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135
533d29aa-ae81-473a-8120-1771e0b0dd5f
Unmet need for contraception in a 35 years female is for ?
Spacing bih
Limiting bih
Improve maternal health
Improve family health
1b
single
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Limiting bih Many women who are sexually active would prefer to avoid pregnancy, but neveheless are not using any method of contraception.These women are considered to have 'unmet need' for family planning.The concept is usually applied to married women.According to the National Family Health Survey-3, Unmet need for family planning is highest (27.1%) among women below 20 years age and is almost entirely for spacing the bihs rather than for limiting the bihs.It is also relatively high for women in age group 20-24 years (21-1%) with 75% need for spacing and 25% for limiting the bih.Unmet need for contraception among women aged 30 years and above are mostly for limiting
Social & Preventive Medicine
null
d9dbf255-f646-4fb9-bb22-a3d1657e00bb
While shaving, a 45-year-old teacher notices a marble-sized mass beneath his left ear. The mass is eventually excised, revealing which of the following benign parotid gland lesions?
Glandular hyperophy, secondary to vitamin A deficiency
Cystic dilation
Mikulicz's disease
Wahin's tumor
3d
multi
Papillary cystadenoma lymphomatosum /Wahin's tumor/Adenolymphoma Exclusively seen in parotid gland Derived from salivary tissue inclusion in lymph node More common in males Associated with smoking Only tumor to show hot spot on TC99m-Peecnate Histopathology Papillary cystic pattern lined with columnar oncocytes and cuboidal cells with marked lymphoid component. Lined by a double layer of neoplastic epithelial cells resting on a dense lymphoid stroma sometimes bearing germinal centers =Mikulicz's disease involves chronic inflammation and swelling of the salivary glands, which is benign and usually painless
Surgery
Salivary Glands
e90c3e9c-ca17-40c4-95e6-cbfca88fcc9a
Substrate for gluconeogenesis include?
Glycerol
Leucine
Fatty acids
Acetyl CoA
0a
single
Only 5 amino acids are both glucogenic and ketogenic. Mnemonic - TTT I P Both glucogenic and ketogenic amino acids: Tryptophan Tyrosine Threonine, Isoleucine, Phenylalanine Note: there is a controversy regarding Lysine, some book says it is purely ketogenic some say it is both Ketogenic and glucogenic serine is only glucogenic amino acid.
Biochemistry
Classification and metabolism of amino acids
dc4a9e0f-7e84-40c9-ab1d-fc1bdb18b25c
Langerhans cells in skin are
Antigen presenting cells
Pigment producing cells
Keratin synthesising cells
Sensory neurons
0a
single
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Antigen presenting cells
Microbiology
null
858f2bda-6f1f-4046-8e37-74d07bbd4469
Black eye is a type of-
Patterend abrasion
Ectopic abrasion
Ectopic bruise
Friction abrasion
2c
single
Ans. is 'c' i.e., Ectopic bruise [Ref: Reddy 30th/ep. 167-168\o Site of bruise is at the site of impact most of the time however it may be away from the site of impact due to gravity shifting of blood, i.e., ectopic bruise. So, site of bruise does not always indicate site of violencet.o Example of ectopic bruise are : -Black eye (or spectacle hematoma in eyes & eyelids) may be due to fracture of floor of anterior cranial fossa or trauma of forehead (and rarely due to direct trauma),Bruise behind ear indicates basal fracture (rather than a direct blow).Jaw fracture may produce bruise in neck; fracture pelvis my produce bruise in thigh; fracture femur may produce bruise in lowrer thigh or above knee; Calf injury may produce bruise in ankle.
Forensic Medicine
Injuries by Blunt Force
b9e8b009-e41b-4a4d-a800-1518aa31810d
Ideally Dentist population ration should be
5.597222222
1:10000
1:20000
1:40000
2c
multi
null
Dental
null
d94eeaad-b0ad-453d-a2c2-dbe5cd4b11f7
Tongue develops from which branchial arches?
I, II, IV
I, II, III
I, III, IV
I, II, III, IV
3d
single
null
Anatomy
null
dc001cab-d553-4ab2-8a47-9ee239eb12b7
Umbilical cord attached to the margin of placenta:
Circumvallate placenta
Battledore placenta
Velamentous insertion
Vasa previa
1b
multi
Ans. (b) Battledore placentaRef. William's Obstetrics 23rd ed. Ch: 27* Normally, the cord usually is inserted at or near the center of the fetal surface of the placenta.* Cord insertion at the placental margin is sometimes referred to as a Battledore placenta. It is found in about 7% of term placentas.* Velamentous insertion: This type of insertion is of considerable clinical importance. The umbilical vessels spread within the membranes at a distance from the placental margin, which they reach surrounded only by a fold of amnion. As a result, vessels are vulnerable to compression, which may lead to fetal anoxia. Incidence: 1%
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
Abortion
4e3de300-758d-4e5b-8105-f5d2d594724b
Cataracts in a newborn is:
Zonular
Nuclear
Snowflake
Cortical
0a
single
a zonular refkhurana 3rd/e p. 187
Ophthalmology
Lens
8556e900-e3b6-44a9-a4fd-d94867491a26
The causative agent of Lyme's disease:
Borrelia burgdorferi
Borrelia recurrentis
Leptospira icterohemorrhagiae
Clostridium difficile
0a
single
Borrelia burgdorferi
Microbiology
null
71f44cd9-e1a7-4614-a954-e78a73e718e1
A patient presented with vomiting and ataxia. There were oxalate crystals in the urine. The patient was given ethanol and 4 methyl pyrazole for treatment. The likely diagnosis of the patient was?
Methanol poisoning
Ethanol poisoning
Ethylene glycol poisoning
Diazepam poisoning
2c
single
Ans. (C) Ethylene glycol poisoning(Ref: Harrison 19/e p319)Symptoms of alcohol overdose along with oxalate crystalluria points towards ethylene glycol poisoning. It is confirmed because the patient is being treated with antidotes like ethanol and fomepizol (4 methyl pyrazole).
Pharmacology
Opioids
c177181b-8569-47a7-9bc8-794167a5de49
Loeffler's syndrome is seen with all except :
>Toxocara
>Strongyloides stercoralisL. tryptophan
>Giardiasis
Giardiasis
3d
multi
Giardiasis Pulmonary diseases associated with tissue or blood eosinophilia are a heterogenous group of disorders. They are classified as : Loeffler's syndrome It is a benign acute eosinophilic pneumonia of unknown cause characterized by migrating pulmonary infiltrates and minimal clinical manifestations. These are usually secondary to parasites or drugs. Loeffler's syndrome reflects a hypersensitive response to an ingested or inhaled antigen from food, medication or an infectious agent. Causes of Loeffler's syndrome Parasitic infections Ascaris Schistosomiasis Strongyloides Ancyclostomiasis Trichomoniasis Clonorchiasis Visceral larva migrans Tapeworm Paragonimiasis
Microbiology
null
28c4628b-0e78-4fbc-88f2-307488d1c36b
Which of the following muscles elevates the mandible?
Buccinator
Temporalis
Caninus
Lateral pterygoid
1b
single
null
Anatomy
null
498a7a61-6899-4e29-960e-0824f76542ad
A 60-year-old woman presents with symptoms of weight loss, anxiety, and palpitations. On examination, she has a thyroid goiter. Which of the following is the most likely cardiac finding?
prolonged circulation time
decreased cardiac output
paroxysmal atrial fibrillation
pericardial effusion
2c
single
Thyroid disease may affect the heart muscle directly or there may be excessive sympathetic stimulation. Common symptoms of thyrotoxic heart disease include palpitations, exertional dyspnea, and worsening angina. Atrial fibrillation is particularly common in older individuals.
Medicine
C.V.S.
fc690b3b-cf20-4f32-91cb-aa396ad9ffb8
Pedigree analysis - Analyze the following pedigree and give the mode of inheritance ?
Autosomal recessive
Autosomal dominant
Mitochondrial inheritance
X linked dominant
2c
single
Ans. is 'c' i.e., Mitochondrial inheritance i) Disease is manifesting in both males and females. ii) But, the disease is transmitting to next generation only by females (mother). Both these are characteristics of mitochondrial diseases. Mitochondrial diseaes o Mitochondria' DNA is the only non-chromosomal DNA in human cells DNA in humans may be found either in the Nucleus (Nuclear DNA) or in the Mitochondria (Organelle DNA) o Mitochondria' DNA,is always maternally inherited. Mitochondrial and nuclear DNA are located in different places in the cell. During feilization, the sperm and egg cell nuclei fuse to form an embryo. The egg cell is very large compared to the sperm, so although the cells' nuclei fuse, the rest of the cell mass in the embryo comes from the egg only. Nuclear DNA is therefore co-inherited but the mitochondrial DNA, which is located outside of the nucleus, is always maternally inherited because all mitochondria in a foetus and later adult are derived from the mitochondria in the mother's egg. All children from affected mother will inherit the disease but it will not be transmitted from an affected father to his children.-
Pediatrics
null
ff7f214f-d0ce-4b03-bcc3-aad739727d26
Term cafe coronary was coined by -
Roger Haugen
J. Morton
NeilMarkson
M.Hoppefield
0a
single
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Roger Haugen "A popular term 'cafe coronary * was coined by Dr. Roger Haugen, Medical Examiner of Broward County, Florida for such impaction of food in the respiratory passage ".-- Krishan Vij
Forensic Medicine
Misc.
0e14ecf1-fc0d-47c1-8939-ed1bdcef3c2c
Demyelinating disorder among the following is
Multiple sclerosis
Typhoid
Cholera
All
0a
multi
Multiple sclerosis is a autoimmune disorder It leads to demyelination of myelinated nervefibers Ref:Guyton and Hall textbook of medical physiology 12th edition,page number:72,73
Anatomy
General anatomy
84ed7fcd-ee25-4b49-b01e-e2c9db2bd3a2
IL1 antagonist is -
Anakinra
Abatacept
Adalimumab
Leflunomide
0a
single
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Anakinra Drugs used for Rheumatoid arthritisDisease modifying antirheumatic drugs (DMARDs)Biologic response modifier (BRMs)Adjuvant drugs1. Immunosuppresants - Methotrexate, azathioprine, cyclosporine2. Sulfasalazine3. Choloroquine or hydroxychloroquine4. Leflunomide5. Gold sod. thiomalate, Auranofin6. d - Penicillamineo TNF a - inhibitors Etanercept, Infliximab, Adalimumabo IL-1 antagonist Anakinrao CorticosteroidsNote- Other immunosuppressants like cyclosporine, chlorambucil, cyclophosphomide are reserved for cases not responding to other DMARDs.
