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Enelpol 10

What are reactive metabolites?

Reactive metabolites are generated when a small molecule, commonly a drug or hydrocarbon, is broken down in the body. Reactive metabolites can cause cancer and other diseases as well as hepatoxicty.

What is caused by heterozygous lamin B1 and lamin B2 variants?

Heterozygous lamin B1 and lamin B2 variants cause primary microcephaly and define a novel laminopathy.

Is obesity related to cognitive decline?

Obesity is a common medical illness that is increasingly recognised as conferring risk of decline in cognitive performance, independent of other comorbid medical conditions. Overweight and obesity are associated with an increased risk of subnormal intellectual performance in young adult males. Subjects with low birth weight and adolescent overweight/obesity are at particular risk of subnormal performance.

Which are the most common methods for circular RNA detection from RNASeq?

The main algorithms are circRNA_finder, find_circ, CIRCexplorer, CIRI, and MapSplice.

Is Dupilumab used for treatment of atopic dermatitis?

Yes, patients treated with dupilumab had marked and rapid improvement in all the evaluated measures of atopic dermatitis disease activity.

Are transcribed ultraconserved regions involved in cancer?

Yes, it appears that there is widespread T-UCR (Transcribed - UltraConserved Region) involvement in diverse cellular processes that are deregulated in the process of tumourigenesis. Transcribed ultraconserved regions (T-UCRs) are a subset of 481 sequences longer than 200 bp, which are absolutely conserved between orthologous regions of human, rat and mouse genomes, and are actively transcribed. It has recently been proven in cancer systems that differentially expressed T-UCRs could alter the functional characteristics of malignant cells.

Which are the databases for intrinsic protein disorders?

Intrinsic disorder (ID), i.e. the lack of a unique folded conformation at physiological conditions, is a common feature for many proteins, which requires specialized biochemical experiments that are not high-throughput. DisProt and MobiDB are databases for intrinsic protein disorders.

Is retinol binding protein 4 an adipokine?

Yes, Retinol-binding protein 4 (RBP4) is a prominent adipokine.

What do nerve-associated peripheral glial progenitors give rise to?

Nerve-associated peripheral glial progenitors give rise to parasympathetic neurons. The parasympathetic system in mice--including trunk ganglia and the cranial ciliary, pterygopalatine, lingual, submandibular, and otic ganglia--arise from glial cells in nerves, not neural crest cells. The parasympathetic fate is induced in nerve-associated Schwann cell precursors at distal peripheral sites.

Which cells produce Interleukin 17A?

Interleukin (IL)-17A is secreted from T helper type 17 (TH17) cells.

In which phase of the cell cycle arrest is impaired in Fanconi anemia?

In response to damage induced by DNA cross-linking agents, the S-phase checkpoint is inefficient in Fanconi anemia (FA) cells, leading to accumulation of secondary lesions, such as single- and double-strand breaks and gaps. The prolonged time in G2 phase seen in FA cells therefore exists in order to allow the cells to remove lesions which accumulated during the preceding abnormal S phase.

What is the CRAPome database?

The CRAPome is a contaminant repository for affinity purification-mass spectrometry data.

What is the role of ZNF335 in microcephaly?

Znf335 null mice are embryonically lethal, and conditional knockout leads to severely reduced cortical size. RNA-interference and postmortem human studies show that ZNF335 is essential for neural progenitor self-renewal, neurogenesis, and neuronal differentiation.

What is circulating free DNA ( cfDNA)?

Known to be present in the blood of cancer patients for decades, cell-free DNA (cfDNA) is beginning to inform on tumor genetics, tumor burden, and mechanisms of progression and drug resistance.

Do archaeal genomes contain one or multiple origins of replication?

Some archaea replicate from single origins but most archaea and all eukaryotes replicate using multiple origins.

Does ESN364 activate the hypothalamic-pituitary-gonadal axis?

No, the NK3R antagonist, ESN364, suppressed the hypothalamic-pituitary-gonadal axis in healthy volunteers by selective modulation of gonadotropin secretion

Is PTEN involved in follicular thyroid carcinoma?

The PTEN mutation frequency in unselected cases of follicular thyroid carcinoma was 4.8%.

Is induction of interferon by TLR7 higher in males?

Yes. TLR7 activation correlates with induction of interferon more strongly in males.

List the major royal jelly proteins in Apis mellifera.

