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You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is Toxic amblyopia and explain in detail? | |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is Drug used to control secretions in GA: and explain in detail? | Ans. (b) GlycopyrrolateRef: Ajay yadav's anesthesia 4th ed./48* To control secretions, anti-cholinergics are used: Glycopyrrolate, Atropine and Scopolamine.* Glycopyrrolate is preferred over atropine and scopolamine because it doesn't cross blood brain barrier. Therefore it is devoid of central side effects.Drugs Used for Premedication:* Sedative/Anti-anxiety:# Lorazepam MC used# Midazolam in day care surgery* Anti-emetics: Hyoscine (Most potent), Ondensatron, Metoclopramide* To decrease pain: Morphine and Pethidine |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is Tumorlysis syndrome is associated with all of the following laboratory features except - and explain in detail? | None |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is On X-ray chest PA view, the anterior surface of the hea is formed by: and explain in detail? | The Right ventricle forms the front of the hea with a contribution at its upper pa from the Right atrial appendage. |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is All form the posterior wall of axilla EXCEPT: and explain in detail? | Subclavius forms the anterior wall of axilla |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is Which of these amino acids will migrate slowest to the anode end at the physiological pH and explain in detail? | At physiological pH basic (positively charged) amino acids will move slowest towards anode.
Basic amino acids are arginine, lysine, histidine. |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is Perforating injuries with retained intraocular foreign body are more serious than those without because of: and explain in detail? | Ans. Deleterious effects of foreign bodies |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is Decreased RBC production is seen in - and explain in detail? | None |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is More than 80% of gall stones is composed of and explain in detail? | Ans. (b) CholesterolRef: Sabiston 20th edition Page 1491* Major structure present in Gall stones is Cholesterol.* Pigment stones are given the name when Cholesterol is present in amount of <30%.* Hence most common stone in Gallbladder is Mixed stone |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is Normal function of peritoneum is all EXCEPT: and explain in detail? | ANSWER: (B) Peritoneal fluid provides nourishment to GutREF: Grays anatomy, 39th edition, page 1127, CSDT, 13e Chapter 22Functions of peritoneum are:Both secretion and absorption of peritoneal fluid (fluid exchange wdth the extracellular fluid space at rates of 500 mL or more per hour)The fluid lubricates the visceral peritoneum and allows the mobile viscera to glide freely on the abdominal wall and each other within the limits dictated by their attachmentsPeritoneal fluid contains water, proteins, electrolytes and solutes derived from interstitial fluid in the adjacent tissues and from the plasma in the local blood vessels. It normally contains a few cells, including desquamated mesothelium, peritoneal macrophages, mast cells, fibroblasts, lymphocytes and other leukocytes.Lymphocytes provide both cellular and humoral immunological defense mechanisms within the peritoneal cavity.Complement-mediated antibacterial activityParticulate matter, including bacteria up to 20 mm in size is cleared via stomas in the diaphragmNormally, there is less than 50 mL of free peritoneal fluid, a transudate with the following characteristics: specific gravity below 1.016, protein concentration less than 3 g/dL, white blood cell count less than 3000/L, complement-mediated antibacterial activity, and lack of fibrinogen-related clot formation. |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is Painless lower GI bleed is seen in child with -a) Meckle' s diverticulumb) Rectal polypc) Anal fissured) Ac. appendicitis and explain in detail? | None |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is The ape-thumb deformity occurs due to lesion of and explain in detail? | Injury to the median nerve at the wrist is much more common than at the elbow. This is due to the superficial position of the nerve at this site.It produces Ape thumb deformity where the thenar muscles are wasted, and the thumb is adducted and laterally rotated.Ref: BD Chaurasia; volume 1; 6th edition |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is Level of lower border of lung at mid axillary line is and explain in detail? | B i.e. 8th rib |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is Brenner tumor is a type of - and explain in detail? | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Epithelial tumors o Primary ovarian tumors are further divided into three typesi) Surface epithelial tumorsii) Germ cell tumorsiii) Sex cord stromal tumorsSurface epithelial tumorsGerm cell tumorsSex cord stromal tumorso Serous tumoro Teratomao Thecomao Mucinous tumoro Dysgerminomao Fibromao Endometrial tumoro Endodermal sinus tumoro Granulosa-theca cell tumoro Clear cell tumoro Choriocarcinomao Sertoli-leydig cell tumoro Brenner tumor o Hilus cell tumorso Cysadenofibroma o Most ovarian tumors (65-70%) are surface epithelial tumors, most common being serous tumors (serous cystadenoma and cystadenocarcinoma). |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is A patient hears better in noise. The diagnosis is: and explain in detail? | Hyperacusis - increased sensitivity to noise Hypoacusis - decreased sensitivity to noise Presbycusis - SNHL a/w old age Paracusis - a patient hears better in noisy environment. (seen in otosclerosis) |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is Which of the following is not due to complement deficiency? and explain in detail? | PNH is due to complement regulatory protein deficiency (DAF and CD59). |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is Which of the following deficiency does not cause dilated cardiomyopathy ? and explain in detail? | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Manganese |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is Toxoplasmosis in the foetus can be best confirmed by - and explain in detail? | T.gondii serological profile include 1) The Sabin -Feldman dye test to detect IgG antibodies 2)ELISA for detection of IgM ,IgA and IgE antibodies 3)Immunosorbent agglutination assay to measure levels of IgE antibodies 4)Differential agglutination test to measure levels of IgG antibodies (refer pgno:69 baveja 3rd edition) |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is Treatment of Advanced Proliferative Diabetic Retinopathy with extensive vitreoretinal fibrosis and fractional retinal detachment involves all of the following, EXCEPT: and explain in detail? | There is no role of Exophotocoagulation in the management of advanced proliferative diabetic retinopathy with complications such as fractional RD and extensive vitreoretinal fibrosis. Endophotocoagulation may be used in conjunction with vitrectomy. Ref: Oxford Textbook of Medicine 4th /350; Current Geriatric Diagnosis and Treatment (2004)/127 |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is Cephalic index helps in identification of: and explain in detail? | From measuring cephalic index, race can be determined in 85-90% of cases. Mainly three types of races are there: Caucasian (white): Skull rounded, orbits triangular, nasal apeure elongated, palate triangular, upper and lower limbs normal in propoion to body. Mongolian (yellow): Skull square, orbits rounded, nasal apeure rounded, palate rounded, upper and lower limbs smaller. Negro (black): Skull narrow and elongated, orbits square, nasal apeure broad, palate rectangular, upper and lower limbs longer. Ref: Essentials of Forensic Medicine and Toxicology by Narayan Reddy, 27th edition, Page 53. |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is Tract and explain in detail? | |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is Normal conjunctival flora is and explain in detail? | Answer- C. Coagulase negative staphylococciResident flora-Coagulase negative staphylococci (most common)MicrococciHaemphillusCorneybacterium xerosis |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is Due to an effective prevention program, the pre valence of an infectious disease in a community has been reduced by 90%. A physician continues to use the same diagnostic test for the disease that she has always used. How have the test’s characteristics changed? and explain in detail? | PPV and NPV of a screening test depends on:
