Datasets:

enelpol

/

rag-mini-bioasq-with-metadata

like 2

Follow

Enelpol 10

Has Hesperidin any role as a Neuroprotective Agent?

Neuroprotective effect of hesperetin and nano-hesperetin on recognition memory impairment and the elevated oxygen stress in rat model of Alzheimer's disease

Which protein is causing Netherton syndrome?

Netherton syndrome (NS) is a serious inherited skin disorder caused by mutations in the gene SPINK5 (serine protease inhibitor Kazal type 5) which encodes for a serine protease inhibitor LEKTI (lymphoepithelial Kazal type-related inhibitor)

What is Soluvia?

Soluvia(tm) by Becton Dickinson is a microinjection system for intradermal delivery of vaccines.

What is mechanism of action of Benralizumab?

Benralizumab is a humanised, anti-interleukin 5 receptor α monoclonal antibody that directly and rapidly depletes eosinophils, reduces asthma exacerbations, and improves lung function for patients with severe eosinophilic asthma.

Is the process of DNA loop-extrusion independent of ATP?

The process of DNA loop-extrusion is not independent of ATP. It is dependent on the energy of ATP hydrolysis.

Which mutations in the cardiac isoform of the ryanodine receptor (RyR2) have been found to be related to CPVT?

Recently, a novel CPVT RyR2 mutation, G230C, was found to increase the cytosolic, but not the luminal, Ca2+ sensitivity of single RyR2 channels in lipid bilayers. The novel RYR2-S4153R mutation has been implicated as a cause of CPVT and atrial fibrillation. A novel RyR2-V2475F mutation is associated with CPVT in humans. 3 CPVT mouse models are: RyR2-R2474S+/-, RyR2-N2386I+/-, and RyR2-L433P+/-. The E189D RyR2 mutation is causative for CPVT. A knock-in mouse model carrier of the R4496C mutation is the mouse equivalent to the R4497C mutations identified in CPVT families. Scanning of 12 Finnish CPVT probands identified three novel RYR2 mutations (V2306I, P4902L, R4959Q), which were absent in unaffected and control individuals. Three CPVT-linked human RyR2 (hRyR2) mutations are: S2246L, N4104K, and R4497C.

Does dronedarone affect T3 and T4 levels?

NO.

Is ocrelizumab effective for treatment of multiple sclerosis?

Yes, ocrelizumab is effective for primary progressive form of multiple sclerosis.

How thyrocyte destruction is induced in autoimmune thyroiditis?

Thyrocytes from Hashimoto's thyroiditis (HT) glands, but not from nonautoimmune thyroids, expressed Fas (CD95), therefore autonomous interaction between thyrocyte Fas (CD95) and FasL (CD95L) has been proposed as a major mechanism of thyrocyte depletion in HT. Moreover, experimental evidence has showed that Infiltrating T Lymphocytes (ITLs) do not express significant amounts of FasL, suggesting that ITLs are not directly involved in thyrocyte destruction.

What is the function of BACH1

BACH1) is the first mammalian heme-binding transcription factor that belongs to the basic region leucine zipper (bZIP) family and a member of CNC (cap 'n' collar

Which disease is diagnosed using the Finkelstein's test?

Finkelstein's test is the classic diagnostic test for de Quervain's disease.

Which protein complexes recognize centromeric (CEN) DNA in yeast?

The Schizosaccharomyces pombe centromere-linked genes, LYS1 and CYH1 on chromosome I and TPS13 and RAN1 on chromosome II, have been isolated. In budding yeast, as well as in other eukaryotes, the Cse4 histone variant (known in vertebrates as CENP-A) is believed to substitute for histone H3 at the centromeric nucleosome.

What disease is mirtazapine predominantly used for?

Mirtazapine is predominantly used in the treatment of major depression.

Name the three phase 3, randomized, double-blind, placebo-controlled that assessed galcanezumab?

Galcanezumab has been assessed in the phase 3, randomized, double-blind, placebo-controlled EVOLVE-1, EVOLVE-2 and REGAIN studies.

Are Ultra-conserved elements (UCEs) enriched in segmental duplications?

