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You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information.
What is Which of the following streptococcal antigen cross reacts with synol fluid ? and explain in detail?
Ans. is 'c' i.e., Capsular hyaluronic acid
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information.
What is Gaucher's disease is due to enzyme deficiency of and explain in detail?
(A) Glucocerebrosidase# Gaucher disease refers to a duster of autosomal recessive disorders resulting from mutations in the gene encoding glucocerebrosidase. This disease is the most common lysosomal storage disorder.> This affected gene encodes glucocerebrosidase, an enzyme that normally cleaves glucose residue from ceramide> As a result, glucocerebroside accumulates principally in the phagocytic cells of the body but in some forms also in the central nervous system.> Glucocerebrosides derived mainly from the cell membranes of leukocytes and erythrocytes.
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What is The enzymes that catalyses the same reaction but differ in physical properties are called as: and explain in detail?
None
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What is Route of infection in Tubercular Pyelonephritis - and explain in detail?
None
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What is All are true about amoebic liver abscess, except - and explain in detail?
Ans. is 'b' i.e., More common in left lobe Amoebic Liver abscesso Caused by Entamoeba histolytica whose cysts are acquired through the feco-oral route and their trophozoites reach the liver through portal venous system,o Like pyogenic abscess they are also common in rt. lobe of liver.Clinical featuresy The typical clinical picture is of a patient 20-40yrs of age who has travelled to an endemic area, presents with fever, chills, anorexia, rt. upper quadrant pain.Although liver abscess results from an obligatory colonic infection, a recent history of diarrhoea is uncommon. Jaundice is rare (c.f. in pyogenic abscess jaundice is seen in -25% of pts.).o Liver function tests may show mild abnormalities, hyperbilirubinemia is uncommon.o CT > LVS are the mainstay of investigation.o Diagnosis is confirmed by serological tests (enzyme immune assay) for antiamoebic antibodies,o Cultures of amoebic abscess are usually negative.Treatmento Metronidazole is the mainstay of ft and is curative in over 90% of patients.(other nitroimidazoles i.e. secnidazole, tinidazole, are also effective)o Therapeutic needle aspiration is avoided. Done only whenPt. fails to respond to metronidazoleHigh risk of ruptureAbscess secondarily infected with pyogenic organism.Complicationso May occur uncommonly; these are :Rupture into the peritoneum, pleural cavity or pericardium.
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What is Neointimal hyperplasia causes vascular graft failure as a result of hyperophy of and explain in detail?
Vascular injury leading to endothelial cell loss or dysfunction stimulates smooth muscle cell growth and associated matrix synthesis. Healing of injured vessels involves the migration of smooth muscle cells or smooth muscle cell precursor cells into the intima. Here these cells proliferate, and synthesize ECM in much the same way that fibroblasts fill in a wound, forming a neointima that typically is covered by an intact endothelial cell layer. This neointimal response occurs with any form of vascular damage or dysfunction, including infection, inflammation, immune injury, physical trauma (e.g., from a balloon catheter or hypeension), or toxic exposure (e.g. oxidized lipids or cigarette smoke). Thus, intimal thickening is a stereotypical response of the vessel wall to any insult ( Robbins Basic Pathology, 9 th edition, page 334 )
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What is Autoinduction of biotransformation and action as a hormone is seen in: and explain in detail?
Ans: D (Thyroxine) Ref: Basic and Clinical Pharmacology by Katzung, 2012. 12th ed. Pg 684-685Explanation:In hyperthyroidism, the half lives of T3 and T4 are decreased owing to their enhanced metabolic clearance.Similarly in hypothyroidism, the half lives of T3 and T4 are increased due to reduced metabolic clearance. This clearly shows the autoinduction feature of thyroid hormones.In hyperthyroidism, the required dose of digoxin increases while in hypothyroidism lower dose is sufficient.Sedation and respiratory depression is more with sedatives and opioids respectively in patients w ith hypothyroidism w hile these effects are less in hyperthyroidism.
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What is Incidence of cord prolapse is least in: and explain in detail?
The incidence of cord prolapse in in flexed breech is 6% and in footling is 12%.In extended breech it is only 0.5% which is not much higher than in veex.(0.4%). Ref.pg.375 Sheila Textbook of Obstetrics 2nd edition.
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What is According to Vision 2020, the recommendations for secondary care services including cataract surgery is: and explain in detail?
Ans. c. 1 service center for 5,00,000 population (Ref: Khurana 5/e p484 4/454)According to Vision 2020, the recommendations for secondary care sendees including cataract surgery is 1 service center for 5,00,000 population."There is need to develop 2000 service centres at secondary level. Each with 2 Ophthalmologist and 8 paramedics (Hospital based MLOP), and one eye care manager covering a population of 5 lacs.""Vision 2020': The Right to Sight'Vision 2020': The Right to Sight, is a global initiative launched by WHO in 1999 in a broad coalition with a 'Task Force of International Non-Governmental Organizations (NGOs)' to combat the gigantic problem of blindness in the world.Objective of Vision 2020:To eliminate avoidable blindness by the year 2020 and to reduce the global burden of blindnessQGovernment of India has adopted 'Vision 2020: Right to Sight' under National Programme for Control of Blindness.Infrastructure Pyramid Based on WHO RecommendationsPrimary level Vision Centres:There is need to develop 20,000 vision centresQEach with one Ophthalmic Assistant or equivalent (Community based MLOP)Covering population of 50,000QService Centres:There is need to develop 2000 service centres at secondary levelQEach with 2 Ophthalmologist and 8 paramedics (Hospital based MLOP), and one eye care managerCovering a population of 5 lacsQTraining Centres:There is need to develop 200 Training Centres' for the training of OphthalmologistQCovering population of 50 lacsQCentre of Excellence (COE):There is need to develop 20 COE with well developed all subspecialties of OphthalmologyQ.Covering a population of 5 croreQBasic Strategies Linder Vision 2020:Disease prevention and controlTraining of personnelStrengthening the existing eye care infrastructureUse of appropriate and affordable technologyMobilization of resourcesGlobal Vision 2020 (5 diseasesQ)Indian Vision 2020 (7 diseasesQ)* Cataract* Refractive errors and low vision* Childhood blindness* Trachoma* Onchocerciasis* Cataract* Refractive errors and low vision* Childhood blindness* Trachoma (Focal)* Glaucoma* Diabetic retinopathy* Corneal blindness
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What is All are features of Silico-tuberculosis except and explain in detail?
In recent years doubts have risen in the association between silicois and tuberculosis as: Sputum is rarely AfB+ Children and women of sts do not develop tuberculosis Post mortem of sts fail to prove existence of tuberculosis Radilogical evidence of both conditions is similar.
