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What is the primary boost strategy? | Randomised, multicentric, controlled phase II study of the immunological efficacy of a "prime boost" strategy combining the sequential administration of the PnjC and PPS anti-pneumococcal vaccines, compared to the administration of the PPS vaccine alone, in patients with common variable immunodeficiency. |
What is the name of the person who will be asked about you? | - You will be asked about how you are feeling and about any side effects you may be having. |
How much is HIV viral load? | - HIV viral load < 25,000 copies/mm^3 |
What is the clinical pharmacokinetics of atomoxetine? | Clinical pharmacokinetics of atomoxetine. |
What is the carcinoma in situ of the cervix? | - Carcinoma in situ of the cervix, or |
What is the schedule for additional prosthetic surgery in lower extremity within 6 months? | - Scheduled additional prosthetic surgery in lower extremity within 6 months |
What is the gender of a child with cystinuria? | Balanced translocation (14;20) in a mentally handicapped child with cystinuria. |
What is the goal of the coagulation test panels? | Reducing the use of coagulation test panels. |
What is the result of a collapse of categorization? | Visual search and the collapse of categorization. |
What is the name of the child who does not agree to participate in the study? | - children and/or parents that do not agree to participate of the study; |
What is the focus of the ELSA-Brasili investigation center? | [Routines of organization of clinical tests and interviews in the ELSA-Brasil investigation center]. |
What was the result of discriminant function analysis? | Sex determination from the occipital condyle: discriminant function analysis in an eighteenth and nineteenth century British sample. |
What type of patients are chronic liver disease patients? | - chronic liver disease patients including non-alcoholic fatty liver disease patients,chronic liver hepatitis patients without cirrhosis, compensated cirrhosis patients and decompensated cirrhosis patients |
What is the therapeutic effect usually obtained within the first 24 hours of treatment? | The therapeutic effect is usually obtained within the first 24 hours of treatment. |
- platelet count 50,000/ L - platelet count | - platelet count <50,000/ μL |
What are CONTRAINDICATIONS CONTRAINDICATIONS CONTRAINDICATION | CONTRAINDICATIONS |
What is the name of the femuro-osseous lesions of the jaw | Fibro-osseous lesions of the jaws in Ibadan, Nigeria. |
What is the environment within host cells? | Regulation of the expression of Mycobacterium avium complex proteins differs according to the environment within host cells. |
What is the gold standard for the standard histology of endoscopic mucosal | The proposed trial will evaluate the ability of physicians to use VLE to visualize high grade intraepithelial neoplasia (HGIN) or intramucosal adenocarcinoma (IMC) in both the ex-vivo and in-vivo setting and correlate those images to standard histology of endoscopic mucosal resection specimens as the gold standard. |
What is the treatment of hypercortisolism? | - Patients likely to require adrenalectomy, pituitary surgery, or radiation therapy during the placebo-controlled period (Weeks 1-12) for the treatment of severe hypercortisolism or pituitary tumor growth causing compression of the optic chiasm. |
What is the age of all adult cardiac surgery patients? | All adult cardiac surgery patients (age 18 or older) Cardiopulmonary bypass |
What is the pen cap on NovoLet? | Always keep the pen cap on your NovoLet when you’ re not using it in order to protect it from light. |
What is the quantitative assessment of liver fat content? | Nonalcoholic fatty liver disease: quantitative assessment of liver fat content by computed tomography, magnetic resonance imaging and proton magnetic resonance spectroscopy. |