ULEs are located in intergenic or intronic regions and are depleted from segmental duplications. In addition, here we show that these elements are preferentially found in pathogenic deletions (enrichment ratio 3.6 vs. 0.5 in duplications), and that this association is not related with a higher content of genes.

Are microRNA (miR) regulated through DNA methylation of their promoters?

Dysregulation of miRNA expression involved in cancer and Alzheimer's disease can be triggered by multiple mechanisms including aberrant DNA methylation of the miRNA gene promoter. Epigenetic dysregulation of tumor-suppressor miRNA genes by promoter DNA methylation has been implicated in human cancers, including multiple myeloma (MM).

In which types of DNA repair is the UvrAB complex involved?

UvrB and the lesion-recognition factor UvrA form the UvrAB complex, which plays a key role in bacterial nucleotide excision repair (NER). In transcription-coupled repair (TCR), the transcription repair coupling factor Mfd recruits uvrA, and the assembled UvrAB complex initiates repair. UvrAB complex also suppresses illegitimate recombination.

What is the function of osteolectin?

C-type lectin domain family 11 member A (Clec11a), also known as stem cell growth factor (SCGF), C-type lectin superfamily member 3 (CLECSF3), or osteolectin was initially identified as a growth factor for hematopoietic progenitor cells.

What is the function of the MTH1 enzyme in cancer cells?

The MTH1 protein catalyzes hydrolysis of oxidatively damaged purine nucleotides including 8-hydroxy-dGTP to the monophosphates. The MTH1 protein seems to act as an important defense system against mutagenesis, carcinogenesis, and cell death induced by oxidized purine nucleotides.

The Mantoux test detects what latent infection/disease?

screened for TB infection with a Mantoux tuberculin skin testtuberculin skin test (TST) performed according to the Mantoux method.

Is COL5A2 gene associated to ischemic heart disease?

Analysis of a gene co-expression network establishes robust association between Col5a2 and ischemic heart disease

What is MINDY-1?

MINDY-1 (motif interacting with Ub-containing novel DUB family) is a member of an evolutionarily conserved and structurally distinct new family of deubiquitinating enzymes. Found in all eukaryotes, MINDY-family DUBs are highly selective at cleaving K48-linked polyUb, a signal that targets proteins for degradation. MINDY-1 prefers cleaving long polyUb chains and works by trimming chains from the distal end.

Does Chromatin Immunoprecipitation (ChIP) show a bias for highly expressed loci?

Several issues in the processing and analysis of ChIP-chip data have not been resolved fully, including the effect of background (mock control) subtraction and normalization within and across arrays. We detected a chromatin-state bias: open chromatin regions yielded higher coverage, which led to false positives if not corrected. The localization of unrelated proteins, including the entire silencing complex, to the most highly transcribed genes was highly suggestive of a technical issue with the immunoprecipitations.

Give examples of next-generation sequencing applications in mutation screening?

Next generation sequencing data for a particular genomic region can be seen as the summation of all the individual sequences (reads) obtained for that region and no longer as the mean of this sum as it is the case for traditional Sanger sequencing. NGS is introduced to an increasing number of mutation screening applications. An NGS based mutation screening procedure allowing the detection of inherited Alu insertions within any predefined sequence was used for the case of c.1739_1740insAlu in BRCA1 and c.156_157insAlu in BRCA2. Another NGS study screened BRCA1 and BRCA2 resulting in overall sensitivity for SOLiD and PGM of 97.8% (95% CI = 94.7 to 100.0) and 98.9% (95% CI = 96.8 to 100.0) respectively. The specificity for the SOLiD platform was high, at 100.0% (95% CI = 99.3 to 100.0). PGM correctly identified all 3 indels, but 68 false-positive indels were also called. Genes known to cause deafness were sequenced by the Illumina NGS platform. Results demonstrated that targeted exons captured by our approach achieved specificity, multiplexicity, uniformity, and depth of coverage suitable for accurate sequencing applications by the NGS systems. Reliable genotype calls for various homozygous and heterozygous mutations were achieved. In the context of von Willebrand disease 43 mutations, including 36 substitutions, 2 intronic splice site mutations, 2 indels, and 3 deletions were screened on the next-generation sequencing instrument. This demonstrated that at least 350 patients and relatives per run can be simultaneously analyzed in a fast, inexpensive manner. The Alport syndrome is caused by mutations in three key genes namely COL4A3, COL4A4 and COL4A5, each of which consists of approximately 50 exons, thus rendering mutations screening a highly time consuming and expensive endeavor. NGS is now being established for the simultaneous, fast and cost-effective detection of all possible variants in these three genes. NGS has also been used screening EGFR, KRAS and BRAF for mutations associated with cancer diagnosis and/or response to several anticancer therapies. NGS has also been used in mutation screening for hereditary spastic paraplegias, X linked leucoencephalopathy, retinitis pigmentosa, inherited urea cycle disorders, as well as the Marfan (MFS), Loeys-Dietz (LDS) and Meckel syndromes.