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What is Basiliximab is? and explain in detail?
Basiliximab is an anti CD25 antibody. It has a high affinity for interleukin 2. It is used for the prevention of rejection reactions in transplant patients.Ref: Sharma and Sharma 2nd e/pg 887
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information.
What is In an endodontically treated tooth: and explain in detail?
None
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information.
What is Pioneer in concept of 'Specific protection by vaccine: and explain in detail?
Ans. (a) Chinese medicine* Chinese were early pioneers of immunization* They practiced variolation to prevent smallpoxALSO REMEMBERChinese Barefoot Doctors* Farmers who received minimal basic medical and para- medical training and worked in rural villages of China* Name comes from southern farmers, who would often work barefoot in the rice paddies promoted basic hygiene, preventive health care, family planning and treated common illnesses* Purpose: To bring health care to rural areas where urban-trained doctors would not settle
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information.
What is In which order the airway of the neonates, who require suctioning, be suctioned during neonatal resuscitation? and explain in detail?
The mouth is suctioned before the nose ('M' before 'N') To ensure that the infant does not aspirate, if he gasps when the nose is suctioned.
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What is Sites at which the uvea is attached to the sclera include all of the following except and explain in detail?
Uvea is made up of Iris, Ciliary body and Choroid. Uvea is attached to sclera at 3 points 1. Scleral spur 2. Optic nerve 3. Exit point of voex veins The ora serrata is not a point of attachment of choroid to sclera - it is the attachment of the neurosensory retina and choroid. Ora Serrata is the serrated peripheral margin where the retina ends. Here the retina is firmly attached both to the vitreous and the choroid
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information.
What is A patient presents with erythematous scaly lesions on extensor aspect of elbows and knee. The clinical diagnosis is got by – and explain in detail?
Erythematous scaly lesions on extensor aspect of elbow and knee favours the diagnosis of Psoriasis. The clinical diagnosis of psoriasis can be made by demonstrating Auspitz sign. It is a characteristic finding of psoriasis in which removal of scale leads to pinpoint bleeding.
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What is Parastomal hernia is a complication most commonly associated with which of the following surgical procedure? and explain in detail?
Parastomal hernia usually result from the placement of an ostomy lateral to the rectus muscle or through an operative incision. It is associated with 58% cases of colostomies and 28% cases of ileostomy. End colostomy and parastomal hernia has the greatest association, followed by loop colostomy, end ileostomy then loop ileostomy. Ref: Clinical Practice and Surgery of The Colon, Rectum and Anus By Sisir Kumar Saha, Page 125; Hernia Repair Sequelae By Volker Schumpelick, Page 452; Contemporary Coloproctology By Steven Brown, Page 478; Complications in Surgery By Michael W. Mulholland, Gerard M. Dohey, Page 476
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What is All are of adult size at bih except: and explain in detail?
Maxillary antrum "The tympanic cavity and mastoid antrum , auditory ossicles and structures of the internal ear are all almost fully developed at bih and subsequently alter little." -Gray's Anatomy 40/e p623Maxillary antrum reaches adult size by 15 yrs of age. All paranasal sinuses except maxillary (and sometimes ethmoidal) are rudimentary or absent at bih. They enlarge appreciably during the eruption of the permanent teeth and after pubey, events that significantly alter the size and shape of the face.Some students were of the opinion that in the present question 'orbit' was the option instead of maxillary antrum. In that case the answer would be orbit. "Orbit reaches its full adult size by 15 to 16 yrs of age." Also Know:Though the mastoid antrum is well developed at bih, the mastoid air cells are not developed and are merely minute antral diveicula at this stage. The mastoid process develops in the 2"d yr and is invaded by air cells in the 6ill yr.(Ref: Grays 40/e p417)
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What is Chronic osteomyelitis is diagnosed mainly by: and explain in detail?
Sequestrum is the dead bone separated out from the living bone by the granulation tissue. The factors responsible for bone death in chronic osteomyelitis are: raised intravascular pressure Vascular stasis and small vessel thrombosis periosteal stripping bacterial toxins Sequestrum is the hall mark of chronic osteomyelitis Involucrum--periosteal new bone forming later
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What is Human papilloma virus is a: and explain in detail?
Ref: Microbiology by Ananthanarayan and Paniker, 8th ed. pg. 549* Human papillomavirus (HPV) is a DNA virus from the papovavirus family that is capable of infecting humans.* Usually it causes no symptoms in most people, but some types can cause warts (verrucae), while others can in a minority of cases lead to cancers of the cervix, vulva, vagina, penis, oropharynx and anus.* HPV has been linked with an increased risk of cardiovascular disease.* In addition, HPV 16 and 18 infections are a cause of a unique type of oropharyngeal (throat) and cervix cancer.DNA and RNA virusDNA virusRNA virus* Pox virus: largest virus* Parvovirus: smallest virus* Adenovirus* Papovavirus* Hepadna virus* Herpesvirus* Rotavirus: only double stranded RNA virus* Orthomyxovirus* Reovirus* Buniya virus* Arena virus* Hepatitis A, C, D, E virus* Picorna, polio, cocksackie, echo and entero virus.
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What is Radiation dose is measured in and explain in detail?
Units for Radiation dose or absorbed radiation are : Traditional unit : Rad SI unit : Gray
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What is During knife fight a person gets injured in the neck region and presents to you with weakness in raising right arm above head. On fuher examination winging of right scapula is noted. The injury has damaged and explain in detail?
Spinal accessory nerve is quite superficial in the neck region and is damaged more often as compared to long thoracic nerve of Bell (which gets damaged in the axilla region more commonly).Both the muscles are involved in overhead abduction (90-1800)Both the muscles (SA and Trapezius) if paralysed can produce winging of scapula
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What is which of the following is not the side effect of phenelezine and explain in detail?
MAOI * IMPOANCE First class of antidepressant drugs that were introduced * MECHANISM There are three monoamines namely dopamine, adrenaline and serotonin. These mon amines are degraded by monoamine oxidase. MAOI inhibit this enzyme and acts increasing monoamines * DRUGS Phenelezine Tranylcipromine * USE ATYPICAL DEPRESSION, depression with reverse vegetative symptoms * SIDE EFFECTS Hypeensive crisis Cheese reaction When a patient on MAOI takes tyramine rich food like tyramine there will be increased release of monoamines. These excess monoamines cannot be degraded by MAO as it is blocked by MAOI. Thus, this may result in hypeensive crisis. Paresthesia's due to pyridoxine deficiency LIKE IPRONIAZID WEIGHT gain SEXUAL dysfunction Ref. kaplon and sadock, synopsis of psychiatry, 11 th edition, pg no. 955
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What is Counter transference is: and explain in detail?