How many dogs were studied in class 1b? | Pulmonary hypertension has been associated with mitral insufficiency caused by chronic degenerative valve disease in dogs. Our aim was to search for associations between left atrial to aortic root ratio, end-systolic and end-diastolic volume indices, and changes in the right ventricular to right atrial pressure gradient as estimated by the peak velocity of tricuspid regurgitation in dogs with chronic degenerative valve disease and different classes of heart failure. Dogs, for which follow-up was available were evaluated for changes in the right ventricular to right atrial systolic pressure gradient over time. Three hundred and forty-four dogs were studied; 51 in the International Small Animal Cardiac Health Council class la, 75 in class 1b, 113 in class 2, 97 in class 3a, and 8 in class 3b. The mean values for right ventricular to right atrial systolic pressure gradient, end-systolic volume index, end-diastolic volume index, and left atrial to aortic ratio were 49.2 +/- 17.1 mmHg, 149.12 +/- 60.8 and 37.7 +/- 21.6 ml/m2, and 1.9 +/- 0.5, respectively. A weak positive correlation was found between the right ventricular to right atrial systolic pressure gradient and the left atrial to aorta ratio (r = 0.242, P < 0.0001), end-diastolic volume index (r = 0.242, P < 0.0001), and end-systolic volume index (r = 0.129, P < 0.001). Follow up was available for 49 dogs. Of these, 18 had an increased, 12 a decreased, and 19 a stable right ventricular to right atrial systolic pressure gradient despite therapy. The equivalence point between the sensitivity and specificity curves of about 80% in the coincident point corresponded to a right ventricular to right atrial systolic pressure gradient of 48 mmHg. Our results suggest an association between the progressive nature of chronic degenerative mitral valve disease and pulmonary hypertension. It is of clinical interest that, with a right ventricular to right atrial systolic pressure gradient pressure gradient at or above 48 mmHg, pulmonary hypertension does not appear to improve despite therapy targeted at lowering the left atrial load. |
What is the endocrine function of the postmenopausal ovary | In light of recent evidence, it seems that the endocrine function of the postmenopausal ovary is more elusive and more variable than previously believed. Although the current authors believe that the postmenopausal ovary has lost a clinically significant estrogenic capability, a definitive conclusion regarding androgen production cannot be forthcoming. |
What is the activity of 3-Hydroxyanthranilate oxygenas | 3-Hydroxyanthranilate oxygenase activity is increased in the brains of Huntington disease victims. |
What is the implication of TIMP-2 in cervical carcinogenesis? | BACKGROUND AND OBJECTIVE: Because matrix metalloproteinase-2 (MMP-2) is associated with tumor progression and tissue inhibitor of MMP-2 (TIMP-2) selectively inhibits MMP-2, we investigate the implication of TIMP-2 in carcinogenesis of uterine cervix. METHODS: Twenty-six cervical cancer tissues and their normal counterparts were collected to evaluate semi-quantitative mRNA expression of TIMP-2. Eighty-two cervical cancer, 26 high-grade and 26 low-grade dysplasia, and 26 normal tissues were collected to construct tissue microarrays for immunohistochemical study. We evaluated TIMP-2 immunoreactivity using H scores in cervical carcinogenesis. Semi-quantitative expression of MMP-2 was also detected for comparison. RESULTS: Cervical cancer tissues exhibited statistically lower semi-quantitative TIMP-2 (P = 0.028) or higher MMP-2 (P = 0.036) mRNA expression than their normal counterparts. None of cervical cancer tissues exerted elevated TIMP-2 and reduced MMP-2 mRNA expression simultaneously. Cancer tissues have significantly lower TIMP-2 or higher MMP-2 H scores than high-grade and low-grade dysplasia or normal tissues of uterine cervix. CONCLUSIONS: Low expression of TIMP-2 or high expression of MMP-2 is semi-quantitatively demonstrated in cancer of uterine cervix. TIMP-2 is implicated in cervical carcinogenesis. |
What is the metastatic ability of breast cancer cells with chemoresistant properties? | OBJECTIVE: The metastatic ability of breast cancer cells with chemoresistant properties is higher when compared to that of their parental wild-type cells. Expression of AnnexinA2 (Anxa2), a 36-kDa calcium-dependent phospholipid binding protein, is increased in metastatic tumours and has been found to be associated with the phenotype of drug resistance and metastasis. MATERIALS AND METHODS AND RESULTS: In the present study, we found that up-regulation of Anxa2 correlates with enhanced migration and invasion ability of MCF-7 breast cancer cells both in vitro and in vivo. Western blot analysis revealed that exposure to chemotherapeutic drugs may induce elevated expression of Anxa2. In addition, our data have shown that Anxa2 might influence proliferation, migration and invasion of MCF-7 cells by increasing expression of c-myc and cyclin D1 via activation of Erk1/2 signalling pathways. CONCLUSION: Our findings suggest that up-regulation of Anxa2 may play an important role in modulating proliferation and invasion of breast cancer MCF-7 cells through regulation of many relevant downstream target genes. |
