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Enelpol 10

What are the biological roles proposed for proteins containing the SPRY domain?

defence against retroviral infection innate and adaptative immunity vesicular trafficking neural differentiation embryonic development

Is REGN5458 a single-targeted antibody?

No, REGN5458 is a bispecific antibody.

Can exposure to heavy metals like lead(Pb) or cadmium(Cd) cause changes in DNA methylation patterns in Isoetes sinensis?

Changes in DNA methylation of the endangered plant, Isoetes sinensis, have be shown to be affected by both Pb and Cd

Through which pathway does epiregulin promote leptin secretion?

EREG increased leptin production and secretion in a dose-dependent manner in iAb fat explants via the EGFR/MAPK pathway.

What is Synucleinopathy?

Synucleinopathy is an autosomal-dominant disease characterised by misfolding of presynaptic synuclein and the formation of Lewy bodies with ubiquitin-ligase activity.

What is the substrate of the microbial enzyme inulinase?

The inulinase acts on the beta-(2,1)-D-fructoside links in inulin releasing D-fructose.

Can pazopanib be used for treatment von Hippel-Lindau disease?

Yes, pazopanib is used for treatment von Hippel-Lindau disease.

By which mechanism MutT proteins act against DNA lesions in bacteria?

MutT proteins belong to a class of Nudix hydrolases. The common substrate structure for the proteins of the functionally diverse Nudix superfamily is nucleotide-diphosphate-X, where X is a large variety of leaving groups. The activities of Nudix hydrolases usually result in the release of an inorganic phosphate ion or of a product bearing a terminal phosphate moiety. MutT proteins hydrolyze 8-oxo-G nucleoside triphosphates/diphosphates to the corresponding nucleoside monophosphates and sanitize the nucleotide pool. MutT proteins cleave 8-oxo-dGTP (8-oxo-7,8-dihydro-2'-deoxyguanosine 5'-triphosphate) at the α-β position; they also cleave 8-oxo-dGTP at the β-γ phosphate bond at a rate of 3% of that recorded for hydrolysis at the α-β position. 8-oxo-dGTP induces A to C transversions when misincorporated in DNA opposite to template A. By hydrolyzing 8-oxo-dGTP before their incorporation into DNA, MutT proteins play a critical role in allowing bacteria to avoid A-to-C mutations, which are a hallmark of MutT deficiency. Thus, MutT proteins prevent oxidative DNA lesions, as part of the GO system. Oxidized nucleotides can occur when bacteria are exposed to reactive oxygen species. Also, reactive oxygen species are produced as side products of oxygen utilization, leading to the oxidation of nucleic acids and their precursor nucleotides. Distinct from the Escherichia coli MutT, which hydrolyzes 8-oxo-dGTP and 8-oxo-GTP, the mycobacterial proteins hydrolyze not only 8-oxo-dGTP and 8-oxo-GTP but also dCTP and 5-methyl-dCTP. Moreover, the hydrolysis of 8-oxo-dGTP and 8-oxo-GTP in mycobacteria seems to be catalysed in a two-stage mechanism, since MutT converts these oxidized nucleoside triphosphates to their corresponding nucleoside diphosphates, and not to monophosphates.

What is the role of thyroid hormone in Stem cell differentiation?

Thyroid hormone treatment of Human-induced pluripotent stem cell-derived cardiomyocytes attenuates the fetal gene expression and induces differentiation. Liganded T3 receptor (TR) regulates cell autonomous formation of adult intestinal progenitor cells and that T3 action in the connective tissue is important for the establishment of the stem cell niche. In the intestinal epithelium, TRα1 and TRβ2 are expressed at the level of stem/progenitor cell populations where they induce cell proliferation and differentiation, respectively. Thyroid hormone is implicated in neural stem cell function and differentiation and acts as a neurogenic switch in the adult neural stem cell niche. Furthermore, thyroid hormone enhances maturation of oligodendrocyte precursor cells. Thyroid hormones also induce hemopoietic pluripotent stem cell differentiation toward erythropoiesis and c-erbA/TR appears to act as a binary switch affecting erythroid cell fate: unliganded c-erbA/TR supports growth while ligand-activated c-erbA/TR induces differentiation. Finally, thyroid hormone modulates late differentiation stages of mesenchymal stem cells chondrogenesis via BMP signaling.