Transference - feeling that patient develop for doctor based on the real feelings towards that doctor combined with the feelings for other doctors in the past. Counter transference - feeling that doctor develop for patient based on the real feelings towards that patient combined with the feeling for other patients from the past.
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What is Normal ovaries are seen in which of the following condition - and explain in detail?
Ans-A i.e. MRKH syndrome Mayer Rokitansky - Kuster Hauser syndromeIt refers to congenital absence of the vagina with variable uterine development - It results from agenesis or hypoplasia of the mullerian duct system although the underlying etiology remain unknown.These women have normal female karyotype with normal ovaries and ovarian function thus they develop normal secondary sexual characteristics (e.g. breast development axillary hair, and pubic hair) except menarche does not occur.Meyer Rokitansky kuster Hauser Syndrome These patients often present with primary amenorrhea at 15-17 years of age.Most patients have "rudimentary non functioning ironing uterus" but 2-7 percent have uterus with functioning endometrium and may present with cyclic or chronic abdominopelvic pain.* On physical examination the external genitalia are normal * In addition, these females exhibit extrarenal abnormalities- Approximately 20-50% have urologic abnormalities such as unilateral renal agenesis, pelvic or horseshoe kidney or irregularities of the collecting system and 10-15% have skeletal anomalies involving the spine ribs and extremities.
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What is Pathway shown in Figure is seen in the following organ(s) and explain in detail?
All of the above (Pathway shown: PPP/ HMP shunt pathway - Liver, Adrenal cortex, Adipose tissue, Mammary glands, Ovary, Testes, RBC, lens of eye)
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What is What is the major source of extracellular cholesterol for human tissues? and explain in detail?
The uptake of exogenous cholesterol by cells results in a marked suppression of endogenous cholesterol synthesis. Low-density human lipoprotein not only contains the greatest ratio of bound cholesterol to protein but also has the greatest potency in suppressing endogenous cholesterogenesis. normally suppress cholesterol synthesis by binding to a specific membrane receptor that mediates inhibition of hydroxymethylglutaryl (HMG) coenzyme A reductase. In familial hypercholesterolemia the LDL receptor is dysfunctional, with the result that cholesterol synthesis is less responsive to plasma cholesterol levels. Suppression of HMG CoA reductase is attained using inhibitors (statins) that mimic the structure of mevalonic acid, the natural feedback inhibitor of the enzyme. Note: The LDL (apoB-100, E) receptor is defective in familial hypercholesterolemia, a genetic condition in which blood LDL cholesterol levels are increased, causing premature atherosclerosis. Ref: Botham K.M., Mayes P.A. (2011). Chapter 25. Lipid Transpo & Storage. In D.A. Bender, K.M. Botham, P.A. Weil, P.J. Kennelly, R.K. Murray, V.W. Rodwell (Eds), Harper's Illustrated Biochemistry, 29e.
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What is A 10-year-old boy, Pappu, died of acute rheumatic fever. All the following can be expected at autopsy, except: and explain in detail?
MacCallum patch/plaque is a feature of chronic rheumatic hea disease (RHD). During mitral regurgitation, where the regurgitant jet strikes back the atrial wall, results in endocardial thickening and it is called MacCallum patch or MacCallum plaques. They are described as "map-like areas of thickened, roughened, and wrinkled pa of the endocardium in the left atrium", usually associated with dilated left atrium.
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What is Tympanic plexus present in - and explain in detail?
B i.e. Medial projection of middle ear cavity Tympanic nerve arises from the glossopharyngeal nerve, just below the jugular foramen. It passes through the floor of middle ear and reaches onto the mucous membrane covering the promontory(2, where it splits into branches and joint branches of internal carotid plexus to form tympanic plexus. Promontary is round bulging in the medial or labyrinthine wall of middle ear cavityQ produced by the first turn of cholea.
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What is True about frank breech: and explain in detail?
Frank breech is the most common type of breech It has hips flexed and legs extended Footling presentation is associated with Incomplete breech ECV is done at 36 to 37 weeks. If ECV is done before 36 weeks there is a chance of the position changing back to breech or the patient may go into preterm labour If done after 37 weeks - chances of successful version are less as fetal size is more and liquor is relatively less.
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What is Which of the following is most strongly associated with coronary hea disease? and explain in detail?
Apolipoprotien B (major LDL protien) is better predictors of CHD. Ref-Park&;s textbook of Preventive and Social Medicine 24th edition.
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What is An 8 year old child has shown of lack of interest in studies for last 6 months. He has frequent quarrels with his parents and has frequent headaches as anexcuse to avoid school. What would be the most appropriate clinical diagnosis in this patient? and explain in detail?
Since the person in the question is showing a hostile behavior which is impairing his academic activities for the last 6 months, the most appropriate next step would be to rule out Oppositional defiant disorder.Oppositional defiant disorder is a recurrent pattern of negativistic, hostile or defiant behavior that lasts longer than 6 months and creates disturbances in at least one of the domains of child functioning including social, academic or occupational impairment. The symptoms of this disorder is usually evident around 6-8 years. Ref: Kaplan and Sadock's Comprehensive Textbook of Psychiatry, 9th Edition, Page 3586, 3580.
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What is The term infantile polyaeritis nodosa was formerly used for and explain in detail?
Refer Robbins page no 510 Clinically infantile polyaeritis nodosa often ilia pa of the spectrum of Kawasaki disease
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What is Which non depolarizing agent is a ganglion blocker and explain in detail?
Ans. is 'c' i.e., D-TC o Maximum ganglion blockade is caused by -4 d-TC
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What is Eisenmenger syndrome–True are A/E – and explain in detail?
The characteristic pathological pulmonary vascular changes that develop in a patients with Eisenmenger syndrome are confined to arteries only and involve small pulmonary arterioles and muscular arteries (veins are not involved). There is right ventricular hypertrophy (RV walls do not come back to normal size). On x-ray there are dilated and prominent central arteries with rapid tapering (pruning) of the peripheral vasculature.
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What is Most impoant strategy for control of malaria in endemic area - and explain in detail?
Ans. is 'c' i.e., Vector control
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What is Hematuria in previous LSCS patient indicates - and explain in detail?
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What is A man cannot digest carbohydrate. The enzyme deficient is - and explain in detail?