The genome of the western honeybee (Apis mellifera) harbors nine transcribed major royal jelly protein genes (mrjp1-9) which originate from a single-copy precursor via gene duplication.

What is foliglurax?

Foliglurax is a positive allosteric modulator of the metabotropic glutamate receptor 4. Foliglurax induced a robust and dose-dependent reversal of parkinsonian motor symptoms in macaques, including bradykinesia, tremor, posture, and mobility. Moreover, PXT002331 strongly decreased dyskinesia severity, thus having therapeutic efficacy on both parkinsonian motor impairment and l-dopa-induced dyskinesia. It was the first compound of its class to enter phase IIa clinical trials.

Which molecule is targeted by Teprotumumab?

Teprotumumab is a human monoclonal antibody that targets IGF-1R. It can be used for treatment of thyroid eye disease.

Atlanto-axial rotary instability (Fielding type 1) is common to what diseases?

Atlanto-axial instability (AAI) is common in the connective tissue disorders, such as rheumatoid arthritis, and increasingly recognized in the heritable disorders of Stickler, Loeys-Dietz, Marfan, Morquio, and Ehlers-Danlos (EDS) syndromes as well as infectious disease.

Which NGS alignment software implement the Burrows-Wheeler Transform?

The most widely used software belong to the family of the Burrows-Wheeler Aligner (BWA) and its variants for local alignment BWASW, map reduce BWASW-PMR and multi-threaded implementation BWA-MT. Other approaches include Bowtie, SOAP2, BWBBLE, SOAP2 and FANSe2.

The drug JTV519 is derivative of which group of chemical compounds?

The 1,4-benzothiazepine derivative JTV-519 is a new type of calcium ion channel modulator.JTV-519, which has potential use as an antiarrhythmic [285800]. The drug is a novel cardioprotectant derivative of 1,4-benzothiazepine for which phase I trials were completed in the third quarter of 1998

What can we measure with the TSA-Seq method?

Mapping 3D genome organization relative to nuclear compartments using TSA-Seq as a cytological ruler. TSA-Seq, a new mapping method capable of providing a "cytological ruler" for estimating mean chromosomal distances from nuclear speckles genome-wide and for predicting several Mbp chromosome trajectories between nuclear compartments without sophisticated computational modeling.

Does gepotidacin activate bacterial topoisomerase?

No, gepotidacin is a bacterial topoisomerase inhibitor.

What is GLS-5700?

GLS-5700 is a synthetic, consensus DNA vaccine encoding the ZIKV premembrane and envelope proteins that was tested for Zika virus disease.

Is there a genome-wide technique for the detection of R-loop formation?

Genome-wide analysis of fragile sites by chromatin immunoprecipitation (ChIP) and microarray (ChIP-chip) of phosphorylated H2A in these mutants supported a transcription-dependent mechanism of DNA damage characteristic of R loops. Here we show that recombination factors are required for the survival of yeast FACT mutants, consistent with an accumulation of DNA breaks that we detected by Rad52 foci and transcription-dependent hyperrecombination. The latter pathway operates on nascent transcripts that are not simultaneously translated and requires factors Rho, NusG, and NusA, each of which is essential for viability of WT Escherichia coli. DNA replication in Escherichia coli is normally initiated at a single origin, oriC, dependent on initiation protein DnaA.

Which molecule is targeted by Upadacitinib?

Upadacitinib is a Janus kinase 1 inhibitor developed for treatment of moderate to severe rheumatoid arthritis.

What is the function of yeast TERRA RNAs?

The ends of linear eukaryotic chromosomes are transcribed into different species of non-coding transcripts (the telomeric transcriptome), including TERRA (telomeric repeat-containing RNA) molecules. TERRA are part of the DNA damage response triggered by dysfunctional telomeres. In addition to its role as a template-encoding telomeric DNA synthesis, telomerase RNA has been shown to function as a flexible scaffold for protein subunits of the RNP holoenzyme.

In November 2017, in what phase was the clinical trial for the drug SYL040012?

SYL040012 is in phase 2 clinical trials

Is there a role for MRPL53 in cancer?

No. MRPL53 is a new candidate gene for orofacial clefting identified using an eQTL approach.

Thymoquinone is ineffective against radiation induced enteritis, yes or no?

No, Thymoquinone has been found to be effective against radiation induced enteritis

What is the function of a DEAD box protein?

DEAD-box helicases are ubiquitous in RNA-mediated processes and function by coupling cycles of ATP binding and hydrolysis to changes in affinity for single-stranded RNA.