What is the hepatitis C virus? | - Co-infection with hepatitis C virus (HCV), human immunodeficiency virus (HIV), or hepatitis D virus (HDV) |
What is the most common malignant brain tumor in childhood? | PURPOSE AND EXPERIMENTAL DESIGN: The cellular mechanisms leading to metastatic disease in medulloblastoma (MB), the most common malignant brain tumor in childhood, are mainly unknown. Recently, however, the involvement of matrix metalloproteinases (MMPs) has been suggested. We examined the expression and localization of four MMPs-MMP-2 and -9, membrane-type 1 and 2 MMP (MT1- and MT2-MMP)-and correlated the data with those for their main inhibitors, tissue inhibitors of metalloproteinases (TIMP-1, -2, and -3), in 83 classical and 18 desmoplastic MBs. RESULTS: Independent of the histological subtype, MMP-2 expression was found in a small percentage of tumors, whereas MMP-9 and MT1- or MT2-MMP were expressed in >75% of tumor samples. The expression of TIMP-1, -2, and -3, on the other hand, was found to depend on the histological subtype: TIMP-3 was often found in classical MB, whereas TIMP-2 was often expressed in desmoplastic MB (P = 0.007-0.001). In addition, both TIMP-3 and -2 correlated significantly with the expression of all studied metalloproteinases except MMP-2. TIMP-1, detected only in classical MB in a low percentage, was the only TIMP that correlated with the expression of MMP-2. Kaplan-Meier estimation revealed significantly reduced long-term survival of patients with strong MMP expression in tumor samples. In multivariate logistic regression analysis, however, the prognosis was significantly determined only by clinical parameters. CONCLUSIONS: TIMP-3 and -2 expression is highly correlated with histological subtypes of MBs and strongly associated with the expression of certain MMPs. The expression of TIMPs and MMPs, however, does not determine prognosis independently of clinical parameters. |
What is the effect of agonist binding to serotonin-1A receptors in post | Serotonin-1A receptors may play a role in the pathophysiology of depression and suicide. In postmortem brain tissue, agonist binding to serotonin-1A receptors is reportedly increased or unchanged in depression or suicide, while neuroimaging studies report a decrease in antagonist binding to these receptors in subjects with depression. In this study, both agonist and antagonist radioligand binding to serotonin-1A receptors were examined in postmortem orbitofrontal cortex from subjects with major depressive disorder (MDD). Brain tissue was collected at autopsy from 11 subjects with MDD and 11 age- and gender-matched normal control subjects. Two depressed subjects had a recent psychoactive substance use disorder. Six subjects with MDD had a prescription for an antidepressant drug in the last month of life, and, of these six, postmortem bloods from only two subjects tested positive for an antidepressant drug. There was no significant difference between cohorts for age, postmortem interval or tissue pH. The receptor agonist [3H]8-OH-DPAT or the antagonist [3H]MPPF were used to autoradiographically label serotonin-1A receptors in frozen sections from cytoarchitectonically-defined left rostral orbitofrontal cortex (area 47). There was no significant difference between depressed and control subjects in agonist binding to serotonin-1A receptors. However, antagonist binding was significantly decreased in outer layers of orbitofrontal cortex in MDD. This observation in postmortem tissue confirms reports using an antagonist radioligand in living subjects with depression. Decreased antagonist binding to serotonin-1A receptors in outer layers of orbitofrontal cortex suggests diminished receptor signaling and may be linked to corresponding neuronal changes detected previously in these depressed subjects. |
What is the association between chronic endometritis and preterm birth? | The association of chronic endometritis with preterm birth. |
What is the BRCA1 mutation in a Pakistani woman with metaplastic breast carcinoma? | A deleterious BRCA1 mutation in a young Pakistani woman with metaplastic breast carcinoma. |
What is the primary cause of colorectal cancer? | Serum carcinoembryonic antigen measurement, abdominal contrast-enhanced computed tomography, and fluorine-18 fluorodeoxyglucose positron emission tomography/computed tomography in the detection of colorectal cancer recurrence: a correlative study. |