Pharmacology
Immunomodulator
462f3921-fa1d-4251-b741-2e6560cd9f15
Direct filling gold formed by electrolytic precipitation is called by all the terms, EXCEPT:
Crystalline gold
Granular gold
Mat gold
Sponge gold
1b
multi
Electrolytic Precipitate Gold Another form of direct filling gold is microcrystalline gold powder formed by electrolytic precipitation, which is sandwiched between sheets of gold foil and formed into strips. It is also called mat or sponge gold. Granular (Powdered) Gold Gold powders in agglomerated form can also be prepared by chemical precipitation or atomization from molten gold. Direct filling gold is supplied in three basic forms: Foil (also known as fibrous gold) Electrolytic precipitate (also called crystalline gold) Granular gold (also called powdered gold) Phillips 12 Ed, page no. 413
Dental
null
d5a87c4f-e16b-49d9-a4d2-cead5773e7ee
Predominant blood supply to the supraduodenal bile duct is from vessels:
Which run upward from the major vessels located near the lower pa of bile duct such as the gastroduodenal and retro duodenal aery
Which run downward along the bile duct from right hepatic aery
That arise from hepatic aery proper as it carries up along the common bile duct and supplies it with twigs in a non-axial distribution
That run from cystic aery
0a
single
Approximately 60% of the blood supply to the supraduodenal bile duct originates from the pancreaticoduodenal and retroduodenal aeries, whereas 38% of the blood supply originates from the right hepatic aery and cystic duct aery and 2 percent is non-axial.Ref: Gray's Anatomy (40th Edition), Pages 1177, 1185; Essentials of Human Anatomy A.K.Datta 8th Edition, Page 259
Anatomy
null
a09c2aa3-f5f1-4c8f-b2a8-303606082514
The commonest gastric polyp is -
Hyperplastic polyp
Inflammatory polyp
Adenomatous polyp
Part of familial polyposis
0a
single
null
Surgery
null
11f72356-c59c-4f43-a667-596e08b270f5
Which of the following is not involved in intrinsic pathway?
Factor XII
Factor XI
Factor IX
Factor VII
3d
single
Factor VII is required for the activation of Factor X in extrinsic pathway Ref: Ganong's Review of Medical Physiology Twenty-Third Edition Page No:533
Physiology
Cardiovascular system
ed61802c-f45f-439f-b718-ba40d08c79bb
General feility rate is a better measure of feility than the crude bih rate because the denominator includes
15 - 45 years of aged females
Midyear population
Total women population
Married women population
0a
single
General feility rate is the number of live bihs per 1000 women in the reproductive are group ( 15-44 or 49 years) in a given year GFR = number of live bih in an area during the year X 1000/ mid year female population age group 15-44 (or 49) in the same area in same year General feility rate is a better measure of feility than the crude bih rate because the denominator includes the number of women in the child bearing age rather than the whole population Reference : Park&;s textbook of preventive and social medicine, 23rd edition, Page no: 488
Social & Preventive Medicine
Demography and family planning
dbc3c190-1406-46cc-a5bf-d91d4a4fb320
Not a feature of Hartnup's disease:
Pellagroid skin lesion
Cerebellar ataxia
Mental retardation
Psychological disturbances
2c
single
c. Mental retardation(Ref: Nelson's 20/e p 636-642, Ghai 8/e p 653-655)Clinical features of Hartnup disease:Most children with Hartnup defect remain asymptomaticMajor clinical manifestation in symptomatic patient is cutaneous photosensitivity: pellagra-like rash on sun exposureSome patients may have intermittent ataxia & Psychological disturbances, but mental development is usually normal.
Pediatrics
Inborn Errors of Metabolism
92f196ac-38d1-4c7a-a105-1e81ee9771cb
A 65-year-old chronic smoker presents with a rapidly enlarging large hilar mass on a chest film associated with significant adenopathy. He also experiences recurrent hypoglycemic spells these days. A provisional diagnosis of Lung carcinoma being considered which of the following subtype will most commonly lead to this spectrum?
Squamous cell carcinoma
Adenocarcinoma
Large cell carcinoma
Small cell tumour
3d
multi
Small cell - Mediastinal adenopathy, - Hilar mass, - Small or invisibleftlung nodule, - High metastatic potential, - Rapid growth. - May be associated with Hypoglycemia, Cushing's syndrome, Inappropriate secretion of ADH, excessive gonadotropin secretion.
Physiology
All India exam
3d6b9b3f-4cc9-4124-b3b9-5a277cafa472
Which is not a feature of non cirrhotic poal HT?
Ascites
Hematemesis
Splenomegaly
All are seen
0a
multi
.
Pathology
All India exam
72a47942-3629-4c23-8eb8-b019611b3578
Giardiasis is best diagnosed by:
CFT
Presence of both cysts and trophozoites in stools
Presence of cysts only
Haemaglutination
1b
multi
Presence of both cysts and trophozoites in stools
Microbiology
null
8e945d84-4300-492e-afe2-abc8eb94978d
Biopsy of the parotid gland in Sjogren’s shows:
Neutrophils
Eosinophils
Basophils
Lymphocytes
3d
single
"The earliest histologic finding in both the major and the minor salivary glands is periductal and perivascular lymphocytic infiltration." (Ref: Robbins) Sjogren Syndrome It is an immune-mediated destruction of the lacrimal and salivary glands characterized by dry eyes {keratoconjunctivitis sicca) and dry mouth (xerostomia) It occurs as an isolated disorder (primary form), also known as the sicca syndrome, or more often in association with another autoimmune disease (secondary form). Associated diseases Rheumatoid Arthritis (Me) SLE Polymyositis Systemic sclerosis Vasculitis Thyroiditis The ductal epithelial cells of the exocrine glands are the primary target for autoantibodies. There is also systemic B-cell hyperactivity, as evidenced by the presence of ANAs and RF. Autoantibodies to the RNP antigens SS-A (Ro) and SS-B (La) (also present in SLE) Other secretory glands like nasopharynx, upper airway, and vagina, may also be involved Involved tissues show an intense lymphocyte (primarily activated CD4+ T cells) and plasma cell infiltrate. Lacrimal gland destruction results in a lack of tears, leading to drying of the corneal epithelium, with subsequent inflammation, erosion, and ulceration (keratoconjunctivitis). Similar changes may occur in the oral mucosa as a result of the loss of salivary gland output, giving rise to mucosal atrophy, with inflammatory Assuring and ulceration (xerostomia). Dryness and crusting of the nose may lead to ulcerations and even perforation of the nasal septum. When the respiratory passages are involved, secondary laryngitis, bronchitis, and pneumonitis may appear. Approximately 25% of the patients (especially those with anti-SS-A antibodies) develop extra-glandular disease affecting the CNS, skin, kidneys, and muscles. Renal lesions take the form of mild interstitial nephritis associated with tubular transport defects: Unlike in SLE. glomerulonephritis is rare. 90% of cases occur in women between 35 and 45 years Extraglandular manifestations include synovitis, pulmonary fibrosis, and peripheral neuropathy. There is a 40-fold increased risk of developing non-Hodgkin B-cell lymphoma.
Pathology
null
be631359-fec9-4679-a547-17af77ae61a7
The disease for which vaccination ceificate is required for international travel is -
Cholera
Hepatitis
Yellow fever
Tetanus
2c
single
All travellers including infants exposed to the risk of yellow fever or passing through an endemic zones of yellow fever should possess a valid international ceificate of vaccination against yello fever before they are allowed to enter yellow fever receptive areas. Reference; Park&;s Textbook of preventive and social medicine, 24th edition.Pg no. 301
Social & Preventive Medicine
Communicable diseases
de894dbd-c6d5-49fb-a648-ad2168104f4d
24 hours after fever, maculopapular rash and erythema appears on the face of infant. This organism can also cause
ALL
CML
Pure red cell aplasia
Hairy cell leukemia
2c
multi
It’s caused by Parvo B19 virus, and it causes the following diseases Erythema infectiosum Fifth disease. Slapped cheek appearances. Arthropathy. Transient Aplastic crisis. Hydrops fetalis (most sensitive period 2nd trimester) Myocarditis. PPGSS Papular - Purpuric Gloves & Stock Syndrome.   Transient Aplastic Crisis The transient arrest of erythropoiesis and absolute reticulocytopenia. RBC aplasia or transient aplastic crisis in patients with chronic hemolytic conditions, including: Sickle cell disease. Thalassemia. Hereditary spherocytosis. Pyruvate kinase deficiency. In contrast to children with erythema infectiosum only, patients with aplastic crisis are ill with fever, malaise, and lethargy and have signs and symptoms of profound anemia, including pallor, tachycardia and tachypnea. The incubation period tor transient aplastic crisis is shorter than that for erythema infectiosum because the crisis occurs coincident with the viremia. Children with sickle cell disease may also have a concurrent vasoocclusive pain crisis.
Unknown
null
f8326564-efdc-4101-9458-c619df9a03a9
Cementum is primarily
Amorphous
Organic
Inorganic
Soft tissue
2c
single
null
Dental
null
f3853730-b776-4d1a-b5bb-79acbd7c19aa
Which of the following is not a bronchodilator
Beta 2 agonist
Methylxanthines
Steroids
Anticholinergics
2c
single
Classification: bronchodilators: beta 2 agonists anticholinergics and methylxanthines like caffeine and theophylline ref KD Tripathi 8th ed
Pharmacology
Respiratory system
9cbc1d25-945b-4668-845e-9f12595dc681
Difference between contusion and post-moem lividity is that post-moem lividity-
Shows sequential color change
Easily washable
Shows diffuse irregular margins
Has raised enzyme levels
1b
single
The synopsis of forensic medicine & toxicology;Dr k.s narayan reddy; 28th edition;pg.no. 88; Contusion or bruises are not washable but postmoem lividity is washable. Also refer page no.106
Forensic Medicine
Mechanical injuries
3837875e-2eac-4904-af61-61ac9ee459f5
Fomepizole acts as antidote for ?