– Sensitivity
– Specificity
– Prevalence of disease in the population
In this question, since a physician continues to use the same diagnostic test for the disease that she has always used, sensitivity and specificity of the test will remain same
But predictive value of a test (PPV and NPV) depends on prevalence of a disease in a population
PPV is directly proportional to prevalence of disease in the population
– PPV á Prevalence of disease
– As the prevalence of a disease increases in a population, PPV increases for the screening test
NPV is inversely proportional to Prevalence of disease in a population
– NPV α 1/ Prevalence of disease
– As the prevalence of a disease increases in a population, NPV decreases for the screening test
Therefore, since the prevalence of an infectious disease in a community has been reduced by 90%, its PPV will reduce and its NPV will increase |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is Oogonia are derived from and explain in detail? | Inderbir Singh&;s; Human Histology; Seventh edition; Pg 346The stem cells from which ova are derived are called Oogonia. These are large round cells present in the coex of the ovary. Oogonia are derived from the primordial germ cells that are formed in the region of the yolk sac and migrate into the developing ovary |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is All are true about Jafferson's fracture except and explain in detail? | Jafferson's fracture is most common fracture of Atlas (C1) vertebrae. |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is The purity of gold is expressed in: and explain in detail? | None |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is In lichen planus all the following sites are affected except ? and explain in detail? | |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is Buccal shelf area is the area between the buccal frenum and anterior border of: and explain in detail? | |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is About Randomized Controlled trial all are trueexcept: and explain in detail? | Dropouts are excluded from the study [Ref: Epidemiology and health services By Haroutune K. Annenian, Sum Shapiro p63; http://www3. interscience. wiley. corn/ journa1/8901 1300/abstract ?CRETRY =1 &SRETRY =0 Park 20/e p1 Repeat from Nov 08 Randomised controlled trials (RCT), are experimental studies where the effect of an intervention is assessed by collecting data before and after an intervention has taken place. RCT are used to compare an intervention with one or more other interventions or with no intervention. In RCT, an intervention is investigated by comparing one group of people who receive the intervention with a control group or control arm who do not. The control group receives the usual or no treatment and their outcome measure, or the change in measure from the staing point or baseline, is compared with that of the intervention group. RCT are designed to minimize bias: Subject variation or Performance bias: there may be bias on the pa of the paicipants, who may subjectively feel better or repo improvement if they may subjectively feel better or repo improvement if they knew they were receiving a new form of treatment. Observer bias: the investigator measuring the outcome of a therapeutic trial may be influenced if he knows beforehand the paicular procedure of therapy to which the patient has been subjected. Bias in evaluation: the investigator may subconsciously give a orable repo of the outcome of the trial, if he has beforehand knowledge of the group getting treatment. "Randomization cannot guard against these sos of bias, nor the size of the sample. In order to reduce these problems, 'blinding' is adopted."- Park Blinding can be done in three ways: Single blinding- here the paicipants are not aware whether they belong to the study group or the control group. b. Double blinding- here neither the doctor nor the paicipant are aware of the group allocation and the treatment received. Triple blinding- here the paicipants, the investigator or person analyzing the data are all "blind". Ideally triple blinding should be used, but double blinding is the most common method used. Allocation bias Allocation bias occurs when the measured treatment effect differs from the true treatment effect because of how paicipants were selected into the intervention or control groups. In RCT, once the paicipants are entered into the study, they are randomised to either an intervention group or the control group. Randomisation ensures that characteristics that might affect the relationship between intervention and outcome measures will be roughly equal across all arms of the study, minimising potential bias. Random allocation of patients is preferable to other methods of allocation because only randomization has the ability to create truly comparable groups. All factors related to prognosis, whether or not they are known before the study takes place or have been measured, tend to be equally distributed in the comparison groups. Patients in one group are, on the average, as likely to possess a given characteristic as patients in another. In the long run, with a large number of patients in the trial, randomization usually works as described above. However, random allocation does not guarantee that the groups will be similar. Dissimilarities between groups can arise by chance alone, paicularly when the number of patients randomized is small. To assess whether this kind of 'bad luck' has occurred, authors of randomized controlled trials often present a table comparing the frequency of a variety of characteristics in the treated and control groups, especially those known to be related to outcome. These are called baseline characteristics because they are present before randomization and so should be equally distributed in the treatment groups. Attrition bias Attrition bias (also call loss-to-follow-up bias) occurs when patients drop out of the study from one or other of the study groups preferentially. For example, if halfway through a study the treatment has been successful paicipants may drop out, and information about the success of the treatment is then lost. Conversely, paicipants in the control group may be unhappy with their lack of progress and may drop out of the study in order to seek alternative help. Sample size The size of the sample required when carrying out RCT is dependent upon the power of the test and what size of intervention impact is considered meaningful. It also depends on the type of hypothesis the RCT is testing. The smaller the magnitude of difference between groups that is to be detected and the greater the variability in outcomes, the larger the sample size that will be required. Randomised controlled trials are the most rigorous way of determining whether a cause-effect relation exists between treatment and outcome, however they are generally more costly and time consuming than other studies. Now lets come to the last option that's our answer- "Dropouts are excluded from the study." Though it sounds absurd but the truth is that the Dropouts are not excluded from the study. This is known as Intention to treat. The dropouts are included in the study. The aphorism is "Once randomized, always analyzed" Intention to treat (ITT) analysis (sometimes also called Intent to Treat) is an analysis based on the initial treatment intent, not on the treatment eventually administered. For example, if people who have a more refractory or serious problem tend to drop out at a higher rate, even a completely ineffective treatment may appear to be providing benefits if one merely compares those who finish the treatment with those who were enrolled in it. For the purposes of ITT analysis, everyone who begins the treatment is considered to be pa of the trial, whether