Which genome browser database for DNA shape annotations is available?

The Genome Browser for DNA shape annotations (GBshape; freely available at http://rohslab.cmb.usc.edu/GBshape/) provides minor groove width, propeller twist, roll, helix twist and hydroxyl radical cleavage predictions for the entire genomes of 94 organisms. Additional genomes can easily be added using the GBshape framework. GBshape can be used to visualize DNA shape annotations qualitatively in a genome browser track format, and to download quantitative values of DNA shape features as a function of genomic position at nucleotide resolution.

List clinical symptoms of the MECOM-associated syndrome

Heterozygous mutations in MECOM (MDS1 and EVI1 complex locus) have been reported to be causative of a rare association of congenital amegakaryocytic thrombocytopenia and radioulnar synostosis. The clinical picture included radioulnar synostosis, bone marrow failure, clinodactyly, cardiac and renal malformations, B-cell deficiency, and presenile hearing loss. No single clinical manifestation was detected in all patients affected by MECOM mutations. Radioulnar synostosis and B-cell deficiency were observed only in patients with mutations affecting a short region in the C-terminal zinc finger domain of EVI1.

Which molecule is targeted by Fenebrutinib?

Fenebrutinib is a noncovalent, oral, and highly selective inhibitor of Bruton's tyrosine kinase (BTK).

Which inherited disorder is known to be caused by mutations in the NEMO gene?

Incontinentia pigmenti (IP) is a rare neurocutaneous disorder with a frequency of 1 in 50,000 newborn, and is associated with mutations in IKBKG gene (NEMO) in Xq28, inherited as an X-linked dominant trait

Do exon 38 or 39 KMT2D missense variants cause Kabuki syndrome type 1 (KS1)?

No. The KMT2D missense variants do not cause KS1, they cause a different type of malformations disorder distinct from Kabuki syndrome.

What is the function of circular RNA?

Circular RNAs (circRNAs) are a novel type of RNA that, unlike linear RNAs, form a covalently closed continuous loop and are highly represented in the eukaryotic transcriptome. The biogenesis of circular RNA is an integral, conserved, and regulated feature of the gene expression program. Circular RNAs play a crucial role in fine tuning the level of miRNA mediated regulation of gene expression by sequestering the miRNAs. Recent research has revealed that circRNAs can function as microRNA (miRNA) sponges, regulators of splicing and transcription, and modifiers of parental gene expression.

What is Mondor's disease?

Mondor's disease is a rare benign and self-limiting condition characterized by thrombophlebitis of the superficial veins of the anterolateral thoracoabdominal wall and genital area.

Which antiepileptic drug is most strongly associated with spina bifida?

Phenytoin is not used in pregnancy as it is associated with a severe fetal deformation. From the other anticonvulsants most studies report the higher association between use during pregnancy and spin bifida to occur with Valproate.

Please list 3 drugs that have EGFR as their primary target.

There are a number of drugs that target EGFR. The best known targeted therapies include: Epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFR) monoclonal antibodies (cetuximab, panitumumab, zalutumumab and nimotuzumab), EGFR tyrosine kinase inhibitors (gefitinib, erlotinib, lapatinib, afatinib and dacomitinib)

Which ApoE isoform is associated with atherosclerosis and Alzheimer's disease?

The ApoE4 isoform is associated with increased frequency of atherosclerosis and Alzheimer's disease (AD).

Is fatigue prevalent in patients receiving treatment for glioblastoma?

Yes, fatigue is a common complication of glioblastoma patients receiving chemotherapy or radiotherapy.

Is the gene MAOA epigenetically modified by methylation?

In recent years, the role of epigenetic phenomenon, such as methylation, in mediating vulnerability to behavioral illness has become increasingly appreciated. One prominent locus at which epigenetic phenomena are thought to be in play is the monoamine oxidase A (MAOA) locus. We conclude that methylation of MAOA may play a significant role in common psychiatric illness and that further examination of epigenetic processes at this locus is in order.

What is known about autosomal dominant Alzheimer’s disease?