Methanol poisoning
Cannabis poisoning
Lead poisoning
Cadmium Poisoning
0a
single
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Methanol poisoning Methanol is highly toxic alcohol. It is metabolized to formaldehyde (by alcohol dehydrogenas) and formic acid (by acetaldehyde dehydrogenase). It is the accumulation of formic acid which causes toxic effects in methanol poisoning. Accumulation of formic acid results in lactic acidosis/high anion gap metabolic acidosis with low plasma bicarbonates, blindness due to retinal damage, papilledema. Methanol poisoning can be treated by suppoive measures, gastric lavage and sodium bicarbonate (to treat acidosis). Ethanol is useful because it competitively inhibits the conversion of methanol to formic acid. Fomepizole can also be used as it is a specific inhibitor of alcohol dehydrogenase. Folic acid or folinic acid. Enhance the metabolism formic acid to CO2. Hemodialysis may also be used.
Pharmacology
null
cc5c8086-8a24-4dcb-9202-24f929fcdfa4
Chancroid is caused by?
H. Ducrei
N. Gonnorrea
T. Pallidum
H. Influenza
0a
multi
Ans:A.)H. Ducrei CHANCROID (SOFT SORE) This venereal infection is caused by the Gram-negative bacillus Haemophilus ducreyi. One to 5 days post-infection, a soft sloughy ulcer appears on the penis or vulva. The treatment of choice is erythromycin (500 mg 6-hourly for 14 days).
Skin
null
8c2a6208-86a2-48f7-969b-a5b04b9bedce
Blue daper syndrome is associated with
Tryptophan malabsorption
Tryptophan hyperabsorption
Tyrosine malabsorption
Tyrosine hyperabsorption
0a
single
null
Biochemistry
null
f8fbb990-f838-4b99-8978-552096725a83
Pentavalent immunoglobin is -
IgA
IgG
IgM
IgE
2c
single
Ans. is 'c' i.e., IgiMValency of antibodyo The valency of antibody refers to the number of antigenic determinants that an individual antibody molecule can bind.o The valency of all antibodies is at least two and in some instances more.AntibodyValencyIgG2IgA2,4IgM10IgD2IgE2Though the theoretical valency of Ig M is ten, this is observed only with small haptens. With larger antigens, the effective valency falls to five, probably due to steric hindrance. Physical, chemical, and Biologic Properties of Human ImmunoglobulinsPropertyIgGIgAIgMIgDIgEUsual molecular formMonomerMonomer, dimerPentamer, hexamerMonomerMonomerOther chainsNoneJ chain, SCJ chainNoneNoneSubclassesG1G2, G3, G4Al, A2NoneNoneNoneHeavy chain allotypesGm (=30)No Al, A2m (2)NoneNoneNoneMolecular mass, kDa150160, 400950, 1150175190Sedimentation constant, Sw206.6S7S, 11S19S7S8SCarbohydrate content, %3710913Serum level in average adult, mg/mL9.5-12.51.5-2.60.7-3.70.040.0003Percentage of total serum Ig75-857-155-100.30.019Serum half-life, days236532.5Synthesis rate, mg'kg per day3 365'0.40.016Antibody valency22, 430, 12O Classical complement activation+ (G1, 2?, 3)----Alternate complement activation-(G4)+-+-Binding cells via FcMacrophages neutrophils, large granular lymphocytesLymphocytesLymphocytesNoneMast cells, basophils, B cellsBiologic propertiesPlacental transfer, secondary Ab for most antipathogen responsesSecretory immunoglobulinPrimary Ab responsesMarker for mature B-cellsAllergy, antipaTasite responses
Microbiology
Immunology
3e037a56-18d3-4a0c-a4bc-c41a21d18aa5
BCR ABL gene mutation is seen in ?
CML
AML
CLL
ALL
0a
multi
ANSWER: (A) CMLREF: Robbins 7th ed p. 697BCR gene on chromosome 9 gets translocated to ABL gene on chromosome 22 leading to the formation of a fusion protein with a tyrosine kinase activity.
Unknown
null
d70c4174-b6c6-47ee-9f2d-eaa96feb9ece
T helper cells recognizes -
MHC class I
MHC class II
Processed peptides
Surface Ig
1b
single
MHC restriction T cells (in contrast to B cells) cannot be activated by soluble antigens. Therefore, presentation of processed antigen by antigen presenting cells is required for induction of cell mediated immunity. T cell receptors recognizes peptide antigens that are displayed by major histo compatibility complex (MHC) molecules on the surface of antigen presenting cells. T cells develop MHC restriction so that :- Helper (CD4) T cells respond only to foreign antigens presented along with HLA class II (MHC class II). CD8 T cells respond to antigens presented along with HLA class I (MHC class I). MHC restriction refers to the fact that a given T cell will recognize a peptide antigen only when it is bound to a particular MHC molecule.
Microbiology
null
25bc3186-87e9-49ac-a35f-23ab56d52254
Most sensitive test for detection of argemone oil?
Nitric acid test
Paper chromatography
Phosphatase test
Methylene blue test
1b
single
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Paper chromatography o Paper chromatography is the most sensitive test. o Note : In previous question, paper chromatography was not there in options, therefore the answer was nitric acid test.
Social & Preventive Medicine
null
cd93687c-75fd-4616-aba8-dac5297319b2
Prostaglandin inhibiting action of Aspirin is useful in the treatment of all of the following conditions except
Analgesia and antipyresis
Closure of ductus aeriosus
Uricosuria
Anti-inflammatory and antiplatelet aggregation
2c
multi
Inhibition of prostaglandin synthesis is responsible for analgesia, antipyretic, anti-inflammatory and antiplatelet action of aspirin. this action is also utilised in the treatment of PDA. high doses of Aspirin causes uricosuria various therapeutic doses result in hyperuricemia these effects are and related to its action on prostaglandin synthesis Ref kdt 6/e p188
Anatomy
General anatomy
e6998cf5-3304-4583-85b3-bcd046bba191
Dermatological sign of carcinoma stomach is?
Palmoplantar keratoderma
Acquired ichthyosis
Acanthosis Nigrans
Acrokeratosis paraneopiastica
2c
single
ANSWER: (C) Acanthosis NigransREF: Fitz Patricks Dermatology 6th Edition Page 1612, Harrison's 18th ed chapter 53Indirect repeat Dermatology 2008,2003 (See table of TYPES AND CAUSES OF ACANTHOSIS NIGRICANS) 8t Surgery June 2009
Unknown
null
65917ca5-e31f-4fe3-a35c-a5e5377885b1
Which one of the following statements best describe pseudoaneurysm
Focal dilation of vessel in which intimal and medial layers are disrupted and the dilated segment is lined by adventitia
Focal dilation of a vessel only involving one poion of the circumference
Apparent dilation of a vessel due to intrinsic narrowing proximal and distal to the point of apparent narrowing
Dilation of a vessel, though not to the size necessary to be diagnosed as a true aneurysm
0a
multi
Pseudoaneurysm Wall is not formed by all the three layers Pseudoaneurysms can arise from Primary defects in the aoic wall (e.g -After trauma or contained aneurysm rupture) Anastomotic or cannulation site leaks that occur after cardiovascular surgery. Anastomotic pseudoaneurysms can be caused by Technical problems Deterioration of the native aoic tissue, graft material, or suture. Associated with Marfan syndrome, Loeys-Dietz syndrome Progressive degenerative disease Infection. Saccular aneurysm: affect only one pa of aerial circumference
Surgery
Aerial disorders
3a4924cf-c71b-4501-9741-739a882e42b9
'Brush burn' is
An abrasion
Electric bum
Chemical bum
Contusion
0a
single
Ans. a (An abrasion) (Ref. FMT by Reddy. 27th/ Pg. 145 & FMT by Krishan Vij 4th/Pg. 282-283).# An abrasion (or a graze) is a superficial injury involving only the outer layers of the skin and not penetrating the full thickness of the epidermis.# A graze is an injury, which is produced when a broad surface of the skin slides or scrapes against a rough surface.# It is also k/a 'brush burn' as it is caused by the frictional force of rubbing against a surface causes it; resembles a bum.ABRASIONS (GRAZES, SCRATCHES, BRUSH BURNS)# Loss/crushing of outer skin layer due to impact with a rough surface- Tangential impact produces a moving abrasion:# Indicates direction.# Trace material (e.g., grit).- Direct impact produces an imprint abrasion:# Pattern of causative object.# All abrasions reflect site of impact (contrast bruises).# Assessment of age difficult.# Postmortem abrasion - Brown, leathery.- Patterned Abrasions:o Patterned abrasions occur when the force is applied at or around right angle to the surface of skin. The classical example of this is seen in traffic accidents when tyre of a motor car passes over the skin leaving the pattern when the skin has been squeezed into the grooves of the rubber thread.- Pressure Abrasions (Crushing Abrasions / Imprint Abrasions):o When the impact is vertical to the skin surface, the epidermis gets crushed and pressure type of abrasions result and the imprint of the impacting object may be produced. These may be seen in manual strangulation (abrasions produced by fingernails) and in hanging, where weave of the ligature material may be reproduced.
Forensic Medicine
Injuries by Blunt Force
61c5b173-b4f5-4f85-bae9-e71d5daaae2d
Characteristic feature of nephritic syndrome in children -
Lipid casts in urine
WBC casts in urine
RBC casts in urine
Albumin in urine
2c
single
Ans. is 'c' i.e., RBC casts in urine Acute nephritic syndrome o Nephritic syndrome is a collection of signs associated with disorders affecting the kidneys, more specifically glomerular disorders and is characterized by haematuria, protenuria, hypeension, edema and oliguria. 1. Haematuria The haematuria is slight giving the urine smok appearance. Erythrocytes are detectable by microscopy or by chemical testing for hemoglobin. Presence of RBC casts in urine is classical feature of nephritic syndrome. 2. Proteinuria Proteinuria is mild (< 3 gm/day) also called nephritic range proteinuria or subnephrotic range proteinuria. Proteinuria is nonselective. Edema --> Usually mild and results from sodium and water retention. Liguria --> Reflects the severity of glomerular involvement. Note ? Edema and proteinuria are not as severe as in nephrotic syndrome.