they finish it or not. Rationale: Intention to treat analyses are done to avoid the effects of crossover and drop-out, which may break the randomization to the treatment groups in a study. Intention to treat analysis provides information about the potential effects of treatment policy rather than on the potential effects of specific treatment. If dropouts and noonadherent subjects are ignored, there is the possibility that bias will be introduced. For example consider two weight loss diets. one of which is effective while the other isn't. People on the effective diet lose weight and stay in the study. On the ineffective diet - Some will lose weight regardless and will stay in the study. - Those who fail to lose weight are more likely to drop out, if only to try something else. This will make the ineffective diet look better than it really is--and, by comparison, the effective diet looks worse than it really is--because the only subjects who remain in the study following the ineffective diet are those losing weight! A popular phrase used to describe ITT analyses is 'Analyze as randomized!" Once subjects are randomized, their data must be used for the ITT analysis! |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is Which of the following types of bias can be reduced by allowing equal interview time - and explain in detail? | Ans. is 'd' i.e., Interviewer bias Interviewer's bias o This type of bias may occurs when the interviewer knows the hypothesis and also knows who the cases are. o This prior information may lead him to question the cases more throughly than the controls regarding a postive history of the suspected causal factor. o This bias can therefore be reduced by allowing equal time to interview both cases and controls. o This bias can be eleminated by double blinding. Slection bias o This type of bias may occur when the cases and controls selected for the study group are not representative of the cases and controls in the general population. o This type of bias can be best controlled by its prevention i.e., by proper selection of a representative study group. Recall bias (Memory bias) : o This type of bias may occur when cases and controls are asked to recall ceain events, and subjects in one group are more likely to remember the event than those in the other group. o For example people take aspirin commonly and for many reasons, but patients diagnosed as having peptic ulcer disease may recall the ingestion of aspirin in greater accuracy than those without G I problems. Also patients who have had an MI are more likely to recall and remember ceain habits (like eating habit) with greater accuracy than those who have not had an MI. |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is Chaperons are also called: and explain in detail? | Chaperons are involved in protein synthesis They are called heat stroke protein because they increase during high temperature Ref:Guyton and Hall textbook of medical physiology 12th edition,page number:10,11,12 |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is Following is true about behcet's disease except ? and explain in detail? | Ans. is 'c' i.e., It has good visual prognosis BEHCET'S DISEASE It is an idiopathic multisystem disease characterised by recurrent, non-granulomatous uveitis, aphthous ulceration, genital ulcerations and erythema multiforme. Etiology It is still unknown; the basic lesion is an obliterative vasculitis probably caused by circulating immune complexes. The disease typically affects the young men who are positive for HLA-B5 1. Clinical features Uveitis seen in Behcet's disease is typically bilateral, acute recurrent iridocyclitis associated with hypopyon. It may also be associated with posterior uveitis, vitritis, periphlebitis retinae and retinitis in the form of white necrotic infiltrates. Treatment No satisfactory treatment is available, and thus the disease has got comparatively poor visual prognosis. Coicosteroids may by helpful initially but ultimate response is poor. In some cases the disease may be controlled by chlorambucil. |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is All of the following drugs useful in the treatment of a patient with acute bronchial asthma except and explain in detail? | Ans. is 'c' i.e. Montelukast Montelukast (and Zafirlukast) is a Leukotriene receptor antagonist Leukotrienes mediate many of the critical elements of asthma. They are potent bronchoconstrictor. Montelukast (and Zafirlukast) are effective in blocking their action. These drugs provide protection against exercise induced asthma and reduce the frequency of exacerbation, but are of limited usefulness is acute asthma. Drugs used in Acute Asthma are Beta - 2 agonists* Salbutamol (Albuterol) Bitolterol, Pirbuterol, Terbutaline Anticholinergics* Ipratropium bromide Systemic corticosteroids* methylprednisolone, Hydrocortisone I think the option Hydrocortisone needs some extra explanation. Even though glucocorticoids are the first line agents for chronic asthma, they are also used in acute asthma. Harrison writes - "Systemic or oral steroids are most beneficial in acute illness when severe airway obstruction is not resolving or is worsening despite intense optimal bronchodilator therapy." Also Remember Another class of drugs blocking the action of leukotrienes is 5 - lipoxygenase inhibitors* eg. - Zileuton* It prevents the synthesis of leukotrienes by inhibiting 5 - lipoxygenase. |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is Lesion in left optic tract manifest as and explain in detail? | (D) Right homonymous hemianopia # Lesions of optic tract: These are characterized by incongrous homonymous hemianopia associated with contralateral hemianopic pupillary reaction (Wernicke's reaction).> These lesions usually lead to partial descending opitic atrophy and may be associated with contralateral third nerve paralysis and ipsilateral hemiplegia.> Common causes of optic tract lesions are syphilitic meningitis or gumma, tuberculosis and tumours of optic thalamus and aneurysms of superior cerebellar or posterior cerebral arteries. |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is Mid treatment flare up is most common in: and explain in detail? | |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is Total number of teeth present at the age of 12 is: and explain in detail? | Between 7 to 12 years, 24 teeth are present. At age 9, 12 permanent teeth are in the mouth; 8 incisors and 4 first molars. Deciduous molars and canines are present. At the age 11, there are 20 permanent teeth: 8 incisors, 8 premolars, and 4 molars. At the age 14, there are 28 permanent teeth, and no deciduous teeth. Ref: The Essentials of Forensic Medicine and Toxicology by KS Narayan Reddy, 27th edition, Page 61. |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is One of the following is known as Tuberculin Conversion Index and explain in detail? | None |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is Crown completion of Maxillary central incisors occur and explain in detail? | None |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is Investigation of choice for bronchiectasis and explain in detail? | Chest CT is more specific for bronchiectasis and is the imaging modality of choice for confirming the diagnosis.CT findings include airway dilation(tram track or signet ring sign),lack of bronchial tapering,bronchial wall thickening in dilated airways,inspissated secretions or cysts emanating from the bronchial wall Ref:Harrison's med:18th edition,page no:2143. |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is Which is least likely to be elevated in patients with a pheochromocytoma? and explain in detail? | Pheochromocytoma is producing Nor epinephrine & Epinephrine which increases the systolic and diastolic pressure. * Also Nor epinephrine would be higher D/T extreme vasoconstriction the intravascular volume of the patient will be significantly reduced and not elevated. |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is A 45 year old female patient reports to the clinic with a history of pain with tooth 37. The tooth appears normal on clinical and radiographic examination except for the fact that pain occurs on biting on a hard object and then releasing the bite.