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Amylase o Principal enzyme involved in digestion of dietary carbohydrate is amylase.Digestion of carbohydrateso The most abundant carbohydrate in our food is starch. The other forms of carbohydrate which are consumed in substantial amounts are sucrose and lactose.o Starch is a polysaccharide composed entirely of glucose units linked by 1,4- alpha linkage and 1, 6 branching points. What it means that carbon atom -1 of a glucose unit is linked to carbon atom - 4 of the adjacent glucose unit, and that bond is of alpha - type. At the branching points, carbon atom-1 is linked to carbon atom-6 of the adjacent glucose unit.o Digestion of starch starts in the mouth itself by salivary amylase (ptylin). But the hydrolysis by salivary amylase cannot proceed much because the optimal pH for the reaction is 6-7 which is very different from the highly acidic environment of the stomach. The process is resumed by 'pancreatic amylase' in the small intestine. Amylase attacks only internal, 1-4 alpha glucose-glucose bondsQ but spares 1-6 linkages and terminal 1-4 alpha linkages. Hence the products of starch hydrolysis are maltose (a disaccharide, two glucose residues linked by 1:4 a bonds), maltoriose (a trisaccharide, three glucose residues linked by 1:4a bonds), and alpha limit dextrins (Polymers of glucose containing 8 glucose molecules with 1-6 a linkages).o Both salivary1 and pancreatic amylases are activated by Cl-Qo Further digestion of starch derivatives occurs by the enzymes (oligosaccharidases) present in the brush border of small intestinal epithelial cells. Maltase (a-glucosidase) breaks 1:4 linkages in maltose and maltotriose and releases glucose (two molecules of glucose from maltose and three molecules of glucose from maltotriose). Isomaltase (a- limit dextrinase) breaks 1:6 a linkages of alpha-limit dextrin and releases glucose. Isomaltase (a-limit dextrinase) is the only enzyme that attacks 1: 6a linkage.o Sucrose is hydrolysed into fructose and glucose by sucrase (an enzyme present in brush border of intestinal epithelium). Lactose is hydrolysed into galactose and glucose by lactase (b-glucosidase). Trehalase hydrolyzes trehelose (a 1:1 a - linked dimer of glucose) into two glucose molecules. Trehalose is found in mushrooms.About other optionso Pepsin and trypsin are invloved in protein metabolism.o Lipase is involved in fat metabolism.
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What is The best preservative for preserving viscera for toxicological analysis is– and explain in detail?
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What is Phrygian cap in gallbladder refers to: and explain in detail?
Phrygian cap is a clinically innocuous entity in which a paial or complete septum (or fold) separates the fundus from the body of the gallbladder. Reference: Harrisons Principles of Internal Medicine, 18th Edition, Page 2616
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What is Schizophrenia is characterized by all, except: Punjab 09 and explain in detail?
Ans. Elation
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What is True about Marjolins ulcer - and explain in detail?
Ans is 'a' i.e. Develops in long standing scar; 'b' i.e. sq cell Ca develops; 'c' i.e. Slow growing lesion Baghdad sore or oriental sore or Delhi boil is caused by Leishmania Tropica.
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What is A 45 year old male had multiple hypoaesthetic mildly erythematous large plaques with elevated margins on trunk and extremities. His ulnar and lateral popliteal nerves on both sides were enlarged. The most probable diagnosis is – and explain in detail?
This patient has:- Multiple lesions Hypoesthetic Bilateral symmetrical nerve thickening These favour lepromatous end of the spectrum. Now question arises, whether it is BL or LL. Point two (Hypoesthetic) differentiates the two:- Sensations IL : Hypoesthetic or  Normoesthetic TT : Anesthetic BT : Hypoesthetic sometimes anaesthetic BB : Hypoesthetic BL : Hypoesthetic LL : Normoesthetic Late glove & stocking anaesthetic
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What is Inheritance of colour blindness is - and explain in detail?
Ans. is 'b' i.e., X linked recessive * Colour blindness has X linked recessive inheritance.* Hence it has criss cross inheritance.* It passes from a carrier mother to her son.* Females are carriers in this disease.
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What is Cystine is formed by ? and explain in detail?
Ans. is 'd' i.e., Disulfide bond between cysteine molecule
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What is Best test to evaluate syphilis after treatment is: and explain in detail?
None
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What is Bad prognosis is multiple myeloma is indicated by - and explain in detail?
None
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What is Replacement dose of thyroxine is and explain in detail?
• Daily replacement dose of thyroxine: 1.6 μg/Kg body weight (0.1-0.15 gm) . • For TSH suppression (in PTC and FTC), dose of thyroxine: 2.7 μg/Kg body weight.
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What is Erythromycin acts on which receptor in GITract - and explain in detail?
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Motilin * Erythromycin stimulates motilin (an upper gastrointestinal peptide hormone) receptors in the g.i.t.--thereby induces gastric contractions, hastens gastric emptying and promotes intestinal motility without significant effect on colonic motility.* On the basis of this action erythromycin has been occasionally used to afford short-term symptomatic relief in diabetic gastroparesis. However, tolerance quickly develops to this action (probably due to receptor down- regulation) and undesirable alteration of bacterial flora limit use of erythromycin as a prokinetic agent. Contribution of this action to the g.i. side effects of erythromycin is not known.
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What is Most common tumor of spleen is: and explain in detail?
MC neoplasm of spleen: Lymphoma (Non-Hodgkin's lymphoma) MC primary tumor of spleen: Hemangioma MC primary malignant tumor of spleen: Angiosarcoma (Hemangiosarcoma)
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What is Which of these components in breast milk are beneficial in the intestinal cell maturation and repair? and explain in detail?
Epidermal growth factor is beneficial in intestinal cell maturation, repair and luminal surveillance. Lactoferrin: Immunomodulationn, iron chelation, antimicrobial action, antiadhesive, trophic for intestinal growth. Glutathione peroxidase: Prevents lipid oxidation Ref: Nelson Textbook of pediatrics 21st edition Pgno: 322
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What is Distichiasis is and explain in detail?
Answer- B. Growth of eyelashes from Meibomian OrificesDistichiasis is a rare disorder defined as the abnormal grorvth of lashes from the orifces of the meibomian glands on the posterior lamella of the tarsal plate.
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What is A 21-year-old woman experiences abruptio placentae with severe bleeding during the delivery of a term fetus. Five months later, she presents with profound lethargy, pallor, muscle weakness, failure of lactation, and amenorrhea. Which of the following pathologic findings is expected in this patient? and explain in detail?