Pediatrics
null
30733200-5657-4c6d-b0dd-c77b8388afe0
A 24-year old woman notices increasing shortness of breath after recent treatment for right lower lobe pneumonia. She has no fever, cough, or sputum production. On examination, the pertinent findings are decreased fremitus, dullness on percussion, and absent breath sounds of the right lower lung. In addition, the trachea has shifted to the left.For the above patient with abnormal pulmonary physical findings, select the most likely diagnosis.
acute asthmatic attack
complete pneumothorax
large pleural effusion
atelectasis
2c
multi
Careful physical examination can be very useful in diagnosing many common pulmonary disorders. Atelectasis and large pleural effusions both can present with decreased fremitus, dullness or flatness to percussion, and absent breath sounds. In atelectasis, tracheal shift, if present, is toward the affected side, and the opposite for a large pleural effusion. Asthma's most typical manifestations are prolonged expiration and diffuse wheezing. However, impaired expansion, decreased fremitus, hyperresonance, and low diaphragms can also be found. A complete pneumothorax results in absent fremitus, hyperresonance or tympany, and absent breath sounds. Lobar pneumonia is characterized by consolidation with increased fremitus, dullness, and auscultatory findings of bronchial breathing, bronchophony, pectoriloquy, and crackles.
Medicine
Respiratory
67c7cfaf-92b0-4a73-b5ed-f40706303bf0
6 years old girl with vaginal spotting. Diagnosis is –
Ovarian cancer
Foreign body
Sexual abuse
PID
1b
single
A foreign body is commonly responsible for vaginal bleeding in pediatric patients.
Pediatrics
null
85e668dd-1745-4551-b067-07530de468e3
McNaughton's rule is related to:
IPC 82
IPC 84
IPC 87
IPC 85
1b
single
- Mc Naughton's rule is related to Criminal responsibility of Insane person - Sec. 84 IPC also deals with the Criminal responsibility of Insane person Section 84 IPC embodies McNaughton rules as follows: "Nothing is an offence which is done by a person who, at the time of doing it, by reason of unsoundness of mind, is incapable of knowing the nature of the act or that he is doing what is either wrong or contrary to the law."
Forensic Medicine
FMGE 2019
559f2623-e217-473b-9119-6638df93c6ac
How many vascular segments are present in each kidney?
3
4
5
6
2c
single
Ans. is 'c' i.e., 5o Renal artery Right renal artery is longer and passes behind I VC. Renal artery divides into : -Posterior division :- Supplies posterior segment.Anterior division :-Divides further into 4 branches to supply apical, upper anterior, middle anterior and lower segments.o Thus, there are five vascular segments in each kidney Posterior, apical, upper anterior, middle anterior and lower.o Branches of renal artery are end arteries.
Anatomy
KUB & Adrenal Gland
f70f5f9a-8ce6-4d59-a745-0209fba667f3
Why are rounded internal line angles desirable in the preparation of amalgam restorations in primary teeth?
They increase retention
They conserve tooth structure
They increase resistance
They decreases internal stresses in the restorative material
3d
single
They decreases internal stresses in the restorative material. Due to the small size of primary molars and, therefore, small restorations as well, it is helpful to reduce stresses within the restorative material. It has been demonstrated that rounded internal line angles aid in reducing stress when compared to sharp internal line angles. Many of the burs recommended for use in primary molars have a rounded end to help achieve softened internal line angles.
Dental
null
30b1b21e-ba0b-448c-9282-616068182906
Bence Jones proteins are best described as:
u chains
g chains
Kappa and Lambda chains
Fibrin split products
2c
single
Ans. is 'c' i.e., Kappa and Lambda chains (Ref: Ananthanarayan, 9th/e, p. 99 and 8th/e, p. 100)* A Bence Jones protein is a monoclonal globulin protein or immunoglobulin light chain found in the urine, with a molecular weight of 22-24 kDa. Detection of Bence Jones protein may be suggestive of multiple myeloma or Waldenstrom's macroglobulinemia.* Bence Jones proteins are light chains of immunoglobulins so may occur as Lambda or Kappa forms, but in any other patient the chain is either Kappa or Lambda, never both.
Microbiology
Immunology
63e60c88-3798-41cf-8fce-094236cfcefd
Dichotomy means -
Erasure of name
Disclosure of secrets of patients
Fee-splitting
Adultery
2c
single
Dichotomy means fee splitting or bribery or commissioning. Receiving commissions on referral of a patient to a doctor or forwarding commissions, both are included under dichotomy. Dichotomy is infamous conduct as defined under the rules and regulations of MCI, 2002. If a doctor repeatedly indulges in dichotomy, a warning notice could be issued against him, if he still indulges in dichotomy, his name could be erased from the medical register and it is called as professional death sentence.
Forensic Medicine
null
1892c57a-6ae0-4f47-9b73-ca107368784c
DNA of HBV is?
Single-stranded
Double-stranded
Partially single stranded
Partially double stranded
3d
multi
Ans- D Ref 1 - Although HBV is among the smallest viruses in terms of virion and genome size, it has numerous unique features that make it completely distinct from other DNA viruses. It has a partially double stranded DNA with highly complex genome organization, life cycle and natural history. Remarkably distinct from other DNA viruses, it uses an RNA intermediate called pregenomic RNA (pgRNA) and reverse transcriptase for its genome replication. Genome replication is accomplished by a complex mechanism of primer shifting facilitated by direct repeat sequences encoded in the genome. Ref 2 - jvi.asm.org/content/81/12/6164.full Hepatitis B virus (HBV) contains a small, partially double-stranded, relaxed circular (RC) DNA genome. RC DNA needs to be converted to covalently closed circular (CCC) DNA, which serves as the template for all viral RNA transcription. As a first step toward understanding how CCC DNA is formed, we analyzed the viral and host factors that may be involved in CCC DNA formation, using transient and stable DNA transfections of HBV and the related avian hepadnavirus, duck hepatitis B virus (DHBV). Ref 3 - Genome Introduction The Hepatitis B Virus (HBV) is a major health problem worldwide with more than 350 million people being chronic carriers. HBV causes Hepatitis B, a serious and common infectious disease of the liver. Chronic infection is associated with an increased risk to develop severe liver diseases, including liver cirrhosis, and hepatocellular carcinoma (HCC), one of the most common forms of human cancer. The estimated risk of HCC in chronic HBV carriers is approximately 100 times greater than in uninfected individuals. Currently available anti-HBV drugs have limitations. Interferon alpha administration is associated with adverse reactions ; nucleoside analogues are virostatic and require long-term administration. Genome organization HBV is an enveloped DNA virus that belongs to the Hepadnaviridae family (NCBI taxonomy, ICTV, ViralZone). It contains a small, partially double-stranded (DS), relaxed-circular DNA (rcDNA) genome that replicates by reverse transcription of an RNA intermediate, the pregenomic RNA (pgRNA). Its length is comprised between 3182 and 3248 bp depending on genotypes. The genome encodes four overlapping open reading frames (ORFs) that are translated into viral core protein, surface proteins, polymerase/reverse transcriptase (RT), and HBx. Replication cycle The HBV life cycle begins when the virus attaches to the host cell and is internalized. Recent studies have demonstrated that sodium-taurocholate cotransporting polypeptide (NTCP) is a functional receptor in HBV infection.The virion rcDNA is delivered to the nucleus, where it is repaired to form a covalently closed-circular DNA (cccDNA). The episomal cccDNA serves as the template for the transcription of the pgRNA and the other viral mRNAs by the host RNA polymerase II. The transcripts are then exported to the cytoplasm, where translation of the viral proteins occurs. RT binds to pgRNA and triggers assembly of the core proteins into immature, RNA-containing nucleocapsids. The immature nucleocapsids then undergo a process of maturation whereby pgRNA is reversed transcribed by RT to make the mature rcDNA. A unique feature of hepadnavirus reverse transcription is the RT primed initiation of minus-strand DNA synthesis, which leads to the covalent linkage of RT to the 5' end of the minus-strand DNA. The mature, rcDNA-containing nucleocapsids are then enveloped by the viral surface proteins and secreted as virions (secretion pathway) or alternatively, are recycled back to the nucleus to further amplify the pool of cccDNA (recycling pathway). Persistence of cccDNA in hepatocyte plays a key role in viral persistence, reactivation of viral replication after cessation of antiviral therapy and resistance to therapy.
Unknown
null
ddc3fcd0-d23e-43d3-82c4-dd3c09c2ca8b
A 5-week-old male infant is born without a thymus or inferior parathyroid glands. Which of the following pharyngeal arches is most likely involved?
First
Second
Third
Fourth
2c
single
Absence of the thymus and inferior parathyroid glands would be due to defective development of the third pharyngeal pouch, their normal site of origin. The first pouch gives rise to the tympanic membrane and cavity. The second pouch gives rise to the palatine tonsils and tonsillar sinus. The fourth pharyngeal pouch gives rise to the superior parathyroid glands and the parafollicular cells of the thyroid gland. The fifth pharyngeal pouch contributes to the formation of the parafollicular cells of the thyroid gland.
Anatomy
Head & Neck
f976b21a-e63e-4739-8974-7e91b47a8adb
Pompholyx affects:
Groin
Trunk
Scalp
Palm and soles
3d
single
Ans. d. Palm & solesPompholyx is a form of recurrent palmoplantar eczema with firm deep-seated vesicles on sides of finger giving sago grain or tapioca like feel
Skin
Papulosquamous Disorders
085c111d-3fcc-4d63-bf73-460634a665da
Best quality proteins are found in highest quantities in –
Rice
Wheat
Ragi
Bajra
0a
single
Rice proteins are richer in lysine than other cereal proteins, and for this reason, rice protein is considered to be a better quality.
