self-monitoring (SM) group at 0, 2, 4, and 6 months, and in the control (C) group at 0 and 6 months. The participating physicians were instructed to intensify the antihypertensive therapy when needed. At the beginning, both groups had similar home BP levels (SM 143.1 +/- 17.4/85.3 +/- 7.4 mm Hg v C 143.9 +/- 18.3/85.4 +/- 7.5 mm Hg). After 6 months, there were significant decreases in systolic (P <or= .0001), diastolic (P <or= .0029), and pulse pressures (P <or= .021) in both groups. Systolic (-7.8 +/- 13.1 mm Hg v -4.5 +/- 12.2 mm Hg, P = .047) and pulse pressure (-4.7 +/- 9.0 mm Hg v -2.2 +/- 10.0 mm Hg, P = .042) decreased significantly more than in the self-monitoring group. The decrease in diastolic pressure was similar in both groups (SM -3.1 +/- 6.2 mm Hg v C -2.3 +/- 8.3 mm Hg, P = not significant). The patients in the SM group reached home BP target more often than those in the C group (29% v 16%, P = .016). There was a nonsignificant trend toward lower office BP values in the SM group" ]
[ "Education of hypertensive subject must sensitize the patient to its pathway and to the prescribed treatment. Self-measurement of blood pressure, which directly implicates the patient, should ameliorate the education of hypertensive subject. To evaluate if the possession of a self-measurement blood pressure device improves patients' knowledge of hypertension. In 484 treated hypertensive subjects referred to hypertension specialists, a questionnaire evaluating patients knowledge of hypertension and its treatment was given before the consultation. During this consultation, the practitioner evaluated the concordance between antihypertensive treatments declared by the patient and those effectively prescribed. In this population, aged 61 +/- 12 years, with 55% of men, a self-measurement blood pressure device was possessed by 165 subjects (34%). These devices have been bought without medical advice by 83 patients. For a minority of subjects (n = 41), self-measurements of blood pressure were made at the wrist. Blood pressure level was similar in subjects with (141 +/- 19/80 +/- 10 mmHg) or without (140 +/- 19/80 +/- 10 mmHg) self-measurement devices. Subjects possessing a self measurement device had a better knowledge of their usual blood pressure level and of the normal blood pressure values (< 140/90 mmHg), than subjects without self measurement device (93% vs 77%, p < 0.01, and 56% vs 33%, p < 0.01, respectively). Moreover, subjects in possession of self-measurement devices had a better knowledge of their antihypertensive treatment than those without device (83% vs 70%, p < 0.05). Logistic regression analysis including age, sex, smoking, education level, blood pressure level and the number of antihypertensive tablets confirm the statistical differences observed", "BACKGROUND: Multimorbidity, defined as two or more concurrent chronic diseases within the same individual, is becoming the clinical norm within primary care. Given the burden of multimorbidity on individuals, carers and health care systems, there is a need for effective self-management programmes. Promoting active participation within their clinical care and following a healthy lifestyle will help empower patients and target lifestyle factors that are exacerbating their conditions. The aim of this study is to establish whether a tailored, structured self-management programme can improve levels of physical activity at 12 months, in people with multimorbidity.METHODS/DESIGN: This study is a single-centre randomised controlled trial, with follow-up at 6 and 12 months. The primary outcome is change in objectively assessed average daily physical activity at 12 months. Secondary outcomes include medication adherence, lifestyle behaviours, quality of life, chronic disease self-efficacy and self-efficacy for exercise. Anthropometric and clinical measurements include blood pressure, muscle strength, lipid profile, kidney function and glycated haemoglobin (HbA1c). Participants are recruited from primary care. Those between 40 and 85 years of age with multimorbidity, with a good understanding of written and verbal English, who are able to give informed consent, have access to a mobile phone for use in study activities and are able to walk independently will be invited to participate. Multimorbidity is defined as two or more of the chronic conditions listed in the Quality and Outcomes Framework. A total of 338 participants will be randomly assigned, with stratification for gender and ethnicity, to either the control group, receiving usual care, or the intervention group, who are invited to the Movement through Active Personalised engagement programme. This involves attending four group-based self-management sessions aimed at increasing physical activity, mastering emotions, managing treatments and using effective communication. The sessions are delivered by trained facilitators, and regular text messages during the study period provide ongoing support. Changes in primary and secondary outcomes will be assessed, and an economic evaluation of the intervention undertaken.DISCUSSION: This study will provide new evidence on whether physical activity can be promoted alongside other self-management strategies in a multimorbid population and whether this leads to improvements in clinical, biomedical, psychological and quality of life outcomes.TRIAL REGISTRATION: ISRCTN, ISRCTN 42791781 . Registered on 14 March 2017." ]
Given a question, retrieve relevant Pubmed passages that answer the question
qa_pairs
Does tolerance to the therapeutic effect of tadalafil occur during 6 months of treatment : A randomized , double-blind , placebo-controlled study in men with erectile dysfunction?