Computational tools for predicting allosteric pathways in proteins

CorrSite identifies potential allosteric ligand-binding sites based on motion correlation analyses between cavities.

Has Denosumab (Prolia) been approved by FDA?

Yes, Denosumab was approved by the FDA in 2010.

What is the most advanced phase of clinical trial that fingolimod has entered?

Fingolimod has been assessed in phase IV clinical trials.

What is the function of the spliceosome complex?

The excision of introns from nascent eukaryotic transcripts is catalyzed by the spliceosome, a highly complex and dynamic macromolecular machine composed of RNA and protein.

Which is the cellular localization of the protein Opa1?

The Opa1 protein localizes to the mitochondria.

What is known about prostate cancer screening in the UK

Screening for early disease has been available for many years, but there is still no national screening programme established in the United Kingdom. Two systematic reviews have concluded that screening should not be carried out. In general, this recommendation has been accepted in the United Kingdom.

Can acupuncture cause spinal epidural hematoma?

Yes, acupuncture can cause spinal epidural hematoma.

What are the main results of PRKAR1A Knockdown?

Suppression of protein kinase A regulatory subunit 1 alpha (PRKAR1A) has been proven to inhibit cholangiocarcinoma (CCA) cell growth and enhance apoptosis. Also, Knockdown of the cAMP-dependent protein kinase (PKA) Type Ialpha regulatory subunit in mouse oocytes disrupts meiotic arrest and results in meiotic spindle defects.

The MMR vaccine protects against what 3 viruses?

The MMR vaccine provides immunity to measles, mumps and rubella.

Are stem cell transplants used to treat acute kidney injury?

Yes, stem cell transplantation is becoming the treatment of choice for complicated acute kidney injury.

Interaction of WDR5 with which gene has a critical role in pancreatic cancer?

Mechanistically, WDR5 functions to sustain proper execution of DNA replication in pancreatic ductal adenocarcinoma (PDAC) cells, as previously suggested by replication stress studies involving MLL1, and c-Myc, also found to interact with WDR5. It was indeed demonstrated that interaction with c-Myc is critical for this function.

How early during pregnancy does non-invasive cffDNA testing allow sex determination of the fetus?

Using cffDNA from maternal blood, the fetal gender can be determined as early as 6 to 10 weeks of gestation (during the first trimester of pregnancy).

Is PLK2 involved in alpha-synuclein phosphorylation in the nervous system?

Polo-like kinase 2 (PLK2) phosphorylates alpha-synuclein at serine 129 in the central nervous system.

Is there a disease or condition called Exploding Head Syndrome?

Exploding head syndrome (EHS) is characterized by loud noises or a sense of explosion in the head during sleep transitions.

List proteins of lipids droplets

perilipins adipose differentiation-related protein lipid storage droplet protein 5 tail-interacting protein of 47 kilodaltons S3-12

Which are the main components of mTORC1?

The mTOR (mammalian target of rapamycin) protein kinase is an important regulator of cell growth and is a key target for therapeutic intervention in cancer. Two complexes of mTOR have been identified: complex 1 (mTORC1), consisting of mTOR, Raptor (regulatory associated protein of mTOR) and mLST8 (mammalian lethal with SEC13 protein 8) and complex 2 (mTORC2) consisting of mTOR, Rictor (rapamycin-insensitive companion of mTOR), Sin1 (stress-activated protein kinase-interacting protein 1), and mLST8.

Which is the primary enzyme metabolizing esomeprazole?

Esomeprazole is primarily metabolized by CYP2C19.

How many doses of vaxchora are required?

Vaxchora is a single-dose vaccine.

In what percentage of skeletal muscle fibers is dystrophin expression restored after PPMO- mediated exon skipping?

PPMO-mediated exon skipping restored the dystrophin expression in nearly 100% skeletal muscle fibers in all age groups.

What is the difference in the roles of Tcf1 and Tcf3 during development?

Τhere are opposing effects of Tcf3 and Tcf1 in the control of Wnt stimulation of embryonic stem cell self-renewal. In contrast to β-catenin-dependent functions described for Tcf1 the known embryonic functions for Tcf3 are consistent with β-catenin-independent repressor activity. Wnt signal stimulation reduces the level of Tcf3, and increases those of Tcf1 (also known as Tcf7) and Lef1, positive mediators of Wnt signaling.

What is the price of KYMRIAH treatment in 2019?