The first autosomal dominant mutation in the amyloid precursor protein (APP) gene was described in 1991. Later, AD was also associated with mutated early-onset (presenilin 1/2, PSEN1/2 and APP) and late-onset (apolipoprotein E, ApoE) genes. Genome-wide association and linkage analysis studies with identified multiple genomic areas have implications for the treatment of AD. The Dominantly Inherited Alzheimer Network, an international family-clustered registry to study autosomal dominant Alzheimer disease which is a rare form of Alzheimer disease caused by mutations in any of the three genes including the amyloid precursor protein, presenilin 1 and presenilin 2.

List the human acrocentric chromosomes that are involved in Robertsonian translocation.

Robertsonian translocations (ROBs) are the most common chromosomal rearrangements in humans. ROBs are whole-arm rearrangements between the acrocentric chromosomes 13, 14, 15, 21, and 22.

Can Pentraxin 3 predict outcomes of sepsis?

Yes, Pentraxin 3 s an objective biochemical marker in diagnosis of sepsis; it is helpful in assessment of severity and prognosis of sepsis; it also has a certain clinical value in the assessment of sepsis cardiovascular function damage.

List two common features of Tay syndrome.

Tay syndrome is a rare autosomal recessive genetic disorder characterized by congenital ichthyosis and trichothiodystrophy (abnormal brittle hair). Other less common features of this syndrome are photosensitivity, low birth weight, short stature, mental retardation, delayed neuromuscular development and other CNS anomalies, dysplasia of nails, hypoplasia of subcutaneous fatty tissue, prematurely aged facial appearance, hypogonadism, cataracts, osteosclerosis, dysphonia, and increased susceptibility to infections.

What is Targeted Chromatin Capture (T2C)?

Targeted Chromatin Capture (T2C) is an efficient, easy, and affordable with high (restriction fragment) resolution tool to address both genome compartmentalization and chromatin-interaction networks for specific genomic regions at high resolution for both clinical and non-clinical research.

Where are the orexigenic peptides synthesized?

The orexigenic peptides are sythesized in the hypothalamus.

Which JASPAR release is JASPAR 2022?

JASPAR (http://jaspar.genereg.net/) is an open-access database containing manually curated, non-redundant transcription factor (TF) binding profiles for TFs across six taxonomic groups. In JASPAR 2022, JASPAR's 9th release, the CORE collection was expanded with 341 new profiles (148 for plants, 101 for vertebrates, 85 for urochordates, and 7 for insects), which corresponds to a 19% expansion over the previous release.

What is an exosome?

Exosomes are a subset of extracellular vesicles (EVs) that have important roles in intercellular communication. They contain and carry bioactive molecules within their membranes which are delivered to target cells.

Do Crocus sativus extracts loosen the blood-brain barrier?

No, in vitro and in vivo experiments show that the Crocus sativus extract increases the tightness of a cell-based blood-brain barrier (BBB).

Which drug was tested in the TEMSO Trial for multiple sclerosis?

Teriflunomide was evaluated in the Teriflunomide Multiple Sclerosis Oral (TEMSO) trial.

Does smoking increase risk for glioblastoma?

No. Smoking does not increase risk for glioblastoma.

Are there any statistical methods for normalizing and identifying differential regions in histone modification ChIP-seq data?

Yes. ChIPnorm is a two-stage statistical method to normalize ChIP-seq data, and to find differential regions in the genome, given two libraries of histone modifications of different cell types.

What is another name for acid sphingomyelinase deficiency (ASMD)?

Acid sphingomyelinase deficiency(ASMD) is also known as Niemann-Pick disease type A and type B.

Does the histidine-rich Ca-binding protein (HRC) interact with triadin?

Yes. HRC may play a key role in the regulation of SR Ca cycling through its direct interactions with SERCA2 and triadin, mediating a fine cross talk between SR Ca uptake and release in the heart. A direct binding of HRC (histidine-rich Ca(2+)-binding protein) to triadin, the main transmembrane protein of the junctional sarcoplasmic reticulum (SR) of skeletal muscle, seems well supported.

What is the association between maternal and fetal alloantigens and RANTES production?

Induction of maternal tolerance to fetal alloantigens by RANTES production.

Could DNA (cytosine-5-)-methyltransferases serve as tumour markers?