[ "Tolerance can cause a decrease in drug efficacy during chronic therapy, possibly leading to treatment failures. The aim of this article is to determine whether tolerance developed to the effects of tadalafil on erectile function (EF) over a 6-month treatment period. Post hoc analysis of data from a multicenter, double-blind, randomized, placebo-controlled, parallel group study was performed. Men (> or =18 years of age) with erectile dysfunction (ED) were randomized to treatment with placebo (N = 47) or 20-mg tadalafil (N = 93) taken as needed for 6 months. This report focuses on efficacy assessed with the Sexual Encounter Profile (SEP) diary (diaries were collected after a 4-week treatment-free run-in period [baseline], and monthly for 6 months), and with the International Index of Erectile Function (IIEF) (administered at baseline, and at 3 and 6 months). RESULTS. The mean per-patient percentage \"yes\" response on SEP question 3 (SEP3, successful intercourse) was 33 +/- 4% at baseline, 74 +/- 4% after 1 month, and 78 +/- 4% after 6 months of tadalafil treatment. The IIEF EF domain score was 16.2 +/- 0.7 at baseline, 24.3 +/- 0.8 after 3 months, and 24.3 +/- 0.9 after 6 months of tadalafil treatment. In a subgroup of patients who took tadalafil > or =3 times per week (N = 24), the SEP3 score was 87 +/- 4% after 1 month and 93 +/- 3% after 6 months of treatment, and the IIEF EF domain score was 27.3 +/- 0.9 after 3 months and 28.5 +/- 0.4 after 6 months. Of 16 tadalafil-treated patients who discontinued, three cited a lack of efficacy" ]
[ "We evaluated the safety and efficacy of 100 and 200 mg avanafil for the treatment of adult males with erectile dysfunction after bilateral nerve sparing radical prostatectomy.This was a double-blind, placebo controlled, parallel group, phase 3 study in males age 18 to 70 years with a history of erectile dysfunction of 6 months or more after bilateral nerve sparing radical prostatectomy.", "Phosphodiesterase 5 inhibitors (PDE5-Is) sildenafil, vardenafil, tadalafil and the recently approved avanafil represent the first-line choice for both on-demand and chronic treatment of erectile dysfunction (ED)." ]
Given a question, retrieve relevant Pubmed passages that answer the question
qa_pairs
The utility of reflective writing after a palliative care experience: can we assess medical students' professionalism?