Kymriah, produced by Novartis has a price tag of US$475,000.

Which CYP gene polymorphism is a well-known predictor of efavirenz disposition?

Cytochrome P450 (CYP) CYP2B6 G516T (rs3745274) is a well-known predictor of efavirenz disposition.

What is the enzymatic activity of the breast cancer associated gene BRCA1?

E3-ubiquitin ligase activity is the only known enzymatic activity of BRCA1, which is mediated by the N-terminal RING finger domain.BRCA1 nuclear transport and ubiquitin E3 ligase enzymatic activity are tightly regulated by the BRCA1 dimeric binding partner BARD1 and further modulated by cancer mutations and diverse signaling pathways.

Which programming language has been used for implementing GWAR?

Stata

Other than protein coding potential, what features set apart long non-coding RNAs from protein coding genes?

Compared to protein coding genes, long non-coding RNAs (lncRNAs) display a bias towards two-exon transcripts. They are predominantly localized in the chromatin and nucleous. They are lower expressed and display a more tissue-specific expression pattern. LncRNAs are overall more weakly conserved than protein coding genes.

What is the triple screening test performed during pregnancy measuring?

Alpha-fetoprotein (AFP), human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) and unconjugated estriol (uE3)

Through which protein interaction does MLP regulate F-actin dynamics?

The interaction of MLP with CFL2 has direct implications in actin cytoskeleton dynamics in regulating CFL2-dependent F-actin depolymerization, with maximal depolymerization enhancement at an MLP/CFL2 molecular ratio of 2:1. Deregulation of this interaction by intracellular pH variations, CFL2 phosphorylation, MLP or CFL2 gene mutations, or expression changes, as observed in a range of cardiac and skeletal myopathies, could impair F-actin depolymerization, leading to sarcomere dysfunction and disease.

What body process does the Dentate Gyrus Mossy Cell control?

Dentate gyrus mossy cells control spontaneous convulsive seizures and cognition

What is known as Calcium Induced Calcium Release (CICR) and its role in cardiomyocyte contractility?

the cicr mechanism has been understood mainly based on binding of cytosolic ca(2+) with ryanodine receptors (ryrs) and inducing ca(2+) release from the sarcoplasmic reticulum (sr). l-type ca(2+) channels activate ryrs to produce cicr in smooth muscle cells in the form of ca(2+) sparks and propagated ca(2+) waves. in heart cells, a tight coupling between the gating of single l-type ca(2+) channels and ryanodine receptors (ryrs) underlies calcium release. the importance of ca-induced ca release in excitation-contraction coupling in the heart. waves of calcium-induced calcium release occur in a variety of cell types and have been implicated in the origin of cardiac arrhythmias. in mammals, ca(2+) influx as l-type ca(2+) current (ica) triggers the release of ca(2+) from sarcoplasmic reticulum (sr) and ca(2+)-induced ca(2+) release (cicr) is critical for excitation-contraction coupling.

Which tool has been developed for coverage calculation for genomes?

Mosdepth is a command-line tool for rapidly calculating genome-wide sequencing coverage. It measures depth from BAM or CRAM files at either each nucleotide position in a genome or for sets of genomic regions. Genomic regions may be specified as either a BED file to evaluate coverage across capture regions, or as a fixed-size window as required for copy-number calling. Mosdepth uses a simple algorithm that is computationally efficient and enables it to quickly produce coverage summaries.

Which gene(s) should be genotyped in order to prescribe the drug Cetuximab (anti-EGFR)?

KRAS mutation has been unambiguously identified as a marker of resistance to cetuximab-based treatment in metastatic colorectal cancer (mCRC) patients. Other genes are such as EGFR, BRAF and T53 have also been suggested to be genotyped in order to evaluate the drug responsivness.

Carbapenemase-producing gram-negative bacteria is a major health concern because their resistance to antibiotics. List the most frequent carbapenemases found in Enterobacteriaceae.

The most frequent carbapenemases in Enterobacteriaceae are OXA-48, KPC, VIM, NDM, IMP, SME, NMC, GES, IMI and MBL.

What is the proteoform?

Although proteomics has rapidly developed in the past decade, researchers are still in the early stage of exploring the world of complex proteoforms, which are protein products with various primary structure alterations resulting from gene mutations, alternative splicing, post-translational modifications, and other biological processes

List the ten types of conjoined twins.