Is there a difference in the rate between gene fusion and gene fission?

Yes. Several studies have estimated that gene fusion and fission are relatively rare events and the gene fusion/fission rate is approximately between 2 and 6. A conflicting case has been discovered in an analysis of plant genomes, where in Oryza sativa the opposite trend was observed.

What is the involvement of PDGFRB in metastatic medulloblastoma?

Platelet-derived growth factor (PDGF) receptor B (PDGFRB) expression was shown to correlate with metastatic medulloblastoma, while PDGFRB tyrosine kinase activity was demonstrated to be critical for migration and invasion of medulloblastoma cells possibly by transactivating EGFR.

How can PEGylation improve recombinant drugs?

PEGylation primarily improves pharmacokinetics and helps to prevent adverse drug reactions, by increasing the molecular mass of proteins and peptides and shielding them from proteolytic enzymes.

What are prions?

Prion diseases are protein conformation disorders and neither caused by viroid or virus but is a transmissible particle labeled a prion by Pruisner. Normal prion protein becomes infectious by a different folding, but the triggers are not known.

Which proteins in the cerebro-spinal fluid can be used for early diagnosis of Alzheimer's disease?

CSF is a clear fluid that bathes and cushions the brain and spinal cord. Adults have about 1 pint of CSF, which physicians can sample through a minimally invasive procedure called a lumbar puncture, or spinal tap. Research suggests that Alzheimer's disease in its earliest stages may cause changes in CSF levels of tau and beta-amyloid, two proteins that form abnormal brain deposits strongly linked to the disease.

Describe the mechanism of action of Trilaciclib.

Trilaciclib is cyclin-dependent kinase 4 and 6 (CDK4/6) inhibitor, which act by inhibiting progression from the G1 to S phases of the cell cycle.

Which driver mutations have been identified for Diffuse Intrinsic Pontine Glioma (DIPG)?

We found conservation of heterozygous K27M mutations in H3F3A (n = 4) or HIST1H3B (n = 3) across all primary, contiguous, and metastatic tumor sites in all DIPGs

What is the indication of ARCALYST?

In February 2008, Regeneron received Orphan Drug approval from the Food and Drug Administration for rilonacept in the treatment of two cryopyrin-associated periodic syndromes (CAPS) disorders, namely, familial cold-induced autoinflammatory syndrome (FCAS) and Muckle-Wells syndrome (MWS), for children and adults 12 years and older.

Which enzyme is deficient in Krabbe disease?

Galactocerebrosidase is an enzyme that is deficient in Krabbe disease (also known as globoid-cell leukodystrophy). This leads to accumulation of psychosine (galactosylsphingosine) primarily in oligodendrocytes.

Which protein phosphatase has been found to interact with the heat shock protein, HSP20?

Protein phosphatase-1 activity is regulated by two binding partners, inhibitor-1 and the small heat shock protein 20, Hsp20. Cell fractionation, coimmunoprecipitation, and coimmunolocalization studies, revealed an association between Hsp20 and PP1. Small heat shock protein 20 interacts with protein phosphatase-1 and enhances sarcoplasmic reticulum calcium cycling.

What part of the body is associated with Cauda equina

The cauda equina is the sack of nerve roots (nerves that leave the spinal cord between spaces in the bones of the spine to connect to other parts of the body) at the lower end of the spinal cord.

What is the advantage of neutral loss detection in phosphoproteomics?