This patient experienced postpartum ischemic necrosis of the pituitary (Sheehan syndrome). This commonly, but not exclusively, occurs after severe hypotension induced by postpartum hemorrhage. The pituitary is particularly susceptible at this time because its enlargement during pregnancy renders it vulnerable to a reduction in blood flow. Major clinical manifestations of panhypopituitarism include pallor (decreased MSH), hypothyroidism (decreased TSH), failure of lactation (decreased prolactin), adrenal insufficiency, and ovarian failure (decreased FSH and LH). None of the other choices lead to this constellation of hormone deficiencies.Diagnosis: Sheehan syndrome
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What is Annexin V is a marker of aEUR' and explain in detail?
Apoptosis Annexin V assays provides simple and effective method to detect apoptosis at a very early stage. This assay makes advantage of the fact that phosphatidylserine (PS) is translocated from the inner (cytoplasmic) leaflet of the plasma membrane to the outer (cell surface) leaflet soon after the induction of apoptosis and that the annexin V protein has strong specific affinity for phosphatidyl serine. Phosphatidyl serine on the outer leaflet is available to bind labelled annexin V providing the basis for a simple staining assay. All of the annexin proteins share the propey of binding calcium and phospholipids. Annexin V is a cause of syndrome called antiphospholipid antibody syndrome. Annexin V normally forms a shield around ceain phospholipid molecules that blocks their entry into coagulation (clotting) reactions. In the antiphospholipid antibody syndrome; the formation of the shield is disrupted by the abnormal antibodies. Without the shield, there is an increased quantity of phospholipid molecules on cell membranes speeding up coagulation reactions and causing the abnormal blood clotting characteristic of antiphospholipid antibody syndrome.
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What is All of the following causes death in coarctation of Aoa except- and explain in detail?
Ans. is d i.e., Anterior MI The causes of moality in co-arctation of aoa are : Hypeension Aoic dissection Premature atherosclerosis Rupture of aoa Left ventricular failure Infective endocarditis Cerebral haemorrhage (due to aneurysm rupture)
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What is Following statements are true regarding mycetoma except: and explain in detail?
Eumycetoma has no acceptable treatment at present; antifungals such as ketoconazole and itraconazole have been used but are unable to eradicate the fungus, need to be given for long periods and are expensive. Amputations and recurrences in patients with Eumycetoma are common.
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What is The most frequent cause of recurrent genital ulceration in a sexually active male is – and explain in detail?
Most common cause of recurrent genital ulcer is HSV-2. Infact, the characteristic feature of Herpes genitalis is that it is recurrent.
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What is The most common cause of facial palsy is - and explain in detail?
None
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What is In myasthenia gravis antibody are formed against\ and explain in detail?
(A) ACh receptor > The major problem in myasthenia gravis is a marked reduction of acetylcholine receptors on the motor endplate where cranial nerves form a neuromuscular junction with muscles.> In these patients, autoantibodies against the acetylcholine receptors effectively reduce receptor numbers.> Normally, acetylcholine molecules released by the nerve terminal bind to receptors on the muscle endplate, resulting in a stimulation of contraction by depolarizing the muscle membrane.> The condition is improved with drugs that inhibit acetylcholinesterase. CALCIUM CHANNEL DISORDERS OF MUSCLE: Hypokalemic Periodic Paralysis (HypoKPP). SODIUM CHANNEL DISORDERS OF MUSCLE: Hyperkalemic Periodic Paralysis (HyperKPP). POTASSIUM CHANNEL DISORDERS: Andersen's Syndrome
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What is Spermatozoa get nourishment from: and explain in detail?
B
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What is Schwartz sign is seen in -(PGI 98) and explain in detail?
(A) Schwartz sign also known as Flemingo's pink sign, is a diagnostic indicator for otosclerosis, a disease of the bones of the middle or inner ear. In clinical examination of the ear drum, increased vascularity of the promontory may be seen through the ear drum.
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What is PDA true is all except ? and explain in detail?
Ans. is 'd i.e., More common in term baby During fetal life, most of the pulmonary aerial blood is shunted through the ductus aeriosus into the aoa . Functional closure of the ductus normally occurs soon after bih, but if the ductus remains patent when pulmonary vascular resistance falls, aoic blood is shunted into the pulmonary aery. The aoic end of the ductus is just distal to the origin of the left subclan aery, and the ductus enters the pulmonary aery at its bifurcation Female patients with PDA outnumber males 2 : 1. PDA is also associated with maternal rubella infection during early pregnancy. It is a common problem in premature infants, where it can cause severe hemodynamic derangements and several major sequelae
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What is Treponema pallidum isolation from CSF is maximum in which stage of syphilis? and explain in detail?
B. i.e. Secondary syphilis
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What is Isoprostanes are formed from archidonic acid by ? and explain in detail?
Ans. is 'd' i.e., Non-enzymatic free radical peroxidationEpoxygenase pathway Cytochrome P450 may conve arachidonic acid (AA) to 20-HETE (20-hydroxyeicosa tetraenoic acid) or EET (epixyeicosatrienoic acid).EET may function as endothelium derived hyperpolarization factor paicularly in coronary circulation. It also possesses anti-inflammatory, anti-apoptotic and pro-angiogenic action. Biological effects of EET are reduced by metabolism to less active DHET with the help of epoxide hydrolase.20 HETE causes vasoconstriction of renal aeries and has been implicated in the pathogenesis of hypeension. In contrast, EET possesses antihypeensive propeies its vasodilating and natriuretic actions. Inhibitors of epoxide hydralase (results in elevated levels of EET) are being developed as antihypeensive drugs.Isoeicosanoid pathway Isoprostanes are formed by non-enzymatic free radical based peroxidation of arachidonic acid.Iso prostanes have potent vasoconstrictor activity and modulate WBC and platelet adhesive interactions and angiogenesis.
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What is A patient treated for infeility with clomiphene citrate presents with sudden onset of abdominal pain and distension with ascites. Most probable diagnosis is: and explain in detail?
Ovarian hyperstimulation syndrome (OHSS) is a clinical symptom complex associated with ovarian enlargement resulting from exogenous gonadotropin therapy. Symptoms may include abdominal pain and distension, ascites, gastrointestinal problems, respiratory compromise, oliguria, hemoconcentration, and thromboembolism. Predisposing factors for OHSS include, Multifollicular ovaries such as with PCOS Young age High estradiol levels during ovulation induction Pregnancy Ref: Hoffman B.L., Schorge J.O., Schaffer J.I., Halvorson L.M., Bradshaw K.D.,Cunningham F.G., Calver L.E. (2012). Chapter 20. Treatment of the Infeile Couple. In B.L. Hoffman, J.O. Schorge, J.I. Schaffer, L.M. Halvorson, K.D. Bradshaw, F.G. Cunningham, L.E. Calver (Eds), Williams Gynecology, 2e.