Thoraco-omphalopagus: Two bodies fused from the upper chest to the lower chest. These twins usually share a heart, and may also share the liver or part of the digestive system. Thoracopagus:Two bodies fused from the upper thorax to lower belly. The heart is always involved in these cases. Omphalopagus: Two bodies fused at the lower abdomen. Unlike thoracopagus, the heart is never involved in these cases. Pyopagus: joined at the buttocks with sacrum and coccyx anomalies Rachipagus: Joined at the spine with vertebral and neural tube defects Ischiopagus: joined at the hip from umbilicus to conjoined pelvis Parasitic twins: Twins that are asymmetrically conjoined, resulting in one twin that is small, less formed, and dependent on the larger twin for survival. Craniopagus: Fused skulls, but separate bodies Cephalopagus: head but not face or foramen magnum, brains are usually separate Dicephalus dipus dibrachius: 2 heads and one body

What is an organoid?

Organoids are a three-dimensional in vitro culture platform constructed from self-organizing stem cells. They can almost accurately recapitulate tumor heterogeneity and microenvironment "in a dish," which surpass established cell lines and are not as expensive and time-consuming as PDTXs. As an intermediate model, tumor organoids are also used to study the fundamental issues of tumorigenesis and metastasis. They are specifically applied for drug testing and stored as "living biobanks."

Does melanoma occur in people of African origin ?

Yes. Africans with dark skin have a reduced risk of getting all types of skin cancer as compared with Caucasians. The incidence of malignant melanoma in Johannesburg Black was 1,2 per 100 000 and accounted for 2% of all cancers. The largest number of cases occurred in the 50- 70-year age group and there was a female preponderance. As in previous studies, the sites predominantly affected were the foot and the hand, mainly on the plantar and palmar surfaces.

Which plant does oleuropein originate from?

Oleuropein originates from olive trees, and is specifically found in olive leaf extracts.

What was the predominant rotavirus genotype in the pre-vaccine era, in Australia?

G1P[8] was the dominant genotype in Australia in the prevaccine era (1995-2006).

What is the function of emergency granulopoiesis?

ARIH2 encodes TRIAD1, an E3 ubiquitin ligase required for termination of emergency granulopoiesis and leukemia suppressor function in AML . The Interferon Consensus Sequence Binding Protein (Icsbp/Irf8) Is Required for Termination of Emergency GranulopOiesis . Emergency granulopsis is the enhanced production of neutrophils by hematopoietic stem and progenitor cells (HSPCs) upon infection .

Which proteins are the different isoforms of the p38 MAP kinase?

The p38 Mitogen-Activated Protein (MAP) kinase, a serine/threonine kinase, is one of the best characterized kinases in the inflammatory process. There are four isoforms of the enzyme (p38alpha, p38beta, p38gamma and p38delta), which differ in tissue distribution, regulation of kinase activation and subsequent phosphorylation of downstream substrates. Among the four identified p38 isoforms (p38α, p38β, p38γ, and p38δ), the α-form is the most fully studied.

How is ZP-PTH delivered to patients?

ZP-PTH uses a transdermal drug-coated microneedle patch system.

What is known about depression in acoustic neuroma patients?

From 10.2% to 38% acoustic neuroma patients report depression. Depression is predicted by the number of symptoms, prolonged postoperative headache, deterioration of hearing and female gender.

Which cytokine molecule activates SMADs?

SMADs are activated by Transforming growth factor beta (TGF beta)

Is propranolol used for treatment of infantile hemangioma?

Yes, propranolol is becoming the treatment of choice for complicated infantile hemangioma.

Which gene test can be used for the X-linked myotubular myopathy?

Genetic testing of the MTM1 gene can be used for the X-linked myotubular myopathy.

What is the target of the drug Olaparib?

The drug Olaparib target the protein poly(ADP-ribose) polymerase.

List features of the Triple A syndrome.

Triple A (Allgrove) syndrome is a rare autosomal recessive disorder characterized by cardinal features of adrenal insufficiency, achalasia, and alacrimia. It is frequently associated with neurological manifestations like polyneuropathy.

Are there antimicrobial proteins in royal jelly?

Yes, Jelleines, isolated as novel antibacterial peptides from the Royal Jelly (RJ) of bees, exhibit broad-spectrum protection against microbial infections.

Which is the gene mutated in type 1 neurofibromatosis?

NF1 gene, encoding neurofibromin 1

What is the outcome of COVID-19 patients treated with tocilizumab?