[ "Medical education leaders have called for a curriculum that proactively teaches knowledge, skills, and attitudes required for professional practice and have identified professionalism as a competency domain for medical students. Exposure to palliative care (PC), an often deeply moving clinical experience, is an optimal trigger for rich student reflection, and students' reflective writings can be explored for professional attitudes. Our aim was to evaluate the merit of using student reflective writing about a PC clinical experience to teach and assess professionalism. After a PC patient visit, students wrote a brief reflective essay. We explored qualitatively if/how evidence of students' professionalism was reflected in their writing. Five essays were randomly chosen to develop a preliminary thematic structure, which then guided analysis of 30 additional, randomly chosen essays. Analysts coded transcripts independently, then collaboratively, developed thematic categories, and selected illustrative quotes for each theme and subtheme. Essays revealed content reflecting more rich information about students' progress toward achieving two professionalism competencies (demonstrating awareness of one's own perspectives and biases; demonstrating caring, compassion, empathy, and respect) than two others (displaying self-awareness of performance; recognizing and taking actions to correct deficiencies in one's own behavior, knowledge, and skill)" ]
[ "CONTEXT: Competency-based medical education has spurred the implementation of longitudinal workplace-based assessment (WBA) programmes to track learners' development of competencies. These hinge on the appropriate use of assessment instruments by assessors. This study aimed to validate our assessment programme and specifically to explore whether assessors' beliefs and behaviours rendered the detection of progress possible.METHODS: We implemented a longitudinal WBA programme in the third year of a primarily rotation-based clerkship. The programme used the professionalism mini-evaluation exercise (P-MEX) to detect progress in generic competencies. We used mixed methods: a retrospective psychometric examination of student assessment data in one academic year, and a prospective focus group and interview study of assessors' beliefs and reported behaviours related to the assessment.RESULTS: We analysed 1662 assessment forms for 186 students. We conducted interviews and focus groups with 21 assessors from different professions and disciplines. Scores were excellent from the outset (3.5-3.7/4), with no meaningful increase across blocks (average overall scores: 3.6 in block 1 versus 3.7 in blocks 2 and 3; F = 8.310, d.f. 2, p < 0.001). The main source of variance was the forms (47%) and only 1% of variance was attributable to students, which led to low generalisability across forms (Eñ2  = 0.18). Assessors reported using multiple observations to produce their assessments and were reluctant to harm students by consigning anything negative to writing. They justified the use of a consistent benchmark across time by citing the basic nature of the form or a belief that the 'competencies' assessed were in fact fixed attributes that were unlikely to change.CONCLUSIONS: Assessors may purposefully deviate from instructions in order to meet their ethical standards of good assessment. Furthermore, generic competencies may be viewed as intrinsic and fixed rather than as learnable. Implementing a longitudinal WBA programme is complex and requires careful consideration of assessors' beliefs and values.", "Reflective practice is a desirable trait in physicians, yet there is little information about how it is taught to or learned by medical students. The purpose of this study was to determine whether an online Evidence Based Medicine (EBM) exercise with a face-to-face debriefing session would prompt third year medical students to reflect on their current skills and lead them to further reflection on clinical decision making in the future. All third year medical students at the University Of Maryland School Of Medicine who completed their pediatrics clerkship between 7/1/09 and 2/11/11 were required to complete the EBM exercise. Following completion each student received a personal report (Learning Profile) of their responses and attended a one hour large group debriefing session. Student responses to a survey following the debriefing sessions were analyzed using a post-test survey design with a single experimental cohort. Ninety-five percent of students completing the debriefing survey indicated that the debriefing session helped them better understand their learning profiles; 68% stated that their profiles allowed them to evaluate themselves and their decisions. Sixty-three percent noted that participating in the exercise and the debrief would lead them to either learn more about EBM and use EBM more in the future or reflect more on their own decision making" ]
Given a question, retrieve relevant Pubmed passages that answer the question
qa_pairs
when was the ex post facto law created
[ "of those accused could have committed a crime that carried the death penalty under Finnish law in force during the war. Several hundred people were executed under what was arguably an \"\"ex post facto\"\" legal arrangement. During the war, and before the tribunals were set up, thousands of people had been executed without trial by both sides. After World War II, Finland was under pressure to convict political leaders whom the Allied powers considered responsible for Finnish involvement in the war. An \"\"ex post facto\"\" law was passed in the autumn of 1945 to permit prosecution for war responsibility, and" ]
[ "favourable criminal or administrative law. \"\"Ex post facto\"\" punishment in criminal and administrative law is prohibited by article 54 of the constitution; \"\"ex post facto\"\" tax laws by article 57 of the constitution. Article 9.3 of the Spanish Constitution guarantees the principle of non-retroactivity of punitive provisions that are not favorable to or restrictive of individual rights. Therefore, \"\"ex post facto\"\" criminal laws or any other retroactive punitive provisions are constitutionally prohibited. As well as Statute law mentioned above, this now also includes 'court-made law'. The Parot doctrine, in which terrorists were denied the right (enshrined in a 1973 Statute)", "against East German soldiers who killed fugitives on the Inner-German border (\"\"Mauerschützen-Prozesse\"\" - \"\"Wall-shooters'/ -guards' trials\"\"). German courts in these cases recurred to the Radbruch formula. In 2010, the parliament established a 98% punitive tax on any income over two million forints received either as a retirement package or as severance pay in the previous five years in the government sector. In India, without using the expression \"\"\"\"ex post facto law\"\"\"\", the underlying principle has been adopted in the article 20(1) of the Indian Constitution in the following words: Further, what article 20(1) prohibits is conviction and sentence under an" ]
Given a question, retrieve Wikipedia passages that answer the question
nq
overhead view of two people, a man and a woman, preparing a meal with potatoes.