Social & Preventive Medicine
null
3bfea1d3-8e52-41f1-b07a-d6f69aa2d916
Jet black pigmentation of tongue with tactile hallucination is a feature of which substance use
Heroin
Cannabis
Cocaine
LSD
2c
multi
Chronic cannabis use can lead to jet black pigmentation of tongue. And patients may also have feeling of insects crawling under the skin also known as magnan phenomenon.
Psychiatry
null
a5bef839-c9ea-4b94-846f-0ddd9e28341b
In extended supraomohyoid neck dissection, lymph node dissection is done upto:
2
3
4
5
2c
single
null
Surgery
null
4c866f64-8641-4976-85a1-605e68908b0a
SIADH -- all are features except,
Decreased sodium, maintaining the concentrating ability of the urine osmolality (> 100 mOsm)
Normal sodium balance maintained indicating excess urinary sodium is due to efficient sodium intake
Hypouricemia
Low blood pressure due to volume depletion
3d
multi
Low blood pressure due to volume depletion The serum sodium concentration is normally regulated by ? The balance of water intake. Renal excretion of sodium and ADH mediated water conservation by distal renal tubule. These processes are mediated by ? Stimulation of thirst Secretion of ADM Feedback mechanisms of the renin angiotensin aldosterone system and variation of renal handling of .filtered sodium. Disorders in any one of the these components of sodium balance can result in sodium imbalance. Action of ADH ADH is secreted by the posterior pituitary glandQ. Its effect in kidney is mediated by the vasopressin. (V2 receptors) on the basolateral surface of the principal cells of the collecting duct. The key action of ADH in the kidney is increasing the permeability of water. It allows water to be reabsorbed from the medullary interstitium thus enhancing water reabsorption. In SIADH the A.D.IL level is inappropriately elevated The inappropriately elevated level of vasopressin enhances the reabsomtion of water thereby leading to. - Production of concentrated urine. - Inability to excrete water and consequently - Hyponatrernia Clinical features of SIADH - HyponatrenziaQ (sodium < 135 mEq/L) - Inappropriately elevated urine osmolalityQ (> 150 mosm/kg) - Excessive urine sodium excretionQ (it Nu > 30 mEq/L) - Decreased serum osmolalityQ (< 280 mosm/kg) These findings occur in - Absence of diuretic therapy - In the presence of euvulemiaQ without edemaQ - In the setting of otherwise normal cardiac, renal, adrenal, hepatic and thyroid function. Remember, The key to pathophysiological signs, symptoms and eventual treatment of SIADH is an understanding that the hyponatremia is a result of excess water and not a sodium deficiency. Laboratory features of SIADH . HyponatrentiaQ (sodium < 135 mEq/L) . B.U.N. and serum uric acid tends to falP because of plasma dilution' and increased excretion of nitrogenous products. . Serum potassium and Bicarbonate levels are normal in SIADH (hypokalemia and metabolic acidosis suggests, diuretic therapy or vomiting) . Low serum osmolalityQ. Remember, These characteristic features of SIADH - There is increase in urinary concentration of sodium in the presence of hyponatremia. - There is increase in urine osmolarity in the presence of with decrease in serum osmolarity.
Surgery
null
4df4e891-ad95-41dd-aa68-e028855e7024
The following statements regarding Turner syndrome are true except -
Occurence of Turner syndrome is influenced by maternal age.
Most patients have primary amenorrhoea.
Most patients have short stature.
Edema of hands and feet is an important feature during infancy.
0a
multi
Occurence of Turner syndrome is not affected by maternal age. It is Down's syndrome which is affected by maternal age (Risk of Down's syndrome increases after 35 yrs. of maternal age*)
Medicine
null
305099b7-1b32-4e47-8fc3-080420f31923
A 33-year-old man presents at OPD complaining of fever and headache. On examination, he had leukopenia and increased liver enzymes, and inclusion bodies were seen in his monocytes. History revealed that he went on camping and remembered removing a tick from his leg. Which of the following diseases is most likely causing the symptoms described?
Lyme disease
Ehrlichiosis
Rocky Mountain spotted fever
Q fever
1b
single
All the listed diseases except Q fever are tick-borne. The rickettsia C. burnetii causes Q fever, and humans are usually infected by aerosol of a sporelike form shed in milk, urine, feces, or placenta of infected sheep, cattle, or goats. Lyme disease is caused by a spirochete, Borrelia burgdorferi, and produces the characteristic lesion erythema chronicum migrans (ECM). The etiologic agent of Rocky Mountain spotted fever is R. rickettsia. It usually produces a rash that begins in the extremities and then involves the trunk. Two human forms of ehrlichiosis can occur: human monocytic ehrlichiosis (HME), caused by E. chaffeensis; and human granulocytic ehrlichiosis (HGE), caused by an as yet unnamed Ehrlichia. HME infection is transmitted by the brown dog tick and A. americanum. HGE infection is transmitted by I. scapularis, the same tick that transmits Lyme disease. Both infections cause fever and leukopenia. A rash rarely occurs. E. chaffeensis infects monocytes, and HGE infects granulocytes; both organisms produce inclusion bodies called morulae. Francisella tularensis is a small, Gram-negative, nonmotile coccobacillus. Humans most commonly acquire the organism after contact with tissues or body fluid of an infected mammal or the bite of an infected tick.
Microbiology
Systemic Bacteriology (Haemophilus, Yersinia, Spirochaetes, Ricketssia, Chlamydia, Mycoplasma and Miscellaneous Bacteria)
2f9623cf-80b4-4e4d-a014-5a9f73d66563
The causative agent of Primary Amoebic Meningoencephalitis is:
Endolimax nana
Dientamoeba fragilis
Naegleria fowleri
Entamoeba histolytica
2c
single
(C) Naegleria fowleri # Human infection of naegleria comes from water containing the amoebae and usually follows swimming or diving in ponds.> Patients are mostly previously healthy young adults and children.> The amoebae invade the nasal mucosa, pass through the olfactory nerve and initiate an acute meningitis and encephalitis (primary amoebic meningoencephalitis).
Microbiology
Misc.
c20d83da-2a5b-499e-803b-98d88f45da74
Adult polycystic kidney disease is inherited:March 2005
X-linked dominant
X-linked recessive
Autosomal recessive
Autosomal dominant
3d
single
Ans. D: Autosomal dominantAutosomal dominant polycystic kidney disease (ADPKD) is one of the most common inherited disorders. It is the most frequent genetic cause of renal failure in adults,It is a multisystemic and progressive disorder characterized by the formation and enlargement of cysts in the kidney and other organs (e.g., liver, pancreas, spleen).Clinical features usually begin in the third to fouh decade of life, but cysts may be detectable in childhood and in utero.Some other autosomal dominant disorders:Huntington choreaNeurofibromatosisMyotonic dystrophyHereditary spherocytosisMarfan syndromeOsteogenesi imperfectAchondroplasia
Pathology
null
3f8127ff-c402-4b50-baa4-40663ae3ef9f
A 5-year-old child refuses to sleep in his bed, claiming there are monsters in his closet and that he has bad dreams. The parents allow him to sleep with them in their bed to avoid the otherwise inevitable screaming fit. The parents note that the child sleeps soundly, waking only at sunrise. Choose the sleep disturbance most consistent with the history
Night terrors
Nightmares
Learned behavior
Obstructive sleep apnea
2c
multi
Sleep disturbances are fairly common in childhood. Many children resist going to bed, and parents frequently give in just to get the child to sleep by allowing the child to sleep in the parents' bed or allowing them to stay up late. Unfortunately, children learn remarkably well how to get what they want, and the parents' concessions only make the problem worse. Learned behavior (behavioral insomnia, dyssomnia) is the root of many sleep disturbances in young children.Other types of sleep disturbance in children fall into the category of sleep disruptions, such as nightmares and night terrors.A nightmare is a scary or disturbing dream that usually awakens the child and causes agitation about the content of the dream. Nightmares occur during rapid eye movement (REM) sleep. Many children and adults have an occasional nightmare; recurrent or frequent nightmares, however, may be indicative of an ongoing stress in the child's life. Night terrors (pavor nocturnus) are non-REM phenomena seen less commonly than nightmares, occurring in 1% to 6% of all children. The child will be described as apparently awake but unresponsive; they can have evidence of autonomic arousal such as tachycardia, sweating, and tachypnea, and appear frightened and agitated. Attempts at calming the child are usually not effective, and the child will eventually go back to sleep. Although usually a problem in early childhood, night terrors can sometimes continue through adolescence.Somnambulism, or sleepwalking, occurs in 15% of children and is described as recurrent episodes of rising from bed and walking around. The child is typically hard to arouse and will have amnesia after the event. This usually happens in the first third of the sleep cycle, during stage 4 non- REM sleep. Somniloquy, or sleep talking, can occur at any sleep stage and is seen in all ages.
Pediatrics
Growth, Development, and Behavior
dc2b590f-7616-46df-bfb3-9d3305896751
Monetary benefit is measured in
Program budgeting system
Network analysis
Cost effective analysis
cost benefit analysis
3d
single
ref : park 21st ed
Social & Preventive Medicine
All India exam
c390a8ea-bd2a-4bd6-a327-20172b4a9d2c
A 26-year-old woman complains of early fatigue and weakness in doing strenuous activity. Her symptoms are worse near the end of the day. She appears well, muscle bulk, tone, and reflexes are normal. Handgrip strength decreases with repetitive testing.For the above patient with muscle weakness, select the most likely anatomic site for the disorder
anterior horn cell
peripheral nerve
neuromuscular junction
muscle
2c
multi
Diurnal fluctuations and pathologic fatigue are common in disorders of neuromuscular transmission (e.g., myasthenia gravis). (Ropper, pp. 1250-1251)
Medicine
C.N.S.
a2f375ee-6b9a-4ed0-898b-9e5ad18c401d
Reichert-Meissl number:
0.1 N KOH
0.5 KOH
0.1 N NaOH
0.5 NaOH
0a
single
Ans. A. 0.1NKOHReichert-Meissl number is defined as the number of moles of 0.1NKOH required to Completely neutralize the soluble volatile fatty acids distilled from 5g fat.