What is the name of the ameloblastoma that is a large | [Management of a giant ameloblastoma at the Butare University Hospital Center (Rwanda)]. |
Dialysis patient who is diagnosed with Dialysis? | 1. Dialysis patient |
What was the prevalence of pathological karyotypes observed in less mature M0- | In a group of 102 children with different immunological subtypes of acute leukemia, both lymphoblastic and nonlymphoblastic, the clinical parameters - event free survival and overall survival were correlated with numerical and structural chromosomal abnormalities. In a group of 80 ALL patients genetic abnormalities were observed in 40 patients, from those 19 of numerical type, 17 of structural type and 4 with both, numerical and structural anomalies. From the whole ALL group observed 23 patients (28.75%) died. In 10 died patients genetic abnormalities were found and in 6 cases less mature T-phenotype ALL has been documented. It seems, therefore, that immature T-phenotype with pathological karyotypes of all types of genetic anomalies presents the most risk group of patients of which all children died. ALL patients, as a whole, with pathological karyotype have shown significantly lower event free survival rate, comparing to the group of ALL patients with normal karyotype. Overall survival rate was also lower in the first group, but statistically not significant. In T-ALL patients, in both groups, with and without pathological karyotype, event free survival rate and overall survival rate were also lower in the first group, but statistically not significant. In B-ALL patients with pathological karyotypes vs. normal ones overall survival rate was lower in the first group, but statistically not significant. There was no difference in overall survival rate in these patients between pathological and normal karyotypes. In ANNL group of patients pathological karyotype was observed in 14 of them, with numerical anomalies in 6 patients, structural in 4 patients and both of them - numerical + structural in 4 children. From the whole ANLL group observed 11 (50%) patients died during the follow-up period (9 in relapse and 2 of treatment complications). From 11 died patients in 81.8% pathological karyotype was present. The prevalence of pathological karyotypes was observed in less mature M0-M2 ANLL subtype (71.4%). ANLL patients with pathological karyotype have shown significantly lower event free survival rate (in one of the two statistical log-rank analyses), comparing to the group of ANLL patients with normal karyotype. Overall survival rate was also lower in the first group, but statistically not significant. The presence/absence of CD34 marker expression in blast cells of our group of acute leukemia patients did not show any difference in event free survival and overall survival rates. |
What is the name of the patient who has a pancreas capsule? | 4. Patients who have any injury to the pancreas capsule on operation. |
What is one of the less common intracranial complications of infectious ear disease? | Otitic hydrocephalus is one the less common intracranial complications of infectious ear disease, consisting of elevated intracranial pressure without focal neurologic abnormalities other than those due to the elevated pressure. Two representatives cases is discussed in this report, followed by a review of the literature. The clinical course, diagnosis, treatment, and prognosis are outlined. The etiology and the association with lateral sinus thrombosis remains obscure. |
What is the function of individuals with end-stage renal disease? | Neuropsychological, physical, and psychosocial functioning of individuals with end-stage renal disease. |
What was the RNA-analysis of gene expression by cells of these strains? | Culturing of suspension fraction of a long-term bone marrow culture derived from tumor necrosis factor (TNF)-deficient mice for 75 days produced cells forming adherent cell strains. The cells of all strains expressed RNA of various stromal differentiating markers in various combinations. The cells of many strains simultaneously expressed genes encoding products characteristic of different differentiation lineages. The derived strains maintained hemopoiesis for 10 weeks. RNA-analysis of gene expression by cells of these strains showed that they express a set of various growth factors and cytokines. It was hypothesized that suspension fraction of long-term bone marrow culture derived from TNF-deficient mice includes immature stromal precursor cells, which were never detected in long-term bone marrow culture derived from wild-type mice. |