[ "Two people prepare a meal." ]
[ "Two people are eating potatoes with their feet." ]
Given a premise, retrieve hypotheses that are entailed by the premise
nli
aegeline enantiomers of aegle marmelos
[ "A fast UHPLC-PDA method was developed for the simultaneous analysis of one alkaloid, aegeline, and six coumarins, viz., umbelliferone, scopoletin, marmesinin, 8-hydroxypsoralen, angelicin, and marmelosin, from the leaf, fruit, root, and bark of Aegle marmelos. The UHPLC method was validated for linearity, accuracy, repeatability, limits of detection and limits of quantification. The linearity range (r(2) > 0.99) of the seven compounds was found to be 0.5-250 g/mL, and the limits of detection and limits of quantification for the seven compounds were found to be 0.1 and 0.5 g/mL, respectively. The developed UHPLC method is simple, fast, and especially suitable for quality control analysis of coumarins and aegeline from A. marmelos and commercial dietary supplements. Single quadrupole mass spectrometry was used for the identification and confirmation of coumarins and aegeline from different plant parts and dietary supplements. In addition, a novel chiral HPLC-ToF-MS method was developed for the resolution of aegeline enantiomers. By applying this chiral method, the distribution of enantiomers of aegeline from different parts of A. marmelos and aegeline-containing dietary supplements is reported for the first time." ]
[ "Chiral stationary phases (CSPs) based on amylose (3,5-dimethylphenylcarbamate) (ADMPC) exhibit a wide-range of enantioselectivity in high-performance liquid chromatography (HPLC) and supercritical fluid chromatography (SFC). Although this class of CSPs has been extensively used, chiral discriminations at receptorial level, which are useful to develop predictive molecular models, have been rarely reported in the literature. Herein, we describe the results obtained in the enantioselective HPLC of a set of six C5-chiral 4,5-dihydro-(1H)-pyrazole derivatives on the ADMPC-based Chiralpak AD-3 CSP (CSP) under normal-phase and polar organic conditions. Using pure methanol as a mobile phase the exceptional enantioseparation factor value of 50 at 25C was found for one of the investigated analytes. To the best of our knowledge, the enantiomeric bias represents the most outstanding enantioseparation ever recorded on ADMPC-based CSPs. Systematic variations in chemical groups in specific positions of the 3-(phenyl-4-oxy)-5-phenyl-4,5-dihydro-(1H)-pyrazole molecular framework resulted in peculiar changes in retention and enantioselectivity. A careful analysis of the chromatographic data permitted to advance some hypotheses concerning the role played by the individual chemical groups in determining the exceptional enantioseparation. In particular, under methanol-rich mode, the prenyl moiety of the second eluted enantiomer of the better resolved analyte was recognized as a critical structural element to establish direct and favorable solvophobic interactions with apolar portions of selector.", "A pair of new enantiomeric alkaloid dimers, (+)- and (-)-pestaloxazine A (1), with an unprecedented symmetric spiro[oxazinane-piperazinedione] skeleton, consisting of 22 carbons and 12 heteroatoms, were isolated from a Pestalotiopsis sp. fungus derived from a soft coral. Separation of the enantiomeric alkaloid dimers was achieved by chiral HPLC. Their structures including absolute configurations were elucidated on the basis of a comprehensive analysis of their spectroscopic and X-ray diffraction data and CD calculations. (+)-Pestaloxazine A exhibited potent antiviral activity against EV71 with an IC50 value of 14.2 1.3 M, which was stronger than that of the positive control ribavirin (IC50 = 256.1 15.1 M)." ]
Given a question, retrieve Pubmed passages that answer the question
synthetic
what is the influence of green spaces on wellbeing for older adults