Biochemistry
Structure & Function of Protein
186c1062-d8f9-4545-bf0b-4ec175c538c2
This kind of graph can be seen in all of the following condition except
Ventilatory malfunction
hypoventilation
hyperventilation
malignant hyperpyrexia
2c
multi
In hyperventilation the EtCO2 value will decrease. Increases ETCO2 is seen in thyrotoxicosis, fever (increased CO2production) and high spinal anesthesia (alveolar hypoventilation). Factors affecting ETCO2 Increased ETCO2 Decreased ETCO2 Metabolism Hypehermia Fever Thyrotoxicosis Pain Shivering Metabolism Hypothermia Metabolic acidosis Respiratory Hypoventilation Respiratory depression COPD Paial airway obstruction Rebreathing Respiratory Hyperventilation Total airway obstruction Extubation Circulatory Increased cardiac output (ROSC after cardiac arrest) Hypeension Circulatory Hypotension Cardiac arrest Pulmonary emboli Apparatus malfunction Exhausted CO2 absorber Inadequate fresh gas flow Ventilatory malfunction Apparatus malfunction Circuit disconnection Leak in sampling Ventilatory malfunction
Anaesthesia
Anaesthesia Q Bank
cca03ea7-c10f-42cd-9559-934485f90c8a
A patient was hospitalized after an automobile accident. The wounds became infected and the patient was treated with tobramycin, carbenicillin, and clindamycin. Five days after antibiotic therapy was initiated, the patient developed severe diarrhea and pseudomembranous enterocolitis. Antibioticassociated diarrhea and the more serious pseudomembranous enterocolitis can be caused by
Clostridium sordellii
Clostridium perfringens
Clostridium difficile
S. aureus
2c
single
Patients treated with antibiotics develop diarrhea that, in most cases, is self-limiting. However, in some instances, paicularly in those patients treated with ampicillin or clindamycin, a severe, life-threatening pseudomembranous enterocolitis develops. This disease has characteristic histopathology, and membranous plaques can be seen in the colon by endoscopy. Pseudomembranous enterocolitis and antibiotic-associated diarrhea are caused by an anaerobic Gram-positive rod, Clostridium difficile. It has been recently shown that C. difficile produces a protein toxin with a molecular weight of about 250,000. The "toxin" is, in fact, two toxins, toxin A and toxin B. Both toxins are always present in fecal samples, but there is approximately one thousand times more toxin B than toxin A. Toxin A has enterotoxic activity--that is, it elicits a positive fluid response in ligated rabbit ileal loops-- whereas toxin B appears to be primarily a cytotoxin. Reference: Ananthanarayan and Paniker&;s Textbook of Microbiology Tenth edition
Microbiology
Bacteriology
12f73af4-5f3c-4bf4-8c87-19359487f80d
Which of the following muscle is derived from 1st pharyngeal arch ? (2019)
Anterior belly of digastric
Posterior belly of digastric
Stylopharyngeus
Tensor tympani
0a
single
.
Anatomy
All India exam
85cabf43-4f55-452e-ba1e-6a9aec2da054
Which of the following is an autosomal dominant metabolic disorder -
Cystic fibrosis
Phenylketonuria
Alpha-I anti-trypsin deficiency
Familial hypercholesterolemia
3d
single
Mutations involving single genes follow one of three patterns of inheritance: autosomal dominant, autosomal recessive, or X-linked. Autosomal Dominant Inheritance Familial hypercholesterolemia Huntington disease Marfan syndrome Ehlers-Danlos syndrome Hereditary spherocytosis Neurofibromatosis, type 1 Adult polycystic kidney disease Autosomal Recessive Inheritance Cystic fibrosis Phenylketonuria Tay-Sachs disease Severe combined immunodeficiency a- and b-Thalassemias Sickle cell anemia Mucopolysaccharidoses--all types Glycogen storage diseases--all types Galactosemia X-linked Recessive Inheritance Hemophilia A Duchenne/Becker muscular dystrophy Fragile X syndrome (Robbins Basic Pathology,9th edition,pg no. 219)
Pathology
General pathology
ce8e671c-f257-4643-af71-e291a566b65d
Which of the following statements is true about capillaries
Contains 5% of total blood volume
Contain 10% of total blood volume
Velocity of blood flow is maximum
Offer maximum resistance to blood flow
0a
multi
Capillaries contain 5% of the blood volume.
Physiology
null
f29063e9-8b67-4afc-ba61-970572d51f6c
A Patient falls down often with behavioral change and enuresis. What is the condition associated with him?
Frontotemporal dementia
Normal pressure hydrocephalus
Parkinson's disease
Alzheimer's disease
1b
multi
Ans- B. Normal pressure hydrocephalus Frontotemporal dementia - Associated with poor behavioral control, decision making, and language.Normal-pressure hydrocephalus - Associated with gait disturbance, behavioural change, enuresis, and dementia.Parkinson's disease - Associated with tremor and muscular stiffnessAlzheimer's disease-Associated mainly with memory loss and confusionRef: Normal Pressure Hydrocephalus By Michael J. Fritsch, Uwe Kehler, Ullrich Meier P .16; Oxford textbook of neurological surgery by Adel Helmy P.94
Psychiatry
null
769b0394-d70e-42af-9889-8f57c98c39df
Life spon of a housefly ?
1-2 days
5-10 days
10-15 days
15-20 days
3d
single
Ans. is 'd' i.e., 15-20 days Houseflies 'Houseflies should be regarded as a sign of insanitation' and their number as index of that sanitation. Impoant species : Musca domestica, M. vicinia, M. nebula, M. sorbens Life span : 15-25 days Eggs : 8-24 hours Larvae (maggots) : 2-7 days Pupae : 3-6 days Adults : 5-20 days Impoant breeding places (In order of impoance). Fresh horse manure Human excreta Manure of other animals Garbage Decaying fruits and vegetables Rubbish dumps containing organic matter Grounds where liquid wastes are spilled Feeding habits : Housefly does not bite : It cannot eat solid foods; it vomits on ssolid foods to make a solution of it, and sucks in a liquid state. Modus of disease transmission: Mechanical transmission: Houseflies are known as 'Poers of infection' Vomit-drop Defecation Houseflies in disease causation: As vector of diseases : Typhoid and paratyphoid fevers, diarrhoeas and dysenteries, cholera and gastroenteritis, amoebiasis, helminthic manifestations, Poliomyelitis, Yaws, Anthrax, Trachoma, conjunctivitis. As causative agent of disease : Myiasis.
Social & Preventive Medicine
null
f206d675-dadc-4bb3-833f-0f5a2c2300af
Threshold radiation dose for hematological syndrome is?
2 Gy
6 Gy
15 Gy
50 Gy
0a
single
Ans. is'a'i.e., 2 GyBone marrow or hematological syndrome:- Full syndrome occurs with a dose between 0.7 and 3 Gy (70-300 rads).The destruction of bone marrow cells results in pancytopenia.
Radiology
null
45f1f053-423c-4e42-8e53-89c51e2b8a4f
Which of the following drug causes hemorrhagic cystitis ?
Cyclophosphamide
Cycloserine
Ciprofloxacin
Cyclosporine
0a
single
null
Pharmacology
null
547bbe6f-6b25-4205-9307-84e6a79f1467
Causes of reduced bioavailability of a drug includes
High first pass metabolism
Increased absorption
IV drug administration
High lipid solubility
0a
single
When the metabolism of a drug is high during its passage from the site of absorption into the systemic circulation, the rate, and extent of absorption of that drug decreases. absorption- amount of drug reaching the systemic circulation from the site of administration (Ref.Essentials of medical pharmacology TD Tripathi 7th edition page no.16,27)
Pharmacology
Endocrinology
2531f592-19ff-42d8-95f2-427de8bbdfb2
Which strain of streptococci is implicated in neonatal meningitis is:
Group-A
Group-B
Group-C
Group-D
1b
single
Group-B
Microbiology
null
1b7ffa5a-8453-40e6-b2e6-8ebd70d26ec2
ASO (Antistreptolysin o) test Is used for the diagnosis of-
Rheumatoid ahritis
Typhoid fever
Rheumatic fever
Rickettsial fever
2c
single
Ref: R Alagappan - Manual of Practical Medicine 4th Edition.pg no:146-147 Jones Criteria for Diagnosis of Rheumatic Fever Major Criteria Carditis Pancarditis, seen in 50-60% of patients, develops within the first 2 weeks of rheumatic fever. Pericarditis is evidenced by presence of a pericardial rub, myocarditis by tachycardia, soft S1, presence of S3 and CCF and endocarditis by the presence of Carey-Coombs' murmur (mitral diastolic murmur). Ahritis (60-75%) Flitting and fleeting type of polyahritis involving large joints with no residual deformity is seen in 60-75% of patients and occurs early in rheumatic fever. Jaccod's ahritis: Ulnar detion of 4th and 5th finger with flexion at metacarpophalangeal joints is the only residual deformity seen in rheumatic polyahritis. Subcutaneous Nodules Non-tender nodules are seen over bony prominences like elbows, shin, occiput, spine in 3-5% of patients and occur 3-6 weeks after onset of rheumatic fever. Patients who have subcutaneous nodules almost always have carditis. Erythema Marginatum (< 5% and evanescent) Macular lesions with an erythematous rim and central clearing in a bathing suit distribution are seen in < 5% of patients and occur early in rheumatic fever. Chorea (Sydenham's Chorea) (2-30%) A neurological disorder with rapid, involuntary and purposeless non-repetitive movements with a self limiting course of 2-6 weeks is more common in females and is a late manifestation of rheumatic fever. Minor Criteria Clinical 1. Fever 2. Ahralgia 3. Previous history of rheumatic fever or rheumatic hea disease. Laboratory 1. Acute phase reactants (leucocytosis, raised ESR, C-reactive protein) 2. Prolonged PR interval in ECG (> 0.2 sec). WHO Criteria Jones major and pa of the minor criteria except prior history of rheumatic fever/rheumatic hea disease and C-reactive protein. Essential Criteria Evidence for recent streptococcal infection as evidenced by: 1. Increase in ASO titre a. > 333 Todd units (in children) b. > 250 Todd units (in adults). 2. Positive throat culture for streptococcal infection. 3. Recent history of scarlet fever. Two major (or) one major and two minor criteria, in the presence of essential criteria, is required to diagnose Acute Rheumatic Fever. A Positive Rheumatic Fever history is usually elicited in only 50% of patient with Rheumatic Hea Disease.