Immediate treatment of such a tooth involves and explain in detail? | None |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is The commonest tumour of parotid is and explain in detail? | Pleomorphic adenomas are benign tumors that consist of a mixture of ductal (epithelial) and myoepithelial cells, and therefore they show both epithelial and mesenchymal differentiation. Because of their remarkable histologic diversity, these neoplasms have also been called mixed tumors. They represent about 60% of tumors in the parotid. Wahin tumor is the second most common. Both are benign. Robbins 9e pg: 745 |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is Most common bacterial infection in lymphedema is? and explain in detail? | Streptococcus REF: Differential diagnosis in internal medicine: from symptom to diagnosis by Walter Siegenthaler page 388 Tissues with lymphedema are at risk of infection. Cellulitis is both a cause and complication of lymphedema. The most common complication of both primary and secondary lymphedema is erysipelas (acute streptococcus bacterial infection of the deep epidermis with lymphatic spread). Cellulitis may occur concurrently in lymphedema because the pooling of protein-rich lymph fluid makes it easier for the patient to develop an infection. |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is In noise-induced hearing loss, audiogram shows a typical notch at and explain in detail? | Audiogram in NIHL shows a typical notch at 4000kHz, for both air and bone conduction. (Ref: Diseases of EAR, NOSE AND THROAT by PL DHINGRA - 6th Edition) |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is The pump responsible for gastric acid secretion is and explain in detail? | Gastric parietal cells are highly specialized for their unusual task of secreting concentrated acid. The cells are packed with mitochondria that supply energy to drive the apical H+,K+-ATPase, or proton pump, that moves H+ ions out of the parietal cell against a concentration gradient. The apical membrane also contains potassium channels, which supply the K+ ions to be exchanged for H+, and Cl- channels that supply the counterion for HCl secretion. |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is True about Rheumatic fever - and explain in detail? | None |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is Earliest morphological change seen in reversible cellular injury is? Inset shows normal hepatocytes as control. and explain in detail? | Ans. (a) Hydropic changeCellular swelling is the first manifestation of almost all forms of injury to cells. Cellular swelling appears whenever cells are incapable of maintaining ionic and fluid homeostasis and is the result of failure of energy-dependent ion pumps in the plasma membrane. It is reversible.On microscopic examination, small clear vacuoles may be seen within the cytoplasm; these represent distended and pinched-off segments of the ER. This pattern of nonlethal injury is sometimes called hydropic change or vacuolar degeneration.This is a case of hydropic change in hepatocytes (control normal hepatocytes are seen in inset). |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is In a pregnant lady there is decreased requirement of anaesthetic agents because of all the following, EXCEPT: and explain in detail? | During pregnancy there is a reduction in the requirement of anaesthetic agent. Factors contributing to this are -increased levels of B-EP -increased neuronal sensitivity -vascular congestion in spinal canal and -increased levels of progesterone. Increased lumbar lordosis has not been mentioned any where as a contributing factor for decreasing requirement of anaesthetic agents in pregnancy. During pregnancy enlarged uterus obstructs the inferior venacava and distends epidural venous plexus and increases epidural blood volume. This inturn results in decreased spinal CSF volume, decreased potential volume of subarachnoid space and increased epidural space pressure. The first two effects enhance the spread of LA solutions during spinal and epidural anaesthesia respectively whereas last may predispose to higher incidence of dural puncture with epidural anaesthesia. Ref: Maternal, Fetal, & Neonatal Physiology: A Clinical Perspective By Susan Tucke page 548. |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is Grievous injury includes all the following except- and explain in detail? | It should be for 20 days (not for a week). |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is pH of intracellular fluid is ? and explain in detail? | |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is Large, irregular and friable vegetations are seen in? and explain in detail? | Large, irregular and friable deposits are seen in infective endocarditis. Hallmark of infective endocarditis Presence of friable, bulky and potentially destructive vegetation Containing fibrin, inflammatory cells and bacteria on the hea valves. DISEASE-INFECTIVE ENDOCARDITIS DISEASE- NBTE INFECTIVE ENDOCORDITIS. FEATURE -Vegetations are large, bulky, irregular, multiple, friable OTHER FEATURE- non sterile(associated with ring abscess) NON BACTERIAL THROMBOTIC ENDOCARDITIS (MARANTIC ENDOCARDITIS) FEATURE -Vegetations are small, way friable. OTHER FEATURE- sterile COMPLICATION -embolisation is very common,(maximum chances) COMPLICATION embolisation is common SITE -Seen on valvular cusps SITE-Seen on line of closure. also seen in -cancers like m3 -aml,pancreatic cancer, deep vain thrombosis,trousseau syndrome DISAESE-SLE DISEASE-RHD -LIBMAN SACK'S ENDOCADITIS (LSE) FEATURE-vegetations are medium sized(small flat,verrucous, irregular OTHER FEATURE -sterile RHEUMATIC FEVER FEATURE-Vegetations are small, way firm friable OTHER FEATURE -sterile SITE-on surface cusps(both surface may be involved ) SITE-along line of closure COMPLICATION - embolisation is uncommon COMPLICATION -embolisation is uncommon |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is Which of the following drugs is a full agonist at opioid receptors, has excellent oral bioavailability, analgesic equipotency to morphine and a longer durationlof action with milder withdrawal symptoms on abrupt discontinuation? and explain in detail? | (Ref: KDT 6/e p459, 460) Methadone is a long acting opioid agonist that has equal potency to morphine. It can be used orally for opioid replacement and opioid rotation therapy. Due to longer half life, it produces mild withdrawal symptoms. |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is The Iodine:Paicle ratio is maximum for and explain in detail? | -Iodine Paicle Ratio of Ionic Monomer - 3:2 - Ratio of Ionic Dimer - 6:2 - Ratio of Non-ionic Monomer - 3:1 - Ratio for Non-ionic Dimer is - 6:1 |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is Neuraxial blocks as a primary anesthetic technique can be used for following surgeries except: and explain in detail? | Upper abdominal surgery, it is difficult to safely achieve a sensory level adequate for patient comfo with neuraxial anaesthesia. Thus for upper abdominal surgery epidural is used as an adjunct technique with general anaesthesia. Indications Indications for epidural nerve block can be divided into the following categories: Sole epidural anesthetic Epidural anesthetic in combination with spinal anesthetic This combination is referred to as combined spinal epidural (CSE). All of the indications noted above for sole epidural anesthetic may also be performed with CSE. Epidural anesthetic in combination with general anesthetic All of the indications noted above for sole epidural