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What is Purkinje cells from the cerebellum end in and explain in detail?
The output of purkinje cells is inhibitory to the cerebellar nuclei
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What is 8 year old boy is brought with c/o progressive weakness & difficulty getting up the shows the following finding what is the MC type of mutation leading to this condition? and explain in detail?
Frame shift mutation Inseion or deletion of genes can alter the reading frame of the DNA Eg: Muscular dystrophy Mutation of DMD gene at Xp21 encodes dystrophin- sarcolemal Protein C/f : progressive weakness difficulty in getting up
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What is b-thalasemia trait; true about - and explain in detail?
Ans. is 'a' i.e., THbF; 'b' i.e., THbA2; 'c' i.e, Microcytosis There are three forms of beta-thalassemia Thalassemia major (Cooley's anemia) o The individual with thalassemia major is homozygous for beta-thalassemia genes. o It is severe transfusion dependent anemia. o Severe anemia manifests 6-9 months after bih, as hemoglobin synthesis switches from HbF to HbA. Thalassemia minor (beta-thalassemia trait) o The individual with thalassemia minor has only one copy of the beta thalassemia gene, i.e. they are heterozygous for beta-thalassemia genes. o This is mildest form with mild or absent anemia. o Patients are usually asymptomatic, and are typically identified during laboratory investigations. Thalassemia intermedia o Thalassemia intermedia is a condition intermediate between the major and minor forms. o Affected individuals can often manage a normal life but may need occasional transfusion. Hematological findings in Thalassemia Peripheral blood smear Anisocytosis (variation in size of RBCs) Target cells (hemoglobin collects in the center of the red cells) Poikilocytosis (variation in shape of RBCs) Basophilic stippling Microcytic hypochromic RBCs Fragmented RBC
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What is Solder and flux used for joining Elgiloy wires are and explain in detail?
None
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What is A female patient presents with upper respiratory tract infection. Two days after, she develops hematuria. What is the probable diagnosis? and explain in detail?
IgA nephropathy is associated with upper respiratory tract infections Gross hematuria usually appears simultaneously or within the first 48-72 hours after the infection begins; persists <3 days; loin pain- due to renal capsular swelling. Urine is usually brown rather than red, and clots are unusual.
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What is Wegner's granulomatosis involves and explain in detail?
Wegener granulomatosis is a necrotizing vasculitis characterized by a specific triad of findings: * Granulomas of the lung and/or the upper respiratory tract (ear, nose, sinuses, throat) * Vasculitis of small to medium-sized vessels (capillaries, venules, aerioles, and aeries), most prominently in the lungs and upper respiratory tract * Glomerulonephritis "Limited" forms of disease can be restricted to the respiratory tract. Conversely, a widespread form of the disease can affect eyes, skin, and other organs, notably the hea; clinically, this resembles polyaeritis nodosa with the additional feature of respiratory involvement. (Robbins basic pathology,9th edition,pg no.353)
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What is Hutchinsons sign and explain in detail?
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What is Type of graft, best suited for renal transplantation: and explain in detail?
Answer is D (Isograft) : "Although the best graft is an Autograft, a renal graft can obviously not he an Autograft...silly." So the best renal graft is an Isoqraft from an individual twin. IsOgrall: Is a graft from a different individual genetically identical with recipient e.g. identical twin. Aulograft: Is to self. Allograft: Graft from different species. Xenograft: Graft from different species.
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What is Incisional wound on genital is seen commonly in the following condition: and explain in detail?
Homicidal wounds are usually multiple and can occur in any region of the body. Wounds of the chest are usually present over a wider area and are more horizontal. They may be directed from below upwards. Incised wounds on nose, ears, and genitals are usually homicidal, and are inflicted on account of jealousy or revenge in cases of adultery, causing disfiguration. Ref: The essentials of forensic medicine and toxicology by Dr K S Narayan Reddy, 27th edition, Page 171.
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What is Water powder ratio of dental stone and plaster is respectively and explain in detail?
None
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What is Number of permanent teeth in a 8 year old child and explain in detail?
None
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What is Normal anion gap metabolic acidosis is seen in: and explain in detail?
Law of electroneutrality = Number of cations & anions should be equal in ICF and ECF In ECF, Na+ is main cation, Cl- & HCO3- are main anions. We do not measure all cations & anions, it is measured as + + = + + we can measure all cations but we cannot measure all anions. So, there is a gap created b/w these two sides. This is called Anion gap. Anion gap is calculated as -{ + } = 141 - = 141 - 129 = 12meq/lit +-4(K+) Thus, normal anion gap is 12+- 4 meq/lit. In acidosis conditions; HCO3- decreases & thus anion gap increases except in acidosis conditions in which anion of the acid is Cl- where anion gap will remain normal. In G.I fluid loss, anion gap remains normal.
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What is Which of the following acts as defence against E.coli? and explain in detail?
Lactoferrin binds to iron and makes it unavailable for E.coli and acts a defence mechanism against infections. Ref: Nutrition and Child Development, K.E. Elizabeth, 4th edition pg: 17
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What is Calcium carbonate is used for and explain in detail?
Ref: Katzung's, 14th ed. pg. 1089* This medication is used to treat symptoms caused by too much stomach acid such as heartburn, upset stomach, or indigestion.* It is an antacid that works by lowering the amount of acid in the stomach.* It can also be used in renal osteodystrophy with hyperphosphatemia, hypocalcemia and osteoporosis like conditions.* It can cause metabolic alkalosis (Milk-alkali syndrome)
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What is Boerhaave syndrome involves perforation of which part? and explain in detail?
Ans. is 'c' i.e., Lower 1/3 esophagus * Boerhaave's syndrome is spontaneous perforation of the esophagus, occuring usually due tosevere barotrauma when a person vomits against a closed glottis. The pressure in the esophagus rapidly increases and the esophagus bursts at its weakest point, sending a stream of material into the mediastinum and often the pleural cavity as well.* Most common location of perforation is in the left posterolateral aspect 3-5 cm above the gastroesophageal junction. Second most common site of perforation is at the midthoracic esophagus on the right side.* Most cases follow a bout of heavy eating and drinking.* The principal early manifestation is pain felt in the chest and upper abdomen.
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What is Calabar swelling is produced by- and explain in detail?
Calabar Swelling: Localized angioedema and erythema usually on the extremities, characterized by fugitive, swollen lumps of subcutaneous tissue caused by a parasitic filarial worm (Loa loa) endemic to Central and West Africa. The swollen areas migrate with the worm through the body at a speed of about 1 cm per minute and may become as large as a small egg.