The localization of phosphorylation sites in peptide sequences is a challenging problem in large-scale phosphoproteomics analysis. The intense neutral loss peaks and the coexistence of multiple serine/threonine and/or tyrosine residues are limiting factors for objectively scoring site patterns across thousands of peptides. CID of phosphopeptides typically results in spectra dominated by a neutral loss of the phosphate group allowing detection and sequencing of phosphopeptides.

What is the inheritance pattern of Emery-Dreifuss muscular dystrophy?

The inheritance pattern of Emery-Dreifuss muscular dystrophy (EDMD) can be X-linked, autosomal dominant or autosomal recessive.

Can you computationally predict Molecular Recognition Features (MoRFs) regions in Intrinsically Disordered Proteins (IDPs)?

Yes. There are various tools available in the literature that enable computational identification of Molecular Recognition Features (MoRFs) regions in intrinsically disordered protein sequences.

How many PML isoforms exist in the human genome?

PML, the organizer of nuclear bodies (NBs), is expressed in several isoforms designated PMLI to VII which differ in their C-terminal region due to alternative splicing of a single gene.

List symptoms of Heerfordt syndrome.

Heerfordt syndrome (also known as Heerfordt-Waldenström or uveoparotid fever) is a rare presentation of sarcoidosis characterized by the presence of parotid gland enlargement, facial palsy, anterior uveitis, and fever.

Which disease the skin condition Necrobiosis lipoidica diabeticorum is associated to?

Necrobiosis lipoidica diabeticorum (NLD) is a rare, granulomatous inflammatory skin disease of unknown origin, sometimes associated with diabetes mellitus.

Are variants in FHF2 (also known as FGF13) associated with encephalopathy?

Yes. FHF2 (also known as FGF13) variants are a cause of infantile-onset developmental and epileptic encephalopathy.

Does Axitinib prolong survival of Pancreatic Cancer patients?

No. The addition of axitinib to gemcitabine does not improve overall survival in advanced pancreatic cancer.

What is the role of phenylbutyrate–taurursodiol for amyotrophic lateral sclerosis?

Treatment of amyotrophic lateral sclerosis patients with phenylbutyrate–taurursodiol was associated with both functional and survival benefits.

What can be isolated from Pleurotus mutilus?

Pleuromutilins are antibiotics, isolated from the fungus, Pleurotus mutilus, that selectively inhibit bacterial translation and are semisynthetic derivatives of the naturally occurring tricyclic diterpenoid pleuromutilins.

Can NADPH oxidase be inhibited by apocynin and diphenylene iodonium?

Yes, nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide phosphate (NADPH) oxidase can be inhibited by apocynin or diphenylene iodonium (DPI).

What is a coligo?

Coligos are circularized oligodeoxynucleotides

Have 5q35 microdeletions been implicated in Sotos syndrome development?

Loss-of-function mutations of NSD1 and 5q35 microdeletions encompassing NSD1 are a major cause of Sotos syndrome (Sos), which is characterized by overgrowth, macrocephaly, characteristic facies, and variable intellectual disability (ID).

Which is the master oncogenic transcription factor in T-cell acute lymphoblastic leukemia?

The oncogenic transcription factor TAL1/SCL induces an aberrant transcriptional program in T-cell Acute lymphoblastic Leukemia (T-ALL) cells.

Which algorithms have been developed for analysing CRISPR/Cas9 knockout screens data?

HiTSelect and MAGeCK (Model-based Analysis of Genome-wide CRISPR/Cas9 Knockout)

Which genes of the marmoset genome exhibit rapid sequence evolution?

Both protein-coding and microRNA genes related to reproduction exhibit evidence of rapid sequence evolution in the marmoset genome.

Which disease is PGT121 used for?

The broadly neutrilizing antibody PGT121 is being tested against HIV-1.

is pharmacological treatment of subclinical hypothyroidism effective in reducing cardiovascular events?

whether SH confers a high risk for cardiovascular disease, and whether LT4 therapy has a long-term benefit that clearly outweighs the risks of overzealous treatment in these individuals, remain topics of controversy.

Are splicing speckles associated with transcription?

Speckles contain little detectable transcriptional activity.

Which transcription factor controls Drosophila's Hes genes?

The Notch/Hes axis represses a cohort of transcription factor genes . In Drosophila, activation of the Notch receptor induces transcriptional repressors encoded by the hairy/Enhancer of split (HES) genes, which shut off achaete-scute transcription . The molecular details of how Hes and Hey proteins control transcription are still poorly understood .