Yes. It has been demonstrated in a number of experimental studies that DNA (Cytosine-5-)-methyltransferases (DNMT1, DNMT3A and DNMT3B) are deregulated in several types of cancer (invasive cervical cancer, colon cancer, esophageal squamous cell carcinoma (ESCC), gastric cancer, embryonal carcinoma, cervical cancer, adenoma, adenoid cystic carcinoma, salivary gland neoplasms). Moreover, three single nucleotide polymorphisms (SNPs) of the DNMT3B promoter region have been reported to be stratification markers that can predict an individual's susceptibility to cancers. Therefore, DNA (Cytosine-5-)-methyltransferases can serve as tumour markers.

For which type of cancer can uc.189 be used as a potential prognostic biomarker?

ESCC

How does Foxa transcription factor exhibits its pioneering function?

The conceptional framework of the mechanism of action of the FoxA proteins is that these 'pioneer factors' that can engage chromatin before other transcription factors. The Fox DNA-binding domain structurally resembles linker histone and binds nucleosomes stably. FoxA induces local DNA demethylation, nucleosome destabilization and binds to mitotic chromosomes. When associated with mitotic chromatin, FoxA may "bookmark" active genes and ensure their reactivation in postmitotic cells (epigenetic memory). About one-third of the FoxA bound sites are near silent genes, including genes without detectable RNA polymerase II. The "pioneer" features of FoxA factors involve various chromatin-binding parameters seen in linker histones and distinguish the factors with respect to their regulatory and mechanistic functions.

How are immediate early genes (IEG) defined?

this class of genes is experimentally defined by their transcription following primary infection or reactivation in the presence of inhibitors of protein synthesis. Immediate-early (IE) genes are the first class of viral genes expressed after primary infection or reactivation.

Can the yeast protein Abf1 act as insulator?

Saccharomyces cerevisiae Rap1p and Abf1p proteins are endowed with a potent insulating capacity

What does the human ABCC gene product do?

The important drug resistance-conferring members belong to three subfamilies of the human ABC family; these are ABCB1 (MDR1/P-glycoprotein of subfamily ABCB), subfamily ABCC (MRPs), and ABCG2 (BCRP of subfamily ABCG), which are expressed in various organs. The ATP-binding cassette (ABC) transporters constitute a large family of membrane proteins, which transport a variety of compounds through the membrane against a concentration gradient at the cost of ATP hydrolysis

Which type of urinary incontinence is diagnosed with the Q tip test?

Stress urinary incontinence is diagnosed with the Q tip test. The test evaluates urethral mobility.

What is eravacycline?

Finafloxacin is a fluoroquinolone antimicrobial agent that exhibits optimum efficacy in slightly acidic environments. It is being developed to treat serious bacterial infections associated with an acidic environment, including urinary tract infections, complicated urinary tract infections, pyelonephritis and Helicobacter pylori infections, while it has already received approval for the treatment of acute otitis externa.

Is NSD-1015 an inhibitor of Aromatic L-Amino Acid Decarboxylase?

Yes, NSD-1015 is an ihnibitor of Aromatic L-Amino Decarboxylase.

What is the indication for valbenazine?

Valbenazine granted breakthrough drug status for treating tardive dyskinesia.

Can bioprinting use human cells?

Yes, human cells can be used for bioprinting

What is caused by loss-of-function variants in BCAS3?

Bi-allelic loss-of-function variants in BCAS3 cause a syndromic neurodevelopmental disorder. BCAS3 microtubule-associated cell migration factor (BCAS3) is a large, highly conserved cytoskeletal protein previously proposed to be critical in angiogenesis and implicated in human embryogenesis and tumorigenesis.

List the classical triad of symptoms of the Melkersson–Rosenthal syndrome.

The Melkersson-Rosenthal syndrome consists of the classical triad of symptoms: 1) orofacial oedema 2) fissured tongue (lingua plicata) and 3) facial paralysis.

What is the gold standard treatment for Iatrogenic male incontinence?

The artificial urethral sphincter has represented, until today, the gold standard but, in the recent years, sling systems have been investigated as minimally invasive alternative options.

Which effects create neighborhoods of transcriptional regulation in eukaryotes?

Enhancer Sharing Promotes Neighborhoods of Transcriptional Regulation Across Eukaryotes. Here, we present cross-organismic evidence suggesting that most EP pairs are compatible, largely determined by physical proximity rather than specific interactions. we find that the transcription of gene neighbors is correlated over distances that scale with genome size. We propose that enhancer sharing is commonplace among eukaryotes, and that EP distance is an important layer of information in gene regulation.