anesthetic may also be performed with CSE. Epidural analgesia combined with general anesthesia reduces the incidence of postoperative pneumonia in patients with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease who are undergoing major abdominal surgery. Epidural analgesia Prolonged postoperative analgesia obtained by continuous or patient-controlled infusions of local anesthetics, opioids, adjuvants, or a combination thereof Labor epidural analgesia Single-shot epidural injection of depot form of morphine (Duramorph) can provide 6-24 hours of analgesia. Epidural for chronic pain management Disk herniation, degeneration, and spondylosis Radiculopathy - Spinal stenosis and facet ahropathy Sympathetic mediated/maintained pain of upper or lower extremities |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is Which statement is not true regarding crohn's disease : and explain in detail? | |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is Following is true about bayard's spots:- and explain in detail? | Tardieu's or Bayard's ecchymoses/spots: Round, dark-red, well-defined, pin-head sized spots, found in those pas where capillaries are least Suppoed, e.g. conjunctiva, face, epiglottis, subpleural urface of lungs, hea, meninges and thymus. They tend to be better made out in fair skinned persons, readily visible in fresh bodies. Disappear with putrefaction. They are not pathognomic of asphyxia, and their absence does not exclude asphyxia. It can be seen in other forms of death--electrocution, poisoning, coronary thrombosis, in persons on anticoagulants, with bleeding disorders such as scurvy, leukemia and thrombocytopenia, but distribution is more generalized. |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is Which laboratory test is most useful for patient under
dicumarol therapy? and explain in detail? | None |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is Retrobulbar injection is given in - and explain in detail? | It is given in the central space Central space : also called, muscular cone or retrobulbar space. It is bounded anteriorly by the Tenon's capsule lining back of the eyeball and peripherally by the four recti muscles and their intermuscular septa in the anterior pa. In the posterior pa, it becomes continuous with the peripheral space. Tumors lying here produces axial proptosis. Ref:AK Khurana 6thE pg 403 |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is True about shock -a) In early stage cardiac output and BP are maintainedb) There is decreased sympathetic activityc) Renin secretion may be increased d) Aldosterone secretion is decreased and explain in detail? | Stages of shock
Shock tends to evolve through three general phages : -
A. Non progressive (Initial or compensated reversible) shock
In the early stage of shock, there is activation of compensatory mechanisms that attempt to maintain adequate perfusion of the heart and brain, and to maintain adequate cardiac output and blood pressure.
These compensatory mechanisms include : -
1. Due to decrease perfusion pressure, baroreceptors are stimulated that leads to increased sympathetic discharge & catecholamines release with reduced vagal activity. All these cause : -
a) Peripheral vasoconstriction Cool clammy extrimities (In hyperdynamic stage of septic shock and in neurogenic shock the extrimities are warm due to vasodilatation).
b) Tachycardia
2. Decreased renal perfusion and sympathetic stimulation cause increased renin release from the kidney and activation of renin angiotensin system. So that : -
Angiotensin II causes vasoconstriction and release of aldosterone.
Aldosterone causes fluid and salt conservation by kidney.
In this stage patient can be managed by correcting the underlying cause, e.g., fluid therapy in hypovolemic. Shock and control of infection in septic shock.
B. Progressive (Decompensated reversible) shock
Due to continued tissue hypoxia, aerobic respiration replaced by anaerobic glycolysis that leads to formation of lactic acid → Lactic acidosis & pH.
Acidosis (↓ pH) causes blunting of venoconstrictor effect of catecholamine → Venodilatation → Pooling of blood in peripheral veins. As there is arteriolar constriction ( ↑ peripheral resistance) and venodilatation (↓ venous return) → Cardiac output is decreased.
Peripheral pooling of blood and decreased cardiac output cause anoxic injury to endothelial cells that may cause DIC.
Decreased perfusion to vital organs like brain causes mental confusion & drowsiness and decreased perfusion to kidney causes decline in urinary output.
In this stage patient can be managed but more aggresive management is required i.e., along with correction of underlying cause; intropic agent, vasopressor, oxygen and resuscitation may be required.
C. Irreversible shock
Unless there is intervention in previous stages, the process enters in an irreversable stage in which there is multiple organ damage.
In this stage survival is not possible even after intervention. |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is The highest quantities of vitamin C is found in? and explain in detail? | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Indian gooseberryThe richest source of vitamin C is Indian goosebery (A mla).Impoant sources of vitamin C in decreasing order : -Amla > Guava > Cabbage > Arnaranath > Lime > Cauliflower > Orange > Spinach > Tomato > Potato |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is Nocardia is stained by: and explain in detail? | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Acid fast stainRef:(Ananthanarayan, 8th/e, p. 393; 9th/e, p. 390-91)The first step in diagnosis is examination of sputum or pus for crooked, branching, beaded, gram-positive filaments 1 um wide and up to 50 um long. Most nocardiae are acid-fast in direct smears if a weak acid is used for decolorization (e.g., in the modified Kinyoun, Ziehl-Neelsen, and Fite-Faraco methods). The organisms often take up silver stains. |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is In right-handed person, Direct Laryngoscope is held by which hand and explain in detail? | The laryngoscope is held by the handle in the left hand. Right hand is used to retract the lips and guide the laryngoscope and to handle suction and instruments Re: Textbook of Ear, Nose and Throat, Dhingra, 6th Edition; Pg no: 422 |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is A researcher draws unbiased sample of 100 adult delhites and find that their mean weight is 72 kg with a standard detion of 1.5. 95% of wt of delhites shall be between: and explain in detail? | In the given question, n = 100 adult Delhites, mean weight (u) = 72kg, standard detion (SD) = 1.5 95% wt of delhites = Mean +- 2SD (u +- 2SD) = 72 +- 2 (1.5) = 72 +- 3 =b/w 69 & 75 kg wt |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is 8% SnF2 contains how much % of flouride and explain in detail? | None |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is A drug which mimics “low-grade” aspirin toxicity (salicylism) is? and explain in detail? | |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is MAC has color coding. Yellow color indicates mild to moderate malnutrition. What is the reading of MAC on yellow color? and explain in detail? | SHAKIR'S TAPE : - Measures Mid arm circumference (MAC) - It has colour coding. Green is normal i.e. MAC >13.5cm yellow is mild to moderate malnutrition with MUAC 12.5 - 13.5cm and Red is severe malnutrition with MAC <12.5cm. |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is Which of the following is obtained by joining the midpoints of histogram blocks? and explain in detail? | In a Pie cha, the area inside each segment is representative of a fixed percentage of the total. In case of Bar cha the length of the bar is propoional to the magnitude to be represented. A frequency polygon is a diagrammatic representation of a frequency distribution obtained by joining midpoints of histogram blocks. Ref: Park's Textbook of Preventive Medicine, 17th Edition, Page 610. |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is The dose of folic acid per day for treating megaloblastic anaemia in pregnancy and explain in detail? | Folic acid deficiency in Pregnancy