What conditions are diagnosed using the scratch collapse test?

Scouring collapse test is used for the diagnosis of cts, cubital tunnel syndrome and carpal tunnel syndrome.

Which disease can be categorized using the Koos grading system?

Koos grading system is used for vestibular schwannoma.

Can venlafaxine block NET and SERT?

Yes, venlafaxine inhibits both the NET and SERT.

List the classical symptoms of the Moschcowitz syndrome (Thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura).

The typical manifestations of Moschocowitz syndrome (Thrombotic-thrombocytopenic purpura) are: 1) thrombocytopenia, 2) haemolysis, 3) fever, 4) coma and 5) renal failure.

Which receptor is targeted by Erenumab?

Erenumab is a human monoclonal antibody that inhibits the calcitonin gene-related peptide receptor, is being evaluated for migraine prevention.

What causes Black Lung?

Black lung, also known as pneumoconiosis, is caused by chronic exposure to coal dust.

What is the mechanism of action of decitabine?

Decitabine reactivates unmethylated p21WAF1 in some AML cell lines but the possible occurrence of p21WAF1 methylation in AML in vivo has not been studied in detail and decitabine effects on p21WAF1 chromatin remodeling have not been reported. We also discuss the following questions: What is the best administration schedule of decitabine in solid tumors? Is there tumor type specificity for decitabine-based epigenetic therapy? We found that p21WAF1 mRNA was undetectable in 6 of 24 AML patient samples and 4 of 5 AML cell lines but there was no evidence of p21WAF1 promoter methylation.

What are commensal bacteria?

The gut microbiota is composed of a large number of microbes, usually regarded as commensal bacteria. Maintenance of the commensal bacteria that comprise the gut microbiome is essential to both gut and systemic health.

Is TENS machine effective in pain?

Transcutaneous electrical nerve stimulation is widely used in pain management

What is the link between Ctf4 and Chl1 in cohesion establishment?

Ctf4 links DNA replication with sister chromatid cohesion establishment by recruiting the Chl1 helicase to the replisome. The Eco1 acetyltransferase, helped by factors including Ctf4 and Chl1, concomitantly acetylates the chromosomal cohesin complex to stabilize its cohesive links.

What does csDMARD stand for?

csDMARDS are conventional synthetic disease-modifying antirheumatic drugs.

Is there a deep-learning algorithm for protein solubility prediction?

Yes. DeepSol is a novel deep learning-based protein solubility predictor. It is a convolutional neural network that exploits k-mer structure and additional sequence and structural features extracted from the protein sequence.

What is CIS43LS?

CIS43LS is an antimalarial monoclonal antibody with an extended half-life against infection with Plasmodium falciparum.

Name the algorithms for counting multi-mapping reads

RNA-Seq is currently used routinely, and it provides accurate information on gene transcription. However, the method cannot accurately estimate duplicated genes expression. Several strategies have been previously used (drop duplicated genes, distribute uniformly the reads, or estimate expression), but all of them provide biased results. Mmquant is a tool for computing gene expression, including duplicated genes. If a read maps at different positions, the tool detects that the corresponding genes are duplicated; it merges the genes and creates a merged gene. The counts of ambiguous reads is then based on the input genes and the merged genes. Other methods have been developed that use weighted allocation of read counts but these methods treat the different types of multi-reads equivalently. For instance a hierarchical approach was developed for allocation of read counts that first resolves ambiguities among genes, then among isoforms, and lastly between alleles. The model has been implemented in EMASE software (Expectation-Maximization for Allele Specific Expression) to estimate total gene expression, isoform usage and ASE based on this hierarchical allocation.

What type of sequences do enhancers evolve from?

Studies have identified enhancers that were pivotal for morphological divergence and highlighted how novel genetic networks shaping form emerged from pre-existing ones.Most of the recently evolved enhancers arise from ancestral dna exaptation , rather than lineage-specific expansions of repeat elements.

What was fingolimod synthesized from?

FTY720 (fingolimod, Gilenya®) was synthesized from myriocin, one of the metabolites of the fungus Isaria sinclairii known from traditional Chinese medicine for its antibacterial and energy boosting effect.