Is transcapillary albumin escape altered in diabetic patients?

An altered TERalb is present in type 2 diabetic patients, both with normal and altered patterns of AER. TERalb is increased also in normo-albuminuric type 1 diabetic patients.

Is paxillin affected by RANKL?

Yes, RANKL promotes paxillin serine and tyrosine phosphorylation.

To which family does the Zika virus belong?

The Zika virus belongs to the family Flaviviridae.

Where is fatty acid binding protein 2 expressed?

fatty acid binding protein 2 is expressed by intestinal epithelial cells

What is SHAPE-Seq?

SHAPE-Seq is a high-throughput technique that can simultaneously measure quantitative, single nucleotide-resolution secondary and tertiary structural information for hundreds of RNA molecules of arbitrary sequence. SHAPE-Seq combines selective 2'-hydroxyl acylation analyzed by primer extension (SHAPE) chemistry with multiplexed paired-end deep sequencing of primer extension products. This generates millions of sequencing reads, which are then analyzed using a fully automated data analysis pipeline, based on a rigorous maximum likelihood model of the SHAPE-Seq experiment. SHAPE-Seq has the ability to accurately infer secondary and tertiary structural information, detect subtle conformational changes due to single nucleotide point mutations, and simultaneously measure the structures of a complex pool of different RNA molecules. SHAPE-Seq thus represents a powerful step toward making the study of RNA secondary and tertiary structures high throughput and accessible to a wide array of scientific pursuits, from fundamental biological investigations to engineering RNA for synthetic biological systems. SHAPE-Seq v2.0 is a 'universal' method that can obtain reactivity information for every nucleotide of an RNA without having to use or introduce a specific reverse transcriptase priming site within the RNA. It is a highly reproducible method, with reactivity data that can be used as constraints in RNA folding algorithms to predict structures on par with those generated using data from other SHAPE methods. SHAPE-Seq v2.0 is expected to be broadly applicable to understanding the RNA sequence-structure relationship at the heart of some of life's most fundamental processes.

Which R/bioconductor package is used for integrative genomics visualizations?

Sushi.R is a flexible, quantitative and integrative genomic visualizations for publication-quality multi-panel figures using common genomic data formats including Browser Extensible Data (BED), bedGraph and Browser Extensible Data Paired-End (BEDPE). Sushi.R is open source and made publicly available through GitHub (https://github.com/dphansti/Sushi) and Bioconductor (http://bioconductor.org/packages/release/bioc/html/Sushi.html).

What is the incidence of new cases of X-linked adrenoleukodystrophy (ALD) in Australian and New Zealand in the late 1990's?

cases of ALD diagnosed in Australia and New Zealand between 1981 and 1996 and their families. We estimate that the combined incidence of ALD and its variants in Australasia is at least 1.6 per 100,000.

Rickettsia felis was described as a human pathogen almost two decades ago, what is it's main arthropod vector?

Cat fleas (Ctenocephalides felis) carry Rickettsia felis

RV3-BB vaccine is used for prevention of which viral infection?

The RV3-BB human neonatal rotavirus vaccine aims to provide protection from severe rotavirus disease from birth.

Which are the cardiac manifestations of Marfan syndrome?

Cardiac manifestations of Marfan syndrome include aortic root dilation,aortic regurgitation, mitral valve prolapse and mitral valve regurgitation.

Which virus is Cidofovir (Vistide) indicated for?

Cidofovir is commonly used in the treatment of cytomegalovirus (CMV) infection and disease.

Is airplane stroke syndrome a common disease.

No. Only 37 cases of stroke during or soon after long-haul flights have been published. A single center study reported that 42 out of 5727 stroke admissions (0.73%) were flight-related strokes.

Which are the plant DNA (cytosine-5) methyltransferase families?

The plant DNA (cytosine-5)methyltransferases are classified into the families: MET, CMT, and the de novo DRM.

What are the observations regarding telomere integrity and function in Fanconi anemia?