Medicine
C.V.S
9ee2ce0a-0afc-4fc3-9740-2612ce6a116b
All the following enzymes are involved in the metabolism of xenobiotics except
Hydroxylase
Cytochrome oxidase
Cytochrome P450
Methylase
1b
multi
Oxidation, reduction, and hydroxylation are phase 1 reactionsCyp. 450 is the most common enzyme involved in the metabolism of various drugs in phase 1 and phase 2.Methylase - phase 2 reactionRef: Goodman Gillman 11th ed, pg 71
Pharmacology
General pharmacology
e1c4c376-3789-4e0c-be4b-a48eda596e75
Which of the following sites is not involved in a posterior cerebral aery infarct:
Midbrain
Thalamus
Temporal lobe
Anterior Coex
3d
single
Answer is D (Anterior Coex) : Anterior Coex (Frontal lobe) is not involved in posterior cerebral aery infarct Posterior Cerebral Aery infarcts The posterior Cerebral Aery supplies the midbrain, thalamus, lateral geniculate bodies, posterior poion of choroid plexus, occipital lobes, inferior and medial aspect of the temporal lobe and posterior inferior areas of the parietal lobe. Occlusion of the Posterior Cerebral Aery usually results in two common clinical syndromes depending on the areas involved P1 Syndrome Occlusion of the proximal segment of PCA from its origin to its union with the posterior communicating aery P1 syndrome present primarily with the following signs Midbrain signs Thalamic signs Subthalamic signs P2 Syndrome Occlusion of the distal segment of PCA distal to the junction of PCA with the posterior communicating aery P2 syndrome presents primarily with the following signs Temporal lobe signs Occipital lobe signs
Medicine
null
4b07da44-f10e-4059-b318-f6f61e1a29ec
For a weight of 98 kgs and height of 175 cms, BMI is:
28
32
36
46
1b
single
32
Social & Preventive Medicine
null
b50c885d-cc4e-4495-a848-f667a32f9df1
Highest fat content is present in:
Rice
Wheat
Bajra
Jowar
2c
single
Fat content of food items: Food item Fat content Jowar 4% Bajra 6.5% - Highest fat content Rice 3% Wheat 3%
Social & Preventive Medicine
Proteins, Fats, Rich Sources
068c6788-406e-40bf-8a95-b9f30debe91f
Most accurate treatment of erectile dysfunction:
Sildenafil
Master and johnson technique
B-blockers
Papaverine
0a
single
A i.e. SildenafilSildenafil is only approved & effective oral agent for erectile dysfunctionQ. It is useful in wide range of e.d.including - pyschogenic, diabetogenic, vasculogenic, post radical prostatectomy (nerve sparing procedure) & spinal cord injury.It acts by inhibiting phosphodiesterase - 5 (PDE-5)Q & releasing NOQ from nerve endings & endotheliumOther t/t for Erectile dysfunction are:PIPE therapy (PapaverineQ/ Phentolamine Induced Penile Erection)- AndrogenIntraurethral - alprostodil (PGE1)Penile prosthasis, vaccum constriction deviceMaster Johnson technique is for premature ejaculationQp Blockers can cause erectile dysfunctionQ
Psychiatry
null
0415d880-674a-46ba-b86d-4a44d38885df
Secondary amyloidosis complicates which of the following
Pneumonia
Chronic glomerulonephritis
Irritable bowel sydrome
Chronic osteomyelitis
3d
single
Ref Robbins 9/e p257;8/e p253;7/e p261 TB , bronchiectasis and chronic osteomyelitis were the most impoant underlying conditions but with the advent of effective antimicrobial chemotherapy the connective tissue disorders such as rheumatoid ahritis , ankylosing spondylitis and inflammation bowel disease . paicularly crohn disease and ulcerative colitis
Anatomy
General anatomy
47d48d6c-6314-4917-be3b-6d78c4164e93
A patient underwent breast conservation surgery for 3 cm lesion along with sentinel lymph node biopsy., which showed one-third of sentinel lymph nodes are positive for macrometastasis. Next step is
Completion axillary lymph node dissection chemotherapy and radiotherapy
MRM with level I lymphadenectomy
MRM with level III lymphadenectomy
Only chemotherapy and radiotherapy
0a
multi
Lymphatic metastasis in Carcinoma Breast: Lymphatic spread in CA breast occurs through subareolar lymphatic plexus of Sappey&;s lymphatic plexus, cutaneous lymphatics & inflammatory lymphatics. Lymphatic metastasis occurs primarily to the axillary (75%) & internal mammary lymph nodes. Tumors in the posterior one-third of breast are more likely to drain to the internal mammary nodes. Involvement of LNs has both biological & chronological significance It represents not only an evolutional event in the spread of the carcinoma but is also a marker for the metastatic potential of that tumor Involvement of supraclavicular nodes and of any contralateral lymph nodes represents advanced disease, LN metastasis is treated by surgical dissection and radiotherapy Axillary Lymph node levels in relation with pectoralis minor Level Relation with pectoralis minor Axillary LNs included I Below or lateral Anterior, Posterior, Lateral II Posterior (behind) Central, Interpectoral (Rotter&;s nodes) III Medial or above Apical Ref: Sabiston 20th edition Pgno: 853
Surgery
Endocrinology and breast
a47f8500-620a-4207-aeab-706ec128acc8
“Smack” is the “common” name for
Heroin
Cocaine
Opium
None
0a
multi
Heroin or di-acetyl-morphine is about two times more potent than morphine in injectable form. Apart from the parenteral mode of administration, heroin can also be smoked or ‘chased’ ( chasing the dragon), often in an impure form (called ‘ smack’ or ‘ brown sugar’ in India). Heroin is more addicting than morphine and can cause dependence even after a short period of exposure.
Psychiatry
null
8525419b-3c39-4124-813c-b1c02b0810de
All of the following are signs of uterine scar dehiscence except: September 2009
Tachycardia
Fetal distress
Strong uterine contractions
Falling BP
2c
multi
Ans. C: Strong Uterine Contractions The signs and symptoms of uterine rupture largely depend on the timing, site, and extent of the uterine defect. Uterine rupture at the site of a previous uterine scar is typically less violent and less dramatic than a spontaneous or traumatic rupture because the scar is relatively avascular. The classic signs and symptoms of uterine rupture are as follows: fetal distress (as evidenced most often by pattern of abnormalities in fetal hea rate), diminished baseline uterine pressure, loss of uterine contractility, abdominal pain, recession of the presenting fetal pa, hemorrhage, and shock.
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
null
e2c942c9-b750-4e59-a3d3-906cd5be7c5e
Young female with 3 day fever presents with headache, BP 90/60 mmHg, Hea rate of 114/min, and pin point spots developed distal to BP cuff. Most likely organism is:
Brucella abous
Brucella suis
N. meningitidis
Staphylococcus aureus
2c
single
Ans. (c). i.e. N. meningitidis The patient here is under state of shock (hypotension, tachycardia) in conjunction with meningitis (headache fever)and rash. Meningococcal meningitis is the most common meningitis complicated by shock. CLINICAL MANIFESTATION OF MENINGOCOCCAL DISEASE Rash A nonblanching rash (petechial or purpuric) develops in >80% of cases of meningococcal disease. Rashesare initially blanching in nature but within hours become non-blanching. In severe cases large purpuriclesions (purpura fulminons) develops. Meningitis Commonly present as fever, vomiting, headache, irritability, petechial or purpuric rash occurs in 2/3 of cases. Headache is seen in adults usually. In upto 40% of cases there are some features of septicemia too. Septicemia Can be isolated or as a accomplication of meningitis. The condition may cause death within hours. Purpura fulminans is a specific feature. Chronic meningococcemia Present as repeated episodes of petechial rash associated with fever joint pain, ahritis and splenomegaly. The main differential diagnosis is acute rheumatic fever. This condition has been associated with complement deficiently and with inadequate sulfonamide therapy. If left untreated chances of progression to meningococcal septicemia are high. Postmeningococcal reactive disease In small propoion of patients, an immune complex disease develops 4-10 days after the onset of meningococcal disease with manifestations that include a maculopapular or vasculitic rash, ahritis, pericarditis and/or polyserosites associated with fever.
Microbiology
null
5ba62b8f-9bcd-4646-b9b0-59c0b5374ff6
The most impoant cells in type I hypersensitivity
Macrophages
Mast cells
Neutrophils
Lymphocytes
1b
single
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Mast cells Type I hypersensitivity (Immediate hypersensitivity) o It is a rapidly developing immunological reaction occuring within minutes after the combination of an antigen with antibody bound to mast cells in individuals previously sensitized to the antigen. o Immediate hypersensitivity reactions are mediated by Ig E, but T and B cells play impoant role in the development of these antibodies. o Type I reaction requires prior sensitization to a specific antigen (allergen). o Most exposures occur either by inhalation (respiratory route) or ingestion (GIT) of antigen. o Type one hypersensitivity has two phases :- 1.Initial response o After first antigen exposure, this antigen is presented to CD-4 helper T cells (TH2 type) by antigen presenting cells. These primed TH2 cells release IL-4 that acts on B-cells to form Ig E specific for that paicular antigen. The antigen specific lg E antibodies then bind to the surface receptors of mast cells and basophils. The process from first antigen exposure to the coating of mast cells by Ig E acts as sensitization (prior sensitization) and first exposure is also called priming or sensitizing exposure (dose). Subsequent exposure (shocking dose) to same antigen then result in activation of mast cells and basophils with release of mediator from these cells that leads to ? Smooth muscle spasm Increase mucus secretion from the epithelial cells. Vasodilatation Increased vascular permeability Recuritment of inflammatory cells Note - Most of the clinical effects are due to smooth muscle spasm. 2. Late phase response In this phase additional leukocytes are recruited. These cells amplify and sustain the inflammatory response without additional exposure to the triggred antigen. Among the cells that are recruited in the late-phase reaction, eosinophils are paicularly impoant. Eosinophils produce major basic protein and eosinophilic cataionic protein that are toxic to epithelial cells. Platelet activating factor (PAF) recruits and activates inflammatory cells and is most impoant cytokine in the initatiation of late phase response. Type I hypersensitivity occurs in two forms Anaphylaxis --> Acute, potentially fatal, systemic. Atom --> Chronic, Nonfatal, Lacalized. Remember o Mast cells are the most impoant cells in type I hypersensitivity. o Eosinophils are the most impoant cells in the late phase reaction of type I hypersensitivity. o Histamine is the most impoant mediator in type I hypersensitivity. o IL-4 is paicularly impoant, it is essential for turning on IgE secreting B cells. o PAF is the most impoant cytokine in the initiation of late phase reaction. o Most potent eosinophilic activating cytokine is IL-5.
