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You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is Mutation in p53 gene is associated with which malignancy? and explain in detail? | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Colorectal carcinoma -p53: Guardian of genome o p53 is a tumor suppressor gene. p53 gene is located on chromosome 17. p53 acts as molecular policeman o p-53 is the most common target for genetic alteration in human tumors; A little over 50% of human tumors contain mutation in this gene. o Non-mutated (wild type) p53 reduces the chances of cancer o Mutated form is associated with cancer. o P53 mutations associated with breast, colorectal, liver\ lung, and ovarian cancer. Page no 1017 Robbins 9th edition -Mutation in p53 gene is associated with with Endometrial carcinoma type 2 |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is Following are features of catatonic schizophrenia,except- and explain in detail? | None |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is The protozoan causing dysenteric symptoms: and explain in detail? | Balantidium coli is a ciliate protozoan. It is the largest protozoan parasite & only ciliate infecting humans. It inhabits the large intestine of man and causes ciliate dysentery. Infective stage: binucleate cyst; spherical, ellipsoid, 50-75mm, double layered cyst wall. The invasive form is the trophozoite - 80-120mm; two nuclei (macronucleus, micronucleus), peristome, cytostome, cytopharynx, cytopyge Entamoeba coli is the comensal of human intestine usually not associated with disease. Giardia cause malabsorption and steattorhea not dysentry Trichomonas cause genital tract infection |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is Treatment of choice in WPW syndrome patient having an alternate pathway with high-risk propeies? and explain in detail? | In Wolff-Parkinson-White patients with preexcitation who have symptoms of arrhythmia are at risk for developing atrial fibrillation and sudden death if they have an alternate pathway (AP) with high-risk propeies. An invasive electrophysiology study is warranted to determine if the AP is high enough risk to warrant potentially curative catheter ablation. Catheter ablation is warranted for recurrent arrhythmias when drugs are ineffective, not tolerated, or not desired by the patient or if the AP is considered high riskHarrison 19e pg: 1483 |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is Ramsay Hunt syndrome the cranial nerve involved is: and explain in detail? | None |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is Hampton's line is feature of and explain in detail? | 'Hampton's line' :- - is thin radiolucent line seen at the neck of a gastric ulcer in barium studies - it is seen in benign gastric ulcer - it's caused by thin line of mucosa overhaning ulcer's crater Hampton's line Carman Meniscus sign - (in Malignant gastric ulcer) Duodenal ulcer: - is associated with increased acid secretion caused by higher incidence of H.Pylori infection - duodenum is often deformed along its inferior margin - chronic gastric ulcer gives Trifoliate appearance |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is Compament syndrome is treated by and explain in detail? | A i.e. Fasciotomy |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is The following tests help in laboratory diagnosis of Kala-azar except- and explain in detail? | laboratory diagnosis of kala azar direct evidence peripheral blood smear Culture Bone marrow aspirations Splenic puncture Lymphnode aspirate Antigen detection Polymerase chain reaction Animal inoculation (Refer pgno:41 baveja 3 rd edition) |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is "All enzymes are not proteins." This statement is justified by: and explain in detail? | Ribozymes are RNA molecules with catalytic activities, which acts upon phosphodiester bonds in RNA & cause its hydrolysis lintron splicing event. RNAs are not protein, but meet all the classic criteria of enzymes therefore all enzymes are not protein |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is A 15-year-old boy presented with one day history of bleeding gums, subconjunctival bleed and purpuric rash. Investigations revealed the following results:
Hb-6.4 gm/dL
TLC-26,500/mm3; Platelet - 35,000 mm3
Prothrombin time-20 sec with a control of 13 sec
Partial thromboplastin time-50 sec and
Fibrinogen 10 mg/dl
Peripheral smear was suggestive of acute myeloblastic leukemia. Which of the following is the most likely? and explain in detail? | The child presented with acute onset of bleeding, along with the following laboratory findings:
Thrombocytopenia (35000/mm3 as compared to normal value of 1,50,000/mm3)
Increased prothrombin time (20s as compared to control of 13s)
Increased partial thromboplastin time (50s vs. normal 26-32s)
Decreased fibrinogen (10 mg/dL vs. normal of 233-496 mg/dl)
These hematological abnormalities indicate disseminated intravascular coagulation.
Most common form of AML associated with DIC is M3-AML (Acute promyelocytic leukemia). |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is All of the following are true in chest X ray PA view EXCEPT: and explain in detail? | Ans. (a) Right ventricle forms the right heart borderRef: Essential radiology 2nd ed. 122* Right ventricle is not a border forming structure in PA view. However, it forms anterior border in lateral view of Chest X-Ray. |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is Renshaw cell inhibition and explain in detail? | Neurons may also inhibit themselves in a negative feedback manner (negative feedback inhibition). For instance, a spinal motor neuron emits a recurrent collateral that synapses with an inhibitory interneuron, which then terminates on the cell body of the spinal neuron and other spinal motor neurons. This paicular inhibitory neuron is sometimes called a Renshaw cell after its discoverer. Impulses generated in the motor neuron activate the inhibitory interneuron to secrete the inhibitory neurotransmitter glycine, and this reduces or stops the discharge of the motor neuron. |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is A patient feels that his molar is extruded from the socket and is tender to percussion. This can be due to and explain in detail? | None |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is Vaccine which requires the most stringent conditions for storage and explain in detail? | Among the vaccines, polio is the most sensitive to heat, requiring storage at minus 20 degree Celsius. Vaccines which must be stored in the vaccine compaments are polio and measles. The cold chain is a system of storage and transpo of vaccines at low temperature from the manufacturer to the actual vaccination site (refer pgno:109 park 23 rd edition) |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is Cold urticaria and explain in detail? | Cold urticaria (essentially meaning cold hives) is a disorder in large red welts called hives (urticaria) form on the skin after exposure to a cold stimulus. The hives are usually itchy and often the hands and feet will become itchy and swollen as well. Hives vary in size from about 7 mm in diameter to as big as about 27 mm or larger.