What is the name of the VACCINE IN PATIENTS WITH CHRONIC M | SYNTHETIC VACCINE IN PATIENTS WITH CHRONIC MYELOID LEUKEMIA AND MINIMAL RESIDUAL DISEASE: |
What is the name of the group that was sulfadoxine-pyrime | Therapeutic efficacy of sulfadoxine-pyrimethamine (SP), which is commonly used to treat falciparum malaria, was assessed in isolates of Plasmodium falciparum (Welch, 1897) and Plasmodium vivax (Grassi et Feletti, 1890) ofAligarh, Uttar Pradesh, North India and Taif, Saudi Arabia during 2011-2012. Both the species showed mutations in dihydrofolate reductase (DHFR) enzyme as they have common biochemical drug targets. Mutation rate for pfdhfr was higher compared to pvdhfr because the drug was mainly given to treat falciparum malaria. Since both the species coexist, P. vivax was also exposed to SP due to faulty species diagnosis or medication without specific diagnosis. Low level of mutations against SP in P. falciparum of Saudi isolates indicates that the SP combination is still effective for the treatment of falciparum malaria. Since SP is used as first-line of treatment because of high level of resistance against chloroquine (CQ), it may result in spread of higher level of mutations resulting in drug resistance and treatment failure in near future. Therefore, to avoid further higher mutations in the parasite, use of better treatment regimens such as artesunate combination therapy must be introduced against SP combination. |
What is the sole tool available for depicting the laminar structure of the bronchi | It may be essential for taking appropriate therapeutic decisions in cases with early central-type lung cancer, to know the depth of tumor invasion of the bronchial wall at the laminar level. When a tumor penetrates the cartilaginous layer, photodynamic therapy (PDT) may no longer effective. For optimal therapeutic outcome, the physicians should know accurately whether or not the lesion has invaded the cartilaginous layer. Endobronchial ultrasonography (EBUS) is the sole tool available currently for depicting the laminar structure of the bronchial wall in clinical use. But mastery is required for judging the extent of tumor invasion of the bronchial wall from the ultrasonogram. Even experienced interpreters have to depend on their subjective judgment. We employed image analysis software to digitize the EBUS image. This allowed us to draw a plot of the EBUS data from the bronchial wall and perform statistical analysis for an objective assessment. In this study, we examined the ultrasound images of the bronchial wall structure using 20 MHz and 30 MHz transducers. The results showed that the 30 MHz transducer was significantly more useful for delineating the bronchial wall layers than the 20 MHz probe. Our image analysis is an objective evaluation, and any examiner should arrive at the same results. |
Inclusion Criteria: | Inclusion Criteria: |
What is the motor representations of gait? | Based on these findings, it has been hypothesized that the motor representations of gait, despite being a hyper-learned motor pattern, might be subjected to modification as a result of an impairment of walking caused by a peripheral functional limitation in the lower limbs as the one characterizing orthopaedic patients who underwent a surgical operation for total knee arthroprosthesis. In this protocol, patients are thus required to perform visual discrimination tasks based on the observation of movements performed with either the upper or lower limbs, and their performance is expected to correlated with their functional impairments in movement execution. |
What was the inhibitory effect of capsaicin on the substance P-induced contractions | Effects of capsaicin on the circular muscle motility of the isolated guinea-pig ileum were investigated. Capsaicin produced a contraction followed by a relaxation of the circular muscle. Both responses were easily desensitized. As the late relaxation response was not sufficiently intense to be analyzed, the inhibitory effect of capsaicin on substance P-induced contractions was explored. Capsaicin abolished the substance P-induced contractions. This inhibitory effect was not affected by tetrodotoxin, and the effect was desensitized. Therefore, all effects of capsaicin on circular muscle motility seem to be due to the release of sensory neuropeptides, similarly to those elicited in the longitudinal muscle