In Fanconi anemia patients, a higher rate of breakage at TTAGGG sequences in vivo is causing telomere erosion in differentiated cells. Moreover, it has been demonstrated that αIISp is important for telomere maintenance after DNA damage due to interstrand cross-links (ICL), localizing to telomeres in S phase after ICL damage where it has enhanced association with TRF1 and TRF2 and is required for recruitment of the ICL repair protein, XPF, to damage-induced foci at telomeres. In telomerase-positive normal cells depleted of αIISp by siRNA or in Fanconi anemia, complementation group A (FANCA) cells, where αIISp levels are 35-40% of normal, ICL damage results in failure of XPF to localize to telomeres, with markedly increased telomere dysfunction-induced foci, and catastrophic loss of telomeres.

Which cancer types are associated with mutations in the TWIST1 gene?

Loss-of-function mutations of TWIST1, a catalytic component of polycomb repressive complex 1, are observed in ~\n10% of all human cancers, including gastric, non-small cell lung, breast ductal carcinoma, nonsmall cell lung cancer, prostate cancer, ovarian cancer, breast tumor, papillary thyroid cancer, and gastric cancer.

List anti-amyloid-beta monoclonal antibodies that have been investigated in clinical trials for treatment of Alzheimer disease.

Ponezumab, solanezumab and bapineuzumab are humanized antiamyloid beta (Aβ) monoclonal antibodies that have been designed for treatment of Alzheimer disease.

What is ivosidenib?

AG-120 (ivosidenib) ia an inhibitor of the IDH1 mutant enzyme that exhibits profound 2-HG lowering in tumor models and the ability to effect differentiation of primary patient AML samples ex vivo. Preliminary data from phase 1 clinical trials enrolling patients with cancers harboring an IDH1 mutation indicate that AG-120 has an acceptable safety profile and clinical activity.

Please list the 4 genes involved in Sanfilippo syndrome, also known as mucopolysaccharidosis III (MPS-III).

Mucopolysaccharidosis type III (MPS III, Sanfilippo syndrome) is a lysosomal storage disorder, caused by a deficiency in one of the four enzymes involved in the catabolism of glycosaminoglycan heparan sulfate. The genes are SGSH, NAGLU, HGSNAT or GNS.

Show results of randomised controlled trials for certolizumab pegol.

Improvement of clinical results (ACR50, 28 joint disease activity score (DAS-28) remission and HAQ scores) with certolizumab pegol. Adverse events were more frequent with certolizumab; there was a statistically significant increase in the number of serious adverse events, infections and hypertension. Randomised controlled trials (RCTs) of CZP have demonstrated rapid improvements in workplace and home productivity.

Can breastfeeding confer protection from type I diabetes?

In the neonate and infant lactation confers protection from future type 1 diabetes.

Does deflazacort have more side effects than prednisone?

Deflazacort produces fewer side effects than Prednisone in DMD patients.

Does PU.1 (SPI1) affect NF-kB binding?

Recent data demonstrate that developmental transcription factors like the macrophage fate-determining Pu.1 set the stage for the activity of ubiquitous transcription factors activated by inflammatory stimuli, like NF-kB, AP-1, and interferon regulatory factors (IRFs). Within 1217 bp of upstream sequence, 3 sites for NF-kB, 10 sites for NF-IL6, 15 sites for AP1, 6 sites for AP4, 2 sites for CHOP/CEBP alpha and 1 site for SP1 and PU.1 were identified.

List blood marker for Non-Hodgkin lymphoma.

Soluble interleukin-2 receptor-α, CXC chemokine ligand 13, soluble CD30, and soluble tumor necrosis factor receptor-2 were individually positively associated, and B-cell activating factor of the tumor necrosis factor family inversely associated, with all non-Hodgkin lymphoma and one or more subtypes. GALECTIN-3 AS A PROGNOSTIC BIOMARKER IN PATIENTS WITH NON-HODGKIN LYMPHOMA.

Which database exists that contains regulatory SNPs which affect predicted transcription factor binding site affinity?

SNP2TFBS is a computational resource intended to support researchers investigating the molecular mechanisms underlying regulatory variation in the human genome. The database essentially consists of a collection of text files providing specific annotations for human single nucleotide polymorphisms (SNPs), namely whether they are predicted to abolish, create or change the affinity of one or several transcription factor (TF) binding sites. A SNP's effect on TF binding is estimated based on a position weight matrix (PWM) model for the binding specificity of the corresponding factor.