[ "Green spaces are known to improve health and wellbeing via several mechanisms, such as by reducing stress and facilitating physical activity. However, little is known about the impact of the smaller green spaces typically found in urban environments on wellbeing, especially for older adults. This study investigated experiences in adults (5 males and 10 females) aged 60 years and over of small urban green spaces in a large UK city. Fifteen older adults were interviewed using semi-structured walk-along interviews and photo elicitation methods in Old Moat, Greater Manchester. Twelve of the participants lived in Old Moat at the time of the study, and the remaining three participants previously lived in Old Moat and were frequent visitors. Transcribed interviews were analyzed using Thematic Analysis. Smaller urban green spaces were perceived differently to large green spaces, and participants were more likely to use larger green spaces such as parks. The smaller green spaces were perceived as belonging to other people, which discouraged the older adults from using them. The older adults also emphasized the importance of taking care of small urban green spaces and preventing them from becoming overgrown. Urban planners should consider these factors, since they indicate that the size and type of urban green spaces may influence whether they improve health and wellbeing. Further research should investigate in more detail which types of urban green space are most conducive to facilitating physical activity and improving wellbeing." ]
[ "Associations between parks and mental health have typically been investigated in relation to the presence or absence of mental illness. This study uses a validated measure of positive mental health and data from RESIDential Environments (RESIDE) Project to investigate the association between the presence, amount and attributes of public green space in new greenfield neighbourhood developments and the mental health of local residents (n = 492). Both the overall number and total area of public green spaces were significantly associated with greater mental wellbeing, and findings support a dose-response relationship. Positive mental health was not only associated with parks with a nature focus, but also with green spaces characterised by recreational and sporting activity. The study demonstrates that adequate provision of public green space in local neighbourhoods and within walking distance is important for positive mental health.", "Horticulture was shown to represent a well-being source for older adults, encompassing the physical, mental and social domains. Aim of this pilot study was to contribute to extant literature through the investigation of the quality of experience associated with horticultural versus occupational activities. A group of 11 older residents of a nursing home were involved in a crossover study with a baseline measure. Participants attended weekly horticultural and occupational sessions for two six-week cycles. Experience Sampling Method was administered before the program and after each session, to assess participants' levels of happiness, concentration, sociability, involvement, challenges and stakes, and self-satisfaction. Altogether, 332 self-report questionnaires were collected. Findings showed that participants' levels of the cognitive and motivational variables increased during both activities, but horticulture was also perceived as providing higher challenges and stakes, and improving self-satisfaction. Results can have practical implications for well-being promotion among older adults through meaningful activity engagement." ]
Given a question, retrieve Pubmed passages that answer the question
synthetic
how much does restylane cost
[ "As with any cosmetic treatment, the cost of Restylane® can vary greatly by region and physician. In general, however, the cost of Restylane® injections falls within most budgets, ranging from about $275 to $700. Restylane® is usually sold by the syringe, so the cost of Restylane® depends on the amount of gel that will be needed to achieve the desired results." ]
[ "the studies show that restylane effects generally last at least six months and gradually disappears from the body if you are treated again at 4 ½ or 9 months after your first treatment restylane can last up to 18 months in the nasolabial folds", "Depending on how large an area of your skin you’re having treated, Restylane injections can take from a few minutes to an hour. You can have the procedure during your lunch break and return to work or other routine activities immediately afterward.Pain and discomfort is generally minimal and well tolerated.estylane is very effective at improving the appearance of wrinkles and creases around the mouth and lips, as well as those under and around the eyes. It’s also used to gives lips more volume. The loss of lip volume that occurs with aging is a major concern for many people, particularly women." ]
Given a web search query, retrieve relevant passages that answer the query
msmarco