In nonpregnant women, the folic acid requirement is 50 to 100 μg/day
During pregnancy, requirements are increased and 400 μg/day is recommended
The earliest biochemical evidence is low plasma folic acid concentrations
Normal serum folate levels
Non Pregnant women: 5.4-18ng/ml
1st trimester: 2.6-15ng/ml
2nd trimester: 0.8-24ng/ml
3rd trimester: 1.4-20.7ng/ml
Early morphological changes usually include neutrophils that are hypersegmented and newly formed erythrocytes that are macrocytic
As the anaemia becomes more intense, peripheral nucleated erythrocytes appear, and bone marrow examination discloses megaloblastic erythropoiesis
The fetus and placenta extract folate from maternal circulation so effectively that the fetus is not anaemic despite severe maternal anaemia
Treatment
As little as 1mg of folic acid administered orally once daily produces a striking haematological response
By 4 to 7 days after beginning folic acid treatment, the reticulocyte count is increased, and leukopenia and thrombocytopenia are corrected
American College of Obstetricians and Gynecologists (2013c) have recommended that all women of childbearing age consume at least 400 μg of folic acid daily
Increased need of Folic acid
Multifetal pregnancy
Hemolytic anaemia
Crohn disease
Alcoholism
Inflammatory skin disorders |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is The high level clear cell present in the oral epithelium is: and explain in detail? | None |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is The following situations are associated with rise of temperature after death, EXCEPT: and explain in detail? | Condition in which temperature of the body remains raised for the first 2hours after death is called postmoem caloricity. Burns is not associated with postmoem caloricity. Ref: The Essentials of Forensic Medicine and Toxicology By Dr K S Narayan Reddy, 27th Edition, Pages 137-9 |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is A 45 year - male presents with abrupt onset pain, weakness, loss of contour of shoulder and muscle wasting on 5deg day of tetanus toxoid immunization. Likely cause is: and explain in detail? | Brachial plexus neuritis Ref: Basic neurology [By John Gilroy 3/e p594; "Brachial plexus neuritis is characterized by a sudden paralysis of muscles supplied through the brachial plexus and is often associated with painful dysesthesia of the arm. The condition occurs in known viral infections (herpes zoster, Epstein-Barr virus), following injections of tetanus toxoid, in putative viral infections; and as an autobnmune disorder following a surgical procedure."- Basic neurology By John Gilroy 3/e p594 Brachial plexus neuritis usually is characterized by the acute onset of excruciating unilateral shoulder pain, followed by flaccid paralysis of shoulder and parascapular muscles several days later. The syndrome can vary greatly in presentation and nerve involvement. Brachial neuritis (BN) exists in an inherited and an idiopathic form. In the idiopathic version, the pathophysiology is unknown, but the condition is generally thought to be an immune system - mediated inflammatory reaction against nerve fibers of the brachial plexus. The onset of pain in brachial neuritis (BN) is often abrupt and may follow recent illness, surgery, immunization, or even trauma (see Causes, below). Up to two thirds of cases begin during the nighttime. Sensory abnormalities are of usually of less intensity than the pain and muscle weakness. Causes: The exact cause of brachial neuritis is unknown, but the condition has been linked to many antecedent events or illnesses, as follows: Viral infection (paicularly of the upper respiratory tract) Bacterial infection (eg, pneumonia, diphtheria, typhoid) Parasitic infestation S urgery 2 Trauma (not related to shoulder) Vaccinations (eg, influenza, tetanus, diphtheria, tetanus toxoids, peussis [DPT J. smallpox, swine flu) Childbih Miscellaneous medical investigative procedures (eg, lumbar puncture, administration of radiologic dye) Systemic illness (eg, polyaeritis nodosa, lymphoma, systemic lupus erythematosus, temporal aeritis, EhlersDanlos syndrome) A rarer, hereditary form of BN has been localized to the SEPT9 gene on chromosome arm 17q and should be considered a distinct disorder. This entity presents in a younger age group, and is characterized by recurrent, often bilateral attacks. Dysmorphic facial features (eg, hypotelorism, long nasal bridge, facial asymmetry) can also be present. Diagnosis: Other causes of severe pain, such as an acute herniated cervical disc, should be excluded. In brachial plexus neuritis, electromyography and nerve conduction studies reveal abnormalities in more than one nerve; in contrast, cervical radiculopathy may show osteophytes and interspace narrowing on cervical spine x-rays and neuroforaminal disc impingement of MRI. Treatment: of brachial plexus neuritis is suppoive, with analgesics for pain, physical therapy to maintain shoulder strength/mobility, and reassurance that the condition generally will improve, albeit slowly. |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is Which of the following represents an orally available fixed Beta-Lactamase Inhibitor and Antibiotic Combination. and explain in detail? | Amoxicillin and Clavulanic acid is the only Beta-Lactamase inhibitor + Antibiotic Combinations that is available for oral administration. Amongst the three most commonly available Beta-Lactamase inhibitor (Clavulanic acid, Sulbactum and Tazobactum), only Clavulanic acid is orally absorbed. Amoxicillin and clavulanic acid are well absorbed orally and also can be given parenterally. All other beta lactamase fixed dose combinations with antibiotics are available only for parenterally use. Beta-lactamase Inhibitor + Antibiotic Combinations Beta lactamases are antibiotic-inactivating enzymes produced by resistant bacteria that hydrolytically inactivate the Beta-lactam ring of penicillins, Cephalosporins, and related drugs like Carbapenems. Beta-Lactamase Inhibitor + Antibiotic combinations Penicillin-Beta Lactamase: Amoxicillin-Clavulanate Ticarcillin-Clavulanate Ampicillin-Sulbactum Piperacillin-Tazobactum Cephalosporin-Beta Lactamase Ceftolozane-tazobactum Ceftazidime-avibactum Carbapenem-Beta Lactamase Meropenem-vaborbactum Imipenem-Relebactum Ref: KDT 7th edition Pgno: 723 |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is True about nerve impulse is: and explain in detail? | C i.e. Travels in one direction at synapse Axons can conduct nerve impulses in either directionQ unlike synapses, which permit conduction of nerve impulses in one direction only. Conduction of nerve impulses, although rapid, is much slower than that of electricity.Q Summation - A single subthreshold stimulus fails to produce an AP. But if a second stimulus, which also, is subthreshold, is applied sufficiently quickly after the 1st one, the two stimuli are summated & excitation