Which drugs may interfere thyroxine absorption?

bile acid sequestrants, ferrous sulphate, sucralfate, calcium carbonate, aluminium-containing antacids, phosphate binders, raloxifene and proton-pump inhibitors, have also been shown to interfere with the absorption of levothyroxine sevelamer hydrochloride or chromium picolinate should be advised to separate the time of ingestion of these drugs from their thyroid hormone preparation by several hours

How can network assortativity be applied in the three-dimensional analysis of the genome?

Chromatin assortativity is a way to integrate the epigenomic landscape of a specific cell type with its chromatin interaction network and thus investigate which proteins or chromatin marks mediate genomic contacts.

Is protein Fbw7 a SCF type of E3 ubiquitin ligase?

Fbxw7 (also known as Fbw7, SEL-10, hCdc4, or hAgo) is the F-box protein subunit of an Skp1-Cul1-F-box protein (SCF)-type ubiquitin ligase complex that plays a central role in the degradation of Notch family members.The F-box protein Fbw7 (also known as Fbxw7, hCdc4 and Sel-10) functions as a substrate recognition component of a SCF-type E3 ubiquitin ligase. SCF(Fbw7) facilitates polyubiquitination and subsequent degradation of various proteins such as Notch, cyclin E, c-Myc and c-Jun.

Which was the first species in which a de novo gene emergence ("gene birth") was reported?

New genes can arise through duplication of a pre-existing gene or de novo from non-coding DNA, providing raw material for evolution of new functions in response to a changing environment. A prime example is the independent evolution of antifreeze glycoprotein genes (afgps) in the Arctic codfishes and Antarctic notothenioids to prevent freezing.

Is exon skipping correlated with exon circularization?

Yes. Circularization of exons is widespread and correlates with exon skipping, a feature that adds considerably to the regulatory complexity of the human transcriptome.

Which viruses are best known to cause myocarditis?

The most frequent viruses causing myocarditis are Enterovirus, Adenovirus and Coxsackie B viruses.

Please list the syndromes that are part of Castleman's disease AKA TAFRO

The syndromes that are part of Castleman's disease AKA TAFRO are:1) organomegaly, 2) anasarca, 3) myelofibrosis, 4) thrombocytopenia and 5) reticulin fibrosis.

List the core lung matrisome proteins.

LGALS7, ASPN, HSP90AA1, HSP90AB1, COL1A1, SCGB1A1, TAGLN, PSEN2, TSPAN1, CTSB, AGR2, CSPG2, SERPINB3, fibronectin, emilin-1, versican, decorin

List orally bioavailable MPS1 kinase inhibitors

1 h-pyrrolo [3,2-c] pyridine, cct271850, nms-p715, 4-aminopyrazalo,bos172722 and cct251455.

Which is the prevalence of cystic fibrosis in the human population?

Prevalence of Cystic Fibrosis varies according to the population. A theoretical estimate of the prevalence of cystic fibrosis based on anthropological data suggested a frequency of 25 affected individuals/100,000 inhabitants. However, real data indicated that the true prevalence in the population was considerably lower (6.9 cases/100,000 inhabitants). Results of literature reviews, surveys, and registry analyses revealed a mean prevalence of 0.737/10,000 in the 27 EU countries, which is similar to the value of 0.797 in the United States, and only one outlier, namely the Republic of Ireland at 2.98.

Which portal has been developed to explore protein-protein interactions in cancer cell lines?

The OncoPPi Portal has been developed as an interactive web resource that allows investigators to access, manipulate and interpret a high-quality cancer-focused network of protein-protein interactions (PPIs) experimentally detected in cancer cell lines. To facilitate prioritization of PPIs for further biological studies, this resource combines network connectivity analysis, mutual exclusivity analysis of genomic alterations, cellular co-localization of interacting proteins and domain-domain interactions. Estimates of PPI essentiality allow users to evaluate the functional impact of PPI disruption on cancer cell proliferation. Furthermore, connecting the OncoPPi network with the approved drugs and compounds in clinical trials enables discovery of new tumor dependencies to inform strategies to interrogate undruggable targets like tumor suppressors. The OncoPPi Portal serves as a resource for the cancer research community to facilitate discovery of cancer targets and therapeutic development.