Which is the E3 ubiquitin ligase of Hsp90?

Carboxyl terminus of hsc70-interacting protein (CHIP) can mediate ubiquitination of the 90 kDa heat-shock protein (hsp90) in vitro, with subsequent proteasomal degradation of the chaperone.

Describe genomiser

Genomiser is an analysis framework that is able not only to score the relevance of variation in the non-coding genome, but also to associate regulatory variants to specific Mendelian diseases. Genomiser scores variants through either existing methods such as CADD or a bespoke machine learning method and combines these with allele frequency, regulatory sequences, chromosomal topological domains, and phenotypic relevance to discover variants associated to specific Mendelian disorders. Genomiser is able to identify causal regulatory variants as the top candidate in 77% of simulated whole genomes, allowing effective detection and discovery of regulatory variants in Mendelian disease.

What causes Bathing suit Ichthyosis(BSI)?

Bathing suit ichthyosis (BSI) is a rare variant of autosomal recessive congenital ichthyosis (ARCI) due to transglutaminase-1 gene (TGM1) mutations leading to a temperature sensitive phenotype.

Which is the major RNA editing enzyme in Drosophila melanogaster?

Adenosine deaminases that act on RNA [adenosine deaminase, RNA specific (ADAR)] catalyze the site-specific conversion of adenosine to inosine in primary mRNA transcripts. The ADAR RNA editing enzyme controls neuronal excitability in Drosophila melanogaster. TIRs were deduced to form dsRNAs as a putative target of ADAR. Genetic Determinants of RNA Editing Levels of ADAR Targets in Drosophila melanogaster. RNA editing usually affects only a fraction of expressed transcripts and there is a vast amount of variation in editing levels of ADAR (adenosine deaminase, RNA-specific) targets.

Is the NLM medical text indexer (MTI) still useful and relevant?

Yes. The NLM Medical Text Indexer (MTI) is still relevant and useful, and needs to be improved and expanded. The BioASQ Challenge results have shown that more machine learning needs to be incorporated into MTI while still retaining the indexing rules that have earned MTI the indexers' trust over the years. MTI also needs to be expanded through the use of full text, when and where it is available, to provide coverage of indexing terms that are typically only found in the full text.

What is the application of the ASSET algorithm in C.elegans?

ASSET (Algorithm for the Segmentation and the Standardization of C. elegans Time-lapse recordings) is a robust algorithm for the automated segmentation and standardization of early Caenorhabditis elegans embryos. It gathers quantitative information with subcellular precision in the early Caenorhabditis elegans embryo, which is an attractive model to investigate evolutionarily conserved cellular mechanisms. ASSET automatically detects the eggshell and the cell cortex from DIC time-lapse recordings of live one-cell-stage embryos and can also track subcellular structures using fluorescent time-lapse microscopy. Importantly, ASSET standardizes the data into an absolute coordinate system to allow robust quantitative comparisons between embryos.

What is small-activating RNA?

small activating RNAs are double stranded RNAs (dsRNAs) that target gene promoters and trigger gene activation.

Is the PTPN22 gene a biomarker for Rheumatoid Arthritis?

Most association studies have indeed confirmed an association between mutations at the PTPN22 gene and rheumatoid arthritis

What is known about the role of mHealth in the prevention of disease?

Most reported uses of mHealth are for treatment, we identified report on approaches to child obesity prevention.

Which receptors does bimagrumab block?

Bimagrumab blocks the activin type II receptors.

is there an increase in ultrasound comets after intense exercise?

Strenuous exercise and exercise perfomed in extreme conditions provoke increase in interstitial pulmonary water content as shown by the increased number of ultrasuond comets

What is the clinical indication of cardiac T1 mapping magnetic resonance?

T1 mapping can quantitatively characterize myocardial tissue, in particular diffuse and interstitial fibrosis, edema in both overt and subclinical cardiophyopathies. However more research is required before a large-scale application for clinical decision-making can be recommended.

Is the protein KCNQ2 associated with idiopathic epilepsy?

Yes, sequence variations of the KCNQ2 gene may contribute to the etiology of idiopathic epilepsy

What is the effect of carbamazepine on CYP3A4?

Carbamazepine is an inducer of CYP3A4.