Pathology
null
67bb2115-61fc-4a83-a29c-5e67868c9d58
Atrial fibrillation may occur in all the following conditions, except-
Mitral stenosis
Hypothyroidism
Dilated cardiomyopathy
Mitral regurgitation
1b
multi
Answer is B (Hypothroidism) Atrial Fibrillation is associated with hypehyroidism and not hypothyroidism Impoant causes of Atrial Fibrillation Cardiovascular causes of Atrial Fibrillation Rheumatic Hea disease (Includes mitral stenosis and mitral regurgitation) Non Rheumatic Mitral valve disease Chronic Hypeension Cardiomyopathy Myocarditis Pericarditis Congenital Hea Disease (eg ASD) Coronary Hea Disease Other Systemic Causes of AF Hypehroidism Pulmonary embolism Hypoxia Excess consumption of alcohol (Also alcohol withdraw) Excess consumption of Caffeine May be seen in normal individuals Paicularly during emotional stress or following surgery, exercise or prominent surge of vagal tone (vasovagal response) AF often develops in patients with hea or lung disease who develop hypoxia, hypercapria or metabolic or hemodynamic derangements Holiday Hea Syndrome: In predisposed individuals, AF may be precipitated by consumption of even small amounts of alcohol. This is called Holiday Syndrome and is usually transient and self limited
Medicine
null
1572cbab-f2d2-4e6d-bb21-971d8e8fcaea
High Glycemic index is defined as value more than?
55
60
70
100
2c
single
High Glycemic index foods have values of 70 or greater and include baked potato, white bread and white rice. Low Glycemic index foods have values of 55 or lesser and include multi grain breads, pasta, legumes.
Medicine
Diabetes Mellitus
dd8d6da5-ea32-43ac-aefe-d261770561e5
Threshold of hearing in a young normal adult is ?
0 dB
10 dB
20 dB
30 dB
0a
single
Ans. is'a'i.e.,0 dBAudiometric zeroThreshold of hearing, i.e. The faintest intensity which a normal healthy person can hear will vary from person to person.The International Standards Organisation (ISO) adopted a standard for this, which is represented as the zero level on the audiometer (0 dB).According to ISO, audiometric zero is the mean value of minimal audible intensity in a group of normally hearing healthy young adults.
ENT
null
09c3f34a-2b4e-4d25-95be-5400d3505f02
A 4 years old child suffered from a fall on outstretched hand. X rays revealed a fracture with the fracture line at the physes with a small metaphyseal fragment. There was no epiphyseal fracture. What type of injury by Salter harris Classification is this?
I
II
III
IV
1b
multi
(Refer: Mohindra’s Fundamentals of Orthopedics, 2nd edition, pg no. 510) Type II: the fracture involves the physis and a triangle of metaphyseal bone (Thurston Holland sign).  This is the commonest type of epiphyseal injury accounting for 73 percent of cases over 10 years of age.
Unknown
null
93b5dafd-5a7a-4ea7-bec3-c425a3165d6c
Positive hepatojugular reflux is found in all of the following conditions except -
Tricuspid regurgitation
Right heart failure
Decreased after load
Increased capillary bed pressure
2c
multi
Ans. is 'c' i.e., Associated with decreased afterload [Ref: CMDT 2007p. 318; British Medical Journal May 1999\ Hepatojugular refluxThis is done by applying firm pressure with the palm of the hand to the right upper quadrant of the abdomen for 10- 30 seconds with the patients breathing quietly while the jugular vein is observed.In normal subjects (Negative hepatojugular reflux)Jugular venous pressure rises only transiently with rapid return to the baseline.Positive hepatojugular reflux (Left ventricular failure Q)A positive abdominojugular reflux sign is defined by an increase in the jugular venous pressure of greater than 3 cm, sustained for greater than 15 seconds.ExplanationPushing on the liver (or even midabdomen) for about 15 seconds increases the amount of blood returned to the right atrium and right ventricle (increased preload).Concurrently, there is increase in right ventricle afterload, owing to upward movement of the diaphragm which reduces intrathoracic volumes. (Pulmonary artery pressure is increased due to reduced intrathoracic volumes). (Leading to increased right ventricle afterload)In a normal person the jugular venous pressure would rise temporarily and then normalize quickly as the healthy right ventricle pumps out the additional blood i.e. it handles the increase in preload and afterload quite well.A dysfunctioning right ventricle however fails to accept this increase in preload and afterload and therefore there is persistent elevation of systemic venous pressure.The abdominojugular reflux is not specific to any disorder but rather is a reflection of the inability of the right ventricle to accept or reject the transiently increased venous return."Positive abdominojugular reflux is most commonly associated with left ventricular failure".In the absence of left heart failure a positive abdominal jugular reflex sign should prompt consideration of :-Impaired right ventricular preloadA Decrease in right ventricular compliance.A decrease in right ventricular systolic function orAn elevation in right ventricular afterload.Conditions associated with abdominojugular reflux -Left ventricular failure Q (MC)Right heart failure QConstrictive pericarditis QRight ventricular infarction QRestrictive cardiomyopathy QNote - Both pulmonary stenosis and tricuspid regurgitation cause right heart failure.
Medicine
Liver
495f0900-664e-40bb-aee1-3b9ed066445f
A neurodevelopmental disorder which is characterized by impaired social interaction, impaired verbal and nonverbal communication, and restricted and repetitive behavior is description for:
Autism
Anxiety disorder
Antisocial personality disorder
Paranoid schizophrenia
0a
single
Autistic disorder (childhood autism) Social deficits. Examples include babies who don't like being held, and also reduced eye contact, unusual facial expressions, lack of gestures, poor understanding of others' feelings, lack of empathy, and few peer relationships. Communication deficits. Speech in autistic children shows wide variety; it may be completely absent (30 per cent), or merely show unusual or asocial qualities. Common abnormalities of speech include echolalia, odd prosody and pronoun reversal. These children have difficulty in two-way conversations, and some ask a string of questions instead. Restricted/repetitive interests and behaviors. Autistic children often show a deep interest in things others regard as very mundane; for example, washing machines or license plates.
Psychiatry
Psychoanalysis
9bd8f193-5321-420a-bb9b-f0b753bc6c95
Adrenal aldosteronoma is best diagnosed by -
HRCT
MRI
JVP
KUB
0a
single
Ans is option 1 HRCT The usual screening test is to measure the serum potassium level. If it is low, diagnostic tests are done including measuring blood and urinary aldosterone levels and blood renin levels. In Conn's syndrome, the aldosterone is elevated and the renin is suppressed. If these tests are diagnostic then imaging studies are done to see if a tumor can be localized. Since these tumors are small they can be hard to find even with the best CT or CT with contrast or MRI scan. Some patients may have no obvious radiographic tumor but one adrenal is affected (unilateral primary adrenal hyperplasia) and they can benefit from surgical removal. Other patients may have both adrenals affected with no visible tumor (idiopathic hyperaldosteronism) and surgery will not help. In these situations blood has to be drawn from each adrenal vein (so called adrenal venous sampling) in order to measure aldosterone levels to be sure which adrenal has the tumor. The symptoms of hyperaldosteronism may resemble other conditions or medical problems. Always consult your physician for a diagnosis. the diagnostic procedures for aldosteronoma may include: Blood and urine tests to measure potassium and hormone levels Computed tomography (CT or CAT scan) or magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) - are non-invasive procedures that take cross-sectional images of the adrenal or other internal organs; to detect any abnormalities that may not show up on an ordinary x-ray Adrenal venous sampling- an invasive test performed by a radiologist where a catheter is placed in the adrenal veins to measure the hormone level and confirms the tumor location. Ref Harrison 17/e p2260 , Semantischolar.org
Medicine
Endocrinology
38155835-cc1e-47d5-81d4-0a7d66fc0fae
A 70 year old male chronic smoker is diagnosed of having cancer of the urinary bladder. It is confined to the trigone and extention is upto the submucosa. The management would be
Complete transurethral resction
Complete transurethral resection with intravesical chemotherapy
Palliative radiotherapy
Radical cystectomy
1b
multi
Answer- B. Complete transurethral resection with intravesical chemotherapyTreatment-T1Complete TUR followed by intravesical chemo- or immunotherapy or radical cystectomy
Surgery
null
92ca23bf-50f0-4ae9-9b09-37f2bc1cac64
Weakness of extensor Hallucis longus is due to which nerve root mainly?
L5
L4
S1
S2
0a
multi
Ans. is 'a' i.e., L5 Important muscles and their chief myotomesMuscleMyotomeExtensor Hallucis LongusL5Tibialis anteriorL4Flexor Hallucis LongusS1GastrosoleusS1Gluteus Medius and MinimusL5Gluteus MaximusS1Quadriceps FemorisL3
Anatomy
Lower Extremity
ee1d1c6b-3c4e-48c7-bc39-9bd0e9db28fd
Which of the following is not branch of the basilar aery ?
Labrynthine aery
Anterior inferior cerebellar aery
Pontine aery
Posterior communicating aery
3d
single
Posterior communicating aery is a branch of internal carotid aery. The other branches of basilar aery are: Superior cerebellar aery Posterior cerebral aeries . The branches of cerebral pa of internal carotid aery are: Ophthalmic aery Anterior cerebral aery Middle cerebral aery Posterior communicating aery Anterior choroidal aery . imageref - Vishram singh 2e pg 174
Anatomy
Brain