What in vivo tau tracers are being used?

in-vivo tau PET imaging ligands include [(18)F]THK523, [(18)F]THK5117, [(18)F]THK5105 and [(18)F]THK5351, [(18)F]AV1451(T807) [(11)C]PBB3, (18)F-THK5117, [(18)F]T808, 18F-RO6958948.

Which protein phosphatases have been found to dephosphorylate phospholamban?

The protein phosphatases which dephosphorylate native, sarcoplasmic reticulum (SR)-associated phospholamban were studied in cardiac muscle extracts and in a Triton fraction prepared by detergent extraction of myofibrils, the latter fraction containing 70-80% of the SR-associated proteins present in the tissue. At physiological concentrations of free Mg2+ (1 mM), protein phosphatase 1 (PP1) accounted for approximately 70% of the total phospholamban phosphatase activity in these fractions towards either Ser-16 (the residue labelled by cAMP-dependent protein kinase, PK-A) or Thr-17 (the residue phosphorylated by an SR-associated Ca2+/calmodulin-dependent protein kinase). Protein phosphatase 2A (PP2A) and protein phosphatase 2C (PP2C) accounted for the remainder of the activity.

Can siRNA affect response to afatinib treatment?

When afatinib was combined with an EGFR-specific siRNA there was a strong biological effect on growth inhibition and induction of apoptosis.

Can prevnar 13 be used in children?

Yes, PCV13 is approved for routine vaccination of all infants as a 4-dose series at age 2, 4, 6, and 12-15 months for children who previously received 1 or more doses of the 7-valent pneumococcal conjugate vaccine (PCV7), and for children with underlying medical conditions that increase their risk for pneumococcal disease or its complications.

What is the mechanism of action of Toripalimab?

Toripalimab is IgG4 monoclonal antibody targeting PD-1, which has been approved for treatment of patients with metastatic melanoma after previous systemic therapy.

Is thyroid hormone therapy indicated in patients with heart failure?

There are several experimental and clinical evidences of the potential benefits of Thyroid hormone replacement therapy in heart failure. Initial clinical data showed also a good safety profile and tolerance of TH replacement therapy in patients withheart failure. However currently there is no indication to treat patients with heart failure withTHreplacementtherapy.

List five applications of machine learning algorithms in medical diagnosis.

Machine learning technology is well suited for the induction of diagnostic and prognostic rules and solving of small and specialized diagnostic and prognostic problems. The medical diagnostic knowledge can be automatically derived from the description of cases solved in the past. In several medical domains we actually applied machine learning algorithms. Typically, the automatically generated diagnostic rules achieved the same or slightly better diagnostic accuracy than physicians specialists. There many several application of machine learning algorithms in medical diagnosis such as Brain glioma progression, Microarray classification, Mass spectral proteomics, Lymph disease classification and Parkinson's disease.

What is the function of the protein encoded by the gene STING?

Stimulator of interferon genes (STING) is an adaptor protein that plays an important role in the activation of type I interferons in response to cytosolic nucleic acid ligands. Recent evidence indicates involvement of the STING pathway in the induction of antitumor immune response.

List clinical features of EEM syndrome.

EEM syndrome is characterized by ectodermal dysplasia, ectrodactyly and macular dystrophy.

Are there any Decision support systems for chronic pain management ?

Yes, there is a variety of decision support systems for chronic pain management.

What is the cause of the Diamond Blackfan Anemia?

Diamond Blackfan Anemia (DBA) is a congenital bone marrow failure syndrome associated with ribosomal gene mutations that lead to ribosomal insufficiency.

What is Alphafold?

AlphaFold is a novel machine learning approach that incorporates physical and biological knowledge about protein structure, leveraging multi-sequence alignments, into the design of the deep learning algorithm.

Are male or female persons more prone to autoimmunity?

Sex hormones have long been implicated in autoimmune diseases because women account for 80% of cases.

What is the cause of the disease Xeroderma Pigmentosum?

Mutations in the ERCC1 or ERCC4 genes cause a remarkable array of rare inherited human disorders including specific forms of xeroderma pigmentosum. Individuals with NER-defective xeroderma pigmentosum (XP), in which bulky DNA lesions are not efficiently removed, are cancer-prone and suffer neurodegeneration.