Preliminary clinical results have indicated that tocilizumab can improve the outcomes of patients with severe or critical COVID-19 while maintaining a good safety profile.

Which tendons are affected in the Dequervain's tenosynovitis?

DeQuervain's tenosynovitis is a common cause of radial-sided wrist pain. Symptoms result from a narrow first dorsal compartment and associated tendinosis of the enclosed extensor pollicis brevis and/or abductor pollicis longus.

Is there a role for TET proteins in invariant natural killer T cells (iNKT) cell fate?

Yes. Tet2-TET proteins regulate the lineage specification and TCR-mediated expansion of iNKT cells. TETs are ubiquitously expressed and play diverse roles in gene regulation, imprinting, insulation, intra/interchromosomal interactions, nuclear compartmentalisation, and alternative splicing. Depletion of Tet2 and its ligand, Tet3, from mouse CD4CD8 double-positive thymus-derived cardiomyocytes (iNKT) resulted in dysregulated development and proliferation, with increased expression of tumour suppressor genes and decreased

Which protein does empagliflozin inhibit?

Empagliflozin (Jardiance) is a SGLT2 inhibitor.

What are the functions of the ESCRT machinery?

The endosomal sorting complexes required for transport (ESCRT) are needed for three distinct cellular functions in higher eukaryotes: (i) Multivesicular body formation for the degradation of transmembrane proteins in lysosomes, (ii) midbody abscission during cytokinesis and (iii) retroviral budding.

Is farnesoid X receptor (FXR) a nuclear receptor?

Yes, farnesoid X receptor (FXR) is a nuclear receptor.

List clinical trials for prevention of sarcopenia

Several clinical trials with androgen replacement therapy. Study was to evaluate the effect of omega-3 fatty acid supplementation on the rate of muscle protein synthesis. This trial was registered at clinical trials.gov as NCT00794079

What are the functions of DNA and RNA G-quadruplexes?

G-Quadruplex, a unique secondary structure in nucleic acids found throughout human genome, elicited widespread interest in the field of therapeutic research. Being present in key regulatory regions of oncogenes, RNAs and telomere, G-Quadruplex structure regulates transcription, translation, splicing, etc

Intetumumab has been tested in clinical trials for treatment of which cancers?

Intetumumab has been tested in clinical trials for treatment of prostate cancer, melanoma and angiosarcoma.

What is TPMCalculator?

The quantification of RNA sequencing (RNA-seq) abundance using a normalization method that calculates transcripts per million (TPM) is a key step to compare multiple samples from different experiments. TPMCalculator is a one-step software to process RNA-seq alignments in BAM format and reports TPM values, raw read counts and feature lengths for genes, transcripts, exons and introns. The program describes the genomic features through a model generated from the gene transfer format (GTF) file used during alignments reporting of the TPM values and the raw read counts for each feature.

What is latex bead phagocytosis?

Macrophage scavenger function was assessed by an in vitro latex bead phagocytosis assay. We developed a scanning cytometry-based high-throughput assay of macrophage phagocytosis that quantitates bound and internalized unopsonized latex beads.

Where is the EpCam protein mainly located?

Epithelial cell adhesion molecule (EpCAM) is a type I transmembrane glycoprotein

What type of DNA repair pathways is initiated by AlkA glycosylase?

The AlkA protein (3-methyladenine DNA glycosylase II protein) is a monofunctional DNA glycosylase that recognizes a broad range of oxidized and alkylated base lesions and catalyzes the hydrolysis of the N-glycosidic bond to initiate the base excision repair (BER) pathway.

Which method is available for whole genome identification of pathogenic regulatory variants in mendelian disease?

Genomiser

What is the "protein inference problem"?

A major challenge in shotgun proteomics has been the assignment of identified peptides to the proteins from which they originate, referred to as the protein inference problem.

Name monoclonal antibody against SLAMF7.

Elotuzumab is a humanized monoclonal antibody specific for signaling lymphocytic activation molecule-F7 (SLAMF7, also known as CS1, CD319, or CRACC) that enhances natural killer cell-mediated antibody-dependent cellular cytotoxicity of SLAMF7-expressing myeloma cells.

Describe mechanism of action of Eteplirsen?

Eteplirsen (Exondys 51) is an antisense oligonucleotide designed to induce exon 51 skipping. Eteplirsen is approved for the treatment of Duchenne muscular dystrophy (DMD) in patients with a confirmed mutation of the DMD gene amenable to exon 51 skipping.