What percent of Rheumatoid Arthritis (RA) patients are not responding to anti-TNF therapy?

These therapies are, however, expensive and 30% of patients fail to respond.

Which syndrome is associated to SAMHD1 gene mutations?

Mutations in the SAMHD1 gene that cause the severe autoimmune disease, Aicardi-Goutieres syndrome (AGS).

Are ultraconserved enhancers important for normal development?

Yes, ultraconserved enhancers are required for normal development.

What is bb21217?

BB21217 is a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR)-modified T-cell therapy used to target B-cell maturation antigen (BCMA) in the treatment of multiple myeloma.

What illness is transmitted by the Lone Star Tick, Amblyomma americanum?

Amblyomma americanum (Lone star tick) is an important disease vector in the United States. It transmits several human pathogens, including the agents of human monocytic ehrlichiosis, tularemia, and southern tick-associated rash illness [STARI] or Masters disease

What is the target of daratumumab?

Daratumumab is a fully human anti-CD38 IgG1-κ monoclonal antibody. It is approved for treatment of multiple myeloma.

Which loss-of-function ABCC8 mutation is associated with Pulmonary Arterial Hypertension (PAH)?

A de novo novel heterozygous predicted deleterious missense variant c.G2873A (p.R958H) in ABCC8 in a child with idiopathic PAH.

Which markers are screened with the triple test for the detection of syndromes in fetus?

The markers that are screened with the triple test for the detection of syndromes in fetus are: 1) alpha-fetoprotein (AFP), 2) beta-chorionic gonadotrophin (beta-CG) and 3) unconjugated oestriol (uE3).

What is the 959 Nematode Genomes initiative?

The phylum Nematoda is rich and diverse and of interest to a wide range of research fields from basic biology through ecology and parasitic disease. For all these communities, it is now clear that access to genome scale data will be key to advancing understanding, and in the case of parasites, developing new ways to control or cure diseases. The advent of second-generation sequencing technologies, improvements in computing algorithms and infrastructure and growth in bioinformatics and genomics literacy is making the addition of genome sequencing to the research goals of any nematode research program a less daunting prospect. To inspire, promote and coordinate genomic sequencing across the diversity of the phylum, a community wiki and the 959 Nematode Genomes initiative (www.nematodegenomes.org/) has been launched. Just as the deciphering of the developmental lineage of the 959 cells of the adult hermaphrodite C. elegans was the gateway to broad advances in biomedical science, it is anticipated that a nematode phylogeny with (at least) 959 sequenced species will underpin further advances in understanding the origins of parasitism, the dynamics of genomic change and the adaptations that have made Nematoda one of the most successful animal phyla.

Which autophagy pathway is trigered by the KFERQ motif of cytosolic proteins?

Cytosolic proteins carrying the KFERQ motif (a specific lysosomal import consensus sequence) are directed to a selective form of lysosomal degradation, called chaperone-mediated autophagy (CMA), as chaperone protein Hsc73 and other chaperones are involved in this process.

Is hemoglobin antimicrobial?

Yes, Beyond its physiological activity, hemoglobins are able to inhibit the growth of several microorganisms.

Are there any functional differences between Mfd and its human Cocaine syndrome protein B (CSB) homolog?

Both Cockayne syndrome protein B (CSB) and Mfd are involved in transcription-coupled repair. CSB is the human TCR coupling factor and Mfd is the bacterial TCR coupling factor. However, unlike Mfd, CSB does not act as a helicase nor does it dissociate stalled RNA polymerase II, suggesting a coupling mechanism in humans different from that in prokaryotes. Moreover, Mfd may be functionally distinct from its human CSB homolog in that it does not detectably contribute to the recovery of gene expression or global repair following oxidative damage.

Which are the typical symptoms of Ménière's disease?

The typical symptoms of Ménière's disease are: 1) sensorineural hearing loss, 2) vertigo and 3) tinnitus.

What is the drug Tecfidera used against?

Tecifidera is approved for the treatment of relapsing-remitting multiple sclerosis.

What is the mechanism of action of satralizumab?

Satralizumab is a humanized anti-interleukin-6 (IL-6) receptor monoclonal recycling antibody that has been approved for the treatment of neuromyelitis optica spectrum disorder (NMOSD).