results. |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is Ulnar injury in the arm leads to all EXCEPT:- and explain in detail? | Ulnar nerve supplies the adductor pollicis muscle and hence it will be paralysed in its lesion. -hypothenar muscles are supplid by ulnar nerve -Ulnar nerve Palsy leads to Claw hand deformity Hence, adduction of thumb is not a clinical finding in ulnar nerve palsy. |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is Radiography of the following renal stones shows opacity, EXCEPT: and explain in detail? | Uric acid stones are the only radiolucent stone. Kidney Stones: Composition Radiographic Appearance Disease Association(s) Calcium oxalate and calcium phosphate Radiopaque Parathyroid gland hyperplasia, sarcoidosis Uric acid Radiolucent Gout, leukemia, and lymphoma Struvite (triple stones made of magnesium, phosphate and ammonium) Radiopaque Xanthogranulomatous pyelonephritis Cystine Radiopaque Ref: Wyatt C., Butterwoh IV J.F., Moos P.J., Mackey D.C., Brown T.G. (2008). Chapter 16. Pathology of the Kidney and Bladder. In C. Wyatt, J.F. Butterwoh IV, P.J. Moos, D.C. Mackey, T.G. Brown (Eds), Pathology: The Big Picture. |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is Which of the following is not seen in Secondary Adrenal insufficiency and explain in detail? | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Pigmentation Addison's disease The predominant manifestations in Addison's disease occur due to mineralocoicoid deficiency but the symptoms are also contributed by glucocoicoid deficiency and increased ACTH FEATURES OF :- Mineralocoicoid deficiency Lack of aldosterone secretion greatly decreases renal tubular sodium reabsorption and consequently allows sodium ions, chloride ions and water to be lost into urine in great profusion. The net result is greatly decreased extracellular fluid volume. Fuhermore, hyponatremia!, hyperkalemiae and mild acidosise develop because of failure of potassium and hydrogen ions to be secreted in exchange for sodium reabsorption Adrenal insufficiency (Addison's disease) Glucocoicoid deficiency Fatigue, lack of energy o Weight loss, anorexia o Myalgia, joint pain Fever Anemia, lymphocytosis, eosinophilia Slightly increased TSH (due to loss of feedback inhibition of TSH release) Hypoglycemia (more frequent in children) Low blood pressure, postural hypotension oHyponatremia (due to loss of feedback inhibition of AVP release) Mineralocoicoid deficiency Abdominal pain, nausea, vomiting Dizziness , postural hypotension Salt craving Low blood pressure, postural hypotension Increased serum creatinine (due to volume depletion) Hyponatremiayperkalemia deficiency Lack of energy Dry and itchy skin (in women) Loss of libido (in women) o Loss of axillary and pubic hair (in women) Symptoms Hyperpigmentation (primary Al only) oAlabaster-colored pale skin (secondary Al only) (due to deficiency of POMC-derived peptides) REMEMBER The clinical features and laboratory features described above are characteristically seen only in primary addison's disease because in primary addison's disease both aldosterone and glucocoicoid are deficient, whereas In secondary addison's disease only glucocoicoid deficiency is seen. ALSO KNOW The basis for acute adrenal deficiency or addisonian crisis During conditions of physical or mental stress, large amount of glucocoicoids are secreted to cope up with the situation. But in persons with addison:s. disease, the output of glucocoicoids does not increase during stress. Thus the deficiency of glucocoicoids, when a person actually has acute need for the excessive amount of glucocoicoids produces addisonian crisis. The manifestations are produced due to extracellular fluid dehydration and low blood volume leading to circulatory shock. |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is Ovary develops from? and explain in detail? | ANSWER: (A) Genital ridgeREF: Ganong's 22nd ed chapter 23On each side of the embryo, a primitive gonad arises from the genital ridge, a condensation of tissue near the adrenal gland. The gonad develops a cortex and a medulla. Until the sixth week of development, these structures are identical in both sexes. In genetic males, the medulladevelops during the seventh and eighth weeks into a testis, and the cortex regresses. Leydig and Sertoli cells appear, and testosterone and miillerian inhibiting substance are secreted. In genetic females, the cortex develops into an ovary and the medulla regresses. |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is Oxaloacetate synthesized from which amino acid - and explain in detail? | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Aspartate* Oxaloacetate, an intermediate in citric acid cycle is formed from Aspartate and Asparagine# Aspartate undergoes transamination in the presence of Aspartate Transaminase (AST) or Serum Glutamate Oxaloacetate Transaminase (SGOT)# Aspartate + a Ketoglutarate------------Oxaloacetate + Glutamate AST/ SGOT # Asparagine in the presence of Asparaginase, gets converted to Asparate. Aspartate is then converted to OxaloacetateAsparagine------------Aspartate + NH3 ASPARAGINASE |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is Aseptate vegetative hyphae are seen in? and explain in detail? | |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is The MOST common type of dislocation of elbow joint is: and explain in detail? | In adults, the elbow is the second most frequently dislocated major joint, after the shoulder. It is the most commonly dislocated joint in children. More than 90% of all elbow dislocations are posterior dislocations. This injury entails disengagement of the coronoid process of the ulna from the trochlea of the humerus with movement posteriorly. The mechanism of injury is typically a fall onto an outstretched hand with the elbow in extension upon impact. |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is Shag Carpet appearance is associated with and explain in detail? | Microscopic appearance of substrate dentin and etchant is known as Shag Carpet Appearance. |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is A 9 years old child presented to OPD with complaints of high grade fever, vomiting, one episode of seizure. CSF examination was done and Gram staining of the culture showed lanceolate shaped gram positive diplococci. What is the probable causative agent? and explain in detail? | In the given gram stain, diplococcus arrangement is shown which is characteristic feature of pneumococcus or Streptococcus pneumoniae which causes conjunctivitis, otitis media, meningitis, pneumonia and sinusitis. Streptococcus pneumoniae is the most common cause of meningitis in adults. Streptococcus pneumoniae is responsible for 10-20 percent of meningitis cases in children ages 1 month to 15 years. Neisseria meningitidis range from 25-40 percent. Group A and B Streptococci appear to be involved only 2-4 percent of the time. Under the conditions described above (CSF showing gram positive diplococcic), Streptococcus pneumoniae would be the most likely etiologic agent. |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is Riedels thyroiditis and explain in detail? | Riedels thyroiditis, is a chronic form of thyroiditis. It is now believed that Riedels thyroiditis is one manifestation of a systemic disease that can affect many organ systems called IgG4-related disease. It is often a multi-organ disease affecting pancreas, liver, kidney, salivary and orbital tissues and retroperitoneum. The hallmarks of the disease are fibrosis and infiltration by IgG4 secreting plasma cells.