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What is Hypercalciuria is seen in: and explain in detail?
Answer is D (All of the above): Hypercakiuria may be associated with Vitamin D intoxication (hypervitaminosis D), Sarcoidosis and hyperparathyroidism. Causes of Hypercalciuria-associated Nephrolithiasis in Children and Adults Idiopathic hypercalciuria Increased intestinal calcium absorption - Granulomatous disease e.g. sarcoidosis - Hypervitaminosis D - Milk alkali syndrome Increased bone resorption Immobilization e.g. paraplegia and quadriplegia High animal protein diet Systemic acidosis e.g. distal renal tubular acidosis - Adrenocoicotrophic hormone or coisol excess - Primary hyperparathyroidism Decreased renal calcium reabsorption - Barret's syndrome - Chronic loop diuretic administration - X-linked hypercalciuria nephrolithiasis - Familial hypocalcemic hypercalciuria Systemic disease associated with chronic hypercalcemia - Williams syndrome - Primary hyperparathyroidism
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What is Marking nut is and explain in detail?
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Semicarpus anacardium Semicarpus anacardium (marking nut or bhilawan)* Its seed are heart shaped, conical and black with acrid oily juice which is brownish but turns black on exposure to air. Active principles are semecarpol and bhilawanol.* Juice applied to skin produces irritation, painful blisters followed by itching and eczema. Therefore it is used to produce artificial bruises.* It is also used by washerman to mark clothes.
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What is Commonest thyroid tumor in MEN (multiple endocrine neoplasi and explain in detail?
Ans. is 'd' i.e., Medullary o Thyroid tumor is seen in MEN II, and is medullary carcinoma of thyroid.
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What is Pott's puffy tumor is seen in and explain in detail?
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Paranasal sinus Complications of sinusitis* Complications in properly managed sinusitis are uncommon.* Complication of sinus infection may be1) Local:- Mucocele / mucopyocele, mucous retention cyst, osteomyelitis.2) Orbital :- Periorbital cellulitis, orbital cellulitis, orbital abscess, subperiosteal abscess, cavernous sinus thrombosis, superior orbital fissure syndrome, orbital apex syndrome, edema of eye lids, retrobular neuritis with impaired vision.3) Intracranial :- Intracranial abscess (Epidural, subdural, parenchymal), meningitis, seizure, sepsis, focal neurological deficit.4) Descending infections :- Pharyngitis, laryngitis, tonsillitis, tracheobronchitis, otitis media.5) Systemic :- Toxic shock syndrome (very rare)* Osteomyelitis is more common in frontal sinusitis. Osteomyelitis of frontal bone can cause subperiosteal abscess known as Pott's puffy tumor.* Orbital cellulitis is particular^ common in ethmoid sinusitis.* Cavernous sinus thrombosis and intracranial complications are more common with sphenoid sinusitis.
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What is Influenza virus has ? and explain in detail?
Ans. is 'd' i.e., 8 segments of ssRNA Influenza virus Belong to ohomyxoviridae - Envelope, RNA virus Contain single stranded RNA which is segmented - 8 pieces
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What is Which of the following drug used in peptic ulcer can result in gynaecomastia and explain in detail?
Cimetidine inhibits metabolism of estrogen and can cause gynaecomastia.
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What is The sputum specimen of a 70 year old male was cultured on a 5% blood agar. The culture showed the presence of a-haemolytic colonies next day. The further processing of this organism is most likely to yield : and explain in detail?
None
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What is Orthopnea is heart failure develops due to and explain in detail?
When a normal individual lies down, the pulmonary blood volume increases by up to 400 mL When the person stands up this blood is discharged into the general circulation. This shift is the cause of the decrease in vital capacity in the supine position and is responsible for the occurrence of orthopnea in heart failure.
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What is Function of leptin is- and explain in detail?
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Reduce food intake Leptin* Leptin is a protein hormone produced by fat cells. It acts on hypothalamus to reduce food intake, decrease lipogenesis and increase lipolysis, thereby reducing the body fat stores.* The effect of leptin on appetite is mediated through a-MSH (a-melanocyte stimulating hormone), a pro- opiomelanocortin (POMC) derivative. Leptin acts by increasing the synthesis of POMC which is converted into a-MSH. a-MSH acts through melanocortin-4 receptors to depress appetite.* Leptin also inhibits the secretion of Agouti-related peptide (AgRP), a neuropeptide that increases food intake.* Plasma leptin levels are proportional to the amount of body fat and are therefore higher in women and obese individuals.
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What is In splenic injury conservative m/n is done in : and explain in detail?
Ans is 'b' ie. Young pts Most serious complications after splenectomy is OPSI (Opportunistic Post Splenectomy Infections) it is most common in young children and immunocompromised adults."Therefore it is essential to save the spleen in children."Now spleen salvage methods is the management of choice even in adults.Splenectomy is usually indicated under the following circumstances (Ref: Sabiston 18/e pi639 (17/e} p 1694)the pt. is unstablethe spleen is extensively injured with continuous bleedingbleeding is associated with hilar injuryother injuries require prompt attention"Splenectomy is indicated for hilar injuries, pulverized splenic parenchyma, or any injury of grade II or higher in a patient with coagulopathy or multiple injuries."-Schwartz 9/e
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What is The poor indicator of response during treatment of malnutrition includes and explain in detail?
Primary failure to respond may be characterized by:1. Failure to regain appetite by day 42. Failure to sta losing edema by day 43. Failure of the disappearance of edema by day 104. Failure to gain weight at least by 5g/kg/day by day 10 of therapyRef: Nelson Paediatrics; 20th edition
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What is Iron content of MALA-D - and explain in detail?
An. is 'b' i.e., 19 5 mg o MALA-D contains -30 mg (0- 03 mg) of ethinyl estradiol.0-15 mg of desogestrel (D-norgestrel).o Each brown coloured film coated tablet contains 60 mg ferrous fu mar ate equivalent to ferrous iron 19-5 mg.
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What is Submucosal fibroid is detected by : and explain in detail?