This disorder, or perhaps two disorders with the same clinical manifestations, can be inherited (familial cold urticaria) or acquired (primary acquired cold urticaria). The acquired form is most likely to begin between ages 18 and 25, although it can occur as early as 5 years old in some cases. Life-threatening risks include suffocation resulting from swollen tissue (pharyngeal angioedema) induced by cold foods or beverages, drowning after shock from swimming in cold water, and anaphylactic shock.
Types
Cold urticaria may be divided into the following types:
Primary cold contact urticaria
Primary cold contact urticaria is a cutaneous condition characterized by wheals, and occurs in rainy, windy weather, and after swimming in cold water and after contact with cold objects, including ice cubes.
Secondary cold contact urticaria
Secondary cold contact urticaria is a cutaneous condition characterized by wheals, due to serum abnormalities such as cryoglobulinemia or cryofibrinogenemia are extremely rare, and are then associated with other manifestations such as Raynauds phenomenon or purpura.
Reflex cold urticaria
Reflex cold urticaria is a cutaneous condition in which generalized cooling of the body induces widespread welting.
Familial cold urticaria
Familial cold urticaria (also properly known as familial cold autoinflammatory syndrome, FCAS) is an autosomal dominant condition characterized by rash, conjunctivitis, fever/chills and arthralgias elicited by exposure to cold - sometimes temperatures below 22 °C (72 °F).It has been mapped to CIAS1 and is a slightly milder member of the disease family including Muckle–Wells syndrome and NOMID. It is rare and is estimated as having a prevalence of 1 per million people and mainly affects Americans and Europeans.FCAS is one of the cryopyrin-associated periodic syndromes (CAPS) caused by mutations in the CIAS1/NALP3 (aka NLRP3) gene at location 1q44.The effect of FCAS on the quality of life of patients is far reaching. A survey of patients in the United States in 2008 found that "[t]o cope with their underlying disease and to try to avoid symptomatic, painful, flares patients reported limiting their work, school, family, and social activities. Seventy-eight percent of survey participants described an impact of the disease on their work, including absenteeism and impaired job advancement; frequently, they quit their job as a consequence of their disease".Treatment using anakinra (Kineret) has been shown effective for FCAS, although this does mean daily injections of the immunosuppressant into an area such as the lower abdomen. The monoclonal antibody canakinumab (Ilaris) is also used.
Signs and symptoms
When the body is exposed to the cold in individuals affected by the condition, hives appear and the skin in the affected area typically becomes itchy. Hives result from dilation of capillaries which allow fluid to flow out into the surrounding tissue which is the epidermis. They resolve when the body absorbs this fluid. The border of a hive is described as polycyclic, or made up of many circles, and changes as fluid leaks out and then is absorbed. Pressing on a hive causes the skin to blanch (turn pale as blood flow is interrupted), distinguishing it from a bruise or papule.
Hives may appear immediately or after a delay. Hives can last for a few minutes or a few days, and vary from person to person. Also, a burning sensation occurs. A serious reaction is most likely to occur for patients where the hives occur with less than 3 minutes of exposure (during a cold test).
Cause
The hives are a histamine reaction in response to cold stimuli, including a drastic drop in temperature, cold air, and cold water. There are many causes for cold hives, most are idiopathic (meaning they have no known cause). Some rare conditions can cause cold hives, and it can be useful to test for these conditions if the cold hives are in any way unusual.
Scientists from the USA National Institutes of Health have identified a genetic mutation in three unrelated families that causes a rare immune disorder characterized by excessive and impaired immune function: immune deficiency, autoimmunity, inflammatory skin disorders and cold-induced hives (cold urticaria).
"The mutation discovered occurs in a gene for phospholipase C-gamma2 (PLCG2), an enzyme involved in the activation of immune cells. The investigators have named the condition PLCG2-associated antibody deficiency and immune dysregulation, or PLAID."
Diagnosis
Diagnosis is typically obtained by an allergist or other licensed practitioner performing a cold test. During the cold test, a piece of ice is placed inside a thin plastic bag and held against the forearm, typically for 3–4 minutes. A positive result is a specific looking mark of raised red hives. The hives may be the shape of the ice, or it may radiate from the contact area of the ice. However, while these techniques assist in diagnosis, they do not provide information about temperature and stimulation time thresholds at which patients will start to develop symptoms, which is essential because it can establish disease severity and monitor the effectiveness of treatment.
Management
Management largely consists of avoiding exposures that could trigger a reaction and taking medicine to manage the reaction |