Signs and symptoms
Pathophysiology
Riedels thyroiditis is characterized by a replacement of the normal thyroid parenchyma by a dense fibrosis that invades adjacent structures of the neck and extends beyond the thyroid capsule |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is HLA 27 antigen is associated with all of the following disease except - and explain in detail? | None |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is A nerve injured in radical neck dissection leads to loss of sensation in medial side of the arm, nerve injured is:- and explain in detail? | Nerve injured in radical neck dissection leads to loss of sensation in medial side of the arm, nerve injured is medial cutaneous nerve of arm. The medial cutaneous nerve of arm supplies the skin of the medial aspect of the arm. It is the smallest branch of the brachial plexus, and arises from the medial cord and contains fibres from the eighth cervical and first thoracic ventral rami. |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is The term 'recrudescence' in malaria refers to: and explain in detail? | Ans. c. Recurrence of sexual parasitemia after completion of treatment |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is The treatment of choice in Endometrial rCnar9c4i)- noma stage I is : and explain in detail? | Hysterectomy |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is Prompt pump inhibitor suppress gastric acid secretion by acting on: and explain in detail? | PPIs(proton pump inhibitor): - Irreversible inhibitors- Example of HIT and RUN drugs- Exes systemic effect: normally acid labile, given with acid resistant coating.- DOC for: PUD, GERD, Zollinger Ellison syndrome- Prompt pump inhibitor suppress gastric acid secretion by acting on H+/K+ pump. Side effect: (chronic use): - Osteoporosis(decrease calcium)- Megaloblastic anemia(decrease vitamin B12)- Infection |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is Slow waves In EEG activity seen in : and explain in detail? | B i.e. Delirium |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is Which enzyme is active when Insulin: Glucagon ratio is low? and explain in detail? | In the fasting state, as the concentration of glucose in the poal blood coming from the small intestine falls, insulin secretion decreases, and skeletal muscle and adipose tissue take up less glucose. The increase in secretion of glucagon by a cells of the pancreas inhibits glycogen synthetase and activates glycogen phosphorylase in the liver. The resulting glucose-6-phosphate is hydrolyzed by glucose 6-phosphatase, and glucose is released into the bloodstream for use by the brain and erythrocytes. The above scenario indicates glucagon is more hence glucose-6-phosphatase becomes active.Ref: Harper&;s Biochemistry; 30th edition; Page no: 148 |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is Inclusion conjunctivitis is caused by and explain in detail? | None |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is All of the following muscles are attached to oblique line of thyroid cailage except and explain in detail? | Superior constrictor MUSCLE Superior constrictor (Constrictor of pharynx) ORIGIN i. Pterygoid hamulus ii. Pterygomandibular raphe iii. Medial surface of mandible (near lower attachment of pterygomandibular raphe INSEION Median raphe on posterior wall of pharynx Inferior constrictor (Constrictor of Two pas: pharynx) i. Thyropharyngeus - from thyroid cailage (oblique line of thyroid cailage) ii. Cricopharyngeus - from cricoid cailage Median raphe on posterior wall of pharynx Sternothyroid (Infrahyoid muscle) i. Posterior surface of manubrium sterni ii. Adjoining pa of first costal cailage Oblique line of thyroid cailage Thyrohyoid (Infrahyoid muscle) Oblique line of thyroid cailage Lower border of body and greater cornua of hyoid bone |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is 40 yr old patient was taking warfarin 4 gms for DVT prophylaxis. She was given ceftriaxone 8 hrs i.v. for a dental infection. Later the lady experienced episode of vaginal bleeding and darkening of urine. What is the cause? and explain in detail? | |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is All are used for Bier's block except and explain in detail? | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Dibucaine |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is According to Mc Keown's theory, reduction in moality from Tuberculosis was a consequence of: and explain in detail? | According to McKeown's theory, improved nutrition is the biggest single factor that contributed to the decline in infectious diseases, including tuberculosis in the 19th century. He attributes better nutrition and reduced overcrowding as the main factors responsible for the decline in death rates of tuberculosis seen over the past 150 years. Ref: Sociology & Health Care: An Introduction for Nurses, Midwives and Allied Health Professionals, By Michael Sheaff, Tata McGraw-Hill Edition 2010, Page 114-119. |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is Which of the following drug is used in MI? and explain in detail? | Morphine - an opioid- relieves severe pain in MI thereby decreasing patient's apprehension no other painkiller is suitable for MI REF: KD Tripathi 8th ed |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is Which of the following is not attached to oblique line thyroid cartilage: and explain in detail? | Sternothyroid, thyrohyoid and thyropharyngeus (part of the inferior pharyngeal constrictor) are attached to the oblique line of the thyroid cartilage. |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is Which is not a component of MELD score and explain in detail? | Recently, the Child-Pugh system has been replaced by the Model for End-Stage Liver Disease (MELD) system for the latter purpose. The MELD score is a prospectively derived system designed to predict the prognosis of patients with liver disease and poal hypeension. This score is calculated from three noninvasive variables: the prothrombin time expressed as the international normalized ratio (INR), the serum bilirubin level, and the serum creatinine concentration.Ref: Harrison&;s Textbook of Internal Medicine; 19th edition; Chapter 357; Approach to the Patient with Liver Disease; Page no: 1993 |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is A newborn boy has isolated cleft lip and palate. What is the most likely form of inheritance of this defect? and explain in detail? | Cleft lip with or without cleft palate can result from teratogenic exposure; it can be pa of the fetal alcohol syndrome; it can be inherited as a multifactorial disorder; or it can be pa of an autosomal dominant, autosomal recessive, or X- linked condition in all, more than 50 syndromes are associated with cleft lip with or without cleft palate. Computed tomography (CT) scan of the head, serum alcohol level, and urine toxic screen might be helpful in specific situations, depending on the physical examination and history. Cleft lip with or without cleft palate is not associated with amino acid disorders. When isolated, cleft lip with or without cleft palate is considered a multifactorial disorder, resulting from the effects of genes contributed by both parents (genetic liability) and some nongenetic (environmental) factors, which often cannot be identified. |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is Release ferroportin store is controlled by? and explain in detail? | Ans. (a) Hepsidin(Ref: Robbins 9th/pg 649; 8th/pg 659)Ferroportin which regulates the Iron release from tissue store house is regulated by hepsidin hormone released by liver. |