Ans. is a, b and c i.e. Hysteroscopy; Hysterosalpingography; and USG (Transabdominal) USG * Ultrasound is the main diagnostic tool in case of fibroid.deg It checks the numberdeg, locationdeg and sizedeg of fibroids and helps to reduce overlooking small fibroids during surgery (which might lead to persistence or recurrence of symptoms). USG findings in case of Fibroid Enlarged and distoed uterine contour Depending on connective tissue amount -- fibroid may have varying echogenecity (hypoechoic or hyperechoic. Vascularisation is seen at periphery. Hysteroscopy or hysterosalpingography : These methods are useful to detect submucous fibroid in unexplained infeility and repeated pregnancy wastage. The presence and site of submucous fibroid can be diagnosed by direct visualization during hysteroscopy or indirectly as a filling defect on HSG. Hysteroscopy also allows its excision under direct vision. Uterine Curettage : It can also help in diagnosis of submucous fibroid by feeling of a bump during curettage.deg Laparoscopy : is helpful if uterine size is less than 12 weeks, for detection of a subserous fibroid. It can also differentiate a pedunculated fibroid from an ovarian tumour not revealed by clinical examination and ultrasound. Investigation which can be done is MRI.deg Role of Doppler in diagnosis of Fibroid : Leiomyomas have characteristic vascular patterns which can be identified by color flow doppler. A peripheral rim of vascularity from which a few vessels arise and penetrate into the centre is seen. Doppler imaging can be used to differentiate an extrauterine leiomyoma from other pelvic masses or a submucous leiomyoma from an endometrial polyp or adenomyosis. Also know : Best investigation for submucous fibroid - Hysteroscopydeg Best investigation to detect fibroid (in general)deg -- USG (Pt choicer -- MRI (2f'd choicer
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What is Blunt trauma to the eye may produce all of the following changes in the vitreous except: and explain in detail?
Ans. Asteroid hyalosis
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What is Which of the following hormone is related to appetite and satiety? and explain in detail?
Ans. D. All of the above. (Ref. H-17th/pg. 255, 2557, 464; Fig. 74-2; Guyton 11th/pg. 870; Fig. 71-1)Activation of the POMC neurons decreases food intake and increases energy expenditure, whereas activation of the NPY-AGRP neurons increases food intake and reduces energy expenditure, these neurons are major targets for the actions of several hormones that regulate appetite, including leptin, insulin, CCK, and ghrelin.There are two distinct types of neurons in the arcuate nuclei of the hypothalamus that are especially important as controllers of both appetite and energy expenditure: (1) pro-opiomelanocortin (POMC) neurons that produce a-melanocyte-stimulating hormone (a-MSH) together with cocaine- and amphetamine-related transcript (CART), and (2) neurons that produce the orexigenic substances neuropeptide Y (NPY) and agouti-related protein (AGRP).NT and hormones influencing feeding and satiety centres in hypothalamusAnorexingenic (decrease feeding)Orexigenic (increase feeding)# Alpha-MSH# Neuropeptide Y (NPY)# Leptin# Agouti-related protein (AGRP)# Serotonin# Melanin-concentrating hormone (MCH)# Norepinephrine# Orexins A and B# CRH# Endorphins# Insulin# Galanin (GAL)# CCK# Amino acids (glutamate & GABA)# Glucagon like ppetide# Cortisol# Cocaine and amphetamine regulatd transcript (CART)# Ghrelin# Peptide YY(PYY) Ghrelin# Ghrelin is a hormone released mainly by the oxyntic cells of the stomach but also, to a much less extent, by the intestine.# Blood levels of ghrelin rise during fasting, peak just before eating, and then fall rapidly after a meal, suggesting a possible role in stimulating feeding.# Also, administration of ghrelin increases food intake in experimental animals, further supporting the possibility that it may be an orexigenic hormone.Leptin:# hypothalamus senses energy storage through the actions of leptin, a peptide hormone released from adipocytes. Leptin circulates to the brain, where it moves across the BBB by facilitated diffusion and occupies leptin receptors at multiple sites in the hypothalamus, especially the POMC neurons of the arcuate nuclei and neurons of the paraventricular nuclei. Stimulation of leptin receptors in these hypothalamic nuclei initiates multiple actions that decrease fat storage, including: (l).decreased production in the hypothalamus of appetite stimulators, such as NPY and AGRP; (2) activation of POMC neurons, causing release of a-MSH and activation of melanocortin receptors; (3) increased production in the hypothalamus of substances, such as corticotropin-releasing hormone, that decrease food intake; (4) increased sympathetic nerve activity (through neural projections from the hypothalamus to the vasomotor centers), which increases metabolic rate and energy expenditure; and (5) decreased insulin secretion by the pancreatic beta cells, which decreases energy storage. Thus. leptin mav be an important means bv which the adipose tissue signals the brain that enough energy has been stored and that intake of food is no longer necessary.Peptide YY(PYY)# Peptide YY (PYY) is secreted from the entire GIT, but especially from the ileum and colon. Food intake stimulates release of PYY, with blood concentrations rising to peak levels 1 to 2 hours after ingesting a meal. These peak levels of PYY are influenced by the number of calories ingested and the composition of the food, with higher levels of PYY observed after meals with a high fat content. Although injections of PYY into mice have been shown to decrease food intake for 12 hours or more, the importance of this Gl hormone in regulating appetite in humans is still unclear. Agentse.g.ActionNeuropeptidesCorticotropin-releasing hormone (CRH),a-melanocyte- stimulating hormone (ot-MSH), and cocaine- and amphetamine- related transcript (CART)Induce anorexia by acting centrally on satiety centers.Gl peptidesGhrelin,Glucagon,Somatostatin, andCholecystokininSignal satiety and thus decrease food intake.InsulinHypoglycemiaHypoglycemia suppresses insulin, reducing glucose utilization and inhib-iting the satiety center.
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What is Which following is supplied by contralateral nerve nucleus? and explain in detail?
Ans. a. Superior rectusSuperior rectus and superior oblique muscles are supplied by opposite side (contralateral) nuclei of 3rdeg and 41h cranial nerves respectively.Subnuclei of Oculomotor (CN III) nucleus and their FunctionsSubnucleusMuscles innervatedSide innervatedDorsalInferior rectusQIpsilateralQIntermediateInferior obliqueQIpsilateralQVentralMedial rectusQIpsilateralQMedialSuperior rectusQContralateralQCentral caudalLevator palpebrae superiorisQBilateralQEdinger-Westphal (ParasympatheticPupillary constrictors and ciliary musclesBilateralQ
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What is Radiological sign of spondylolysis? and explain in detail?
Ans BIn spondylolysis on oblique view scotty dog with collar is seen while in spondylolisthesis inverted napoleon hat sign (AP view L5 over S1) and scotty dog with broken neck sign (oblique view) are seen.
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What is Conventional glazed dental porcelain is approximately ____times as abrasive as gold to tooth enamel and explain in detail?
Conventional glazed dental porcelain is approximately 40 times as abrasive as gold to tooth enamel
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What is Aschoff Body is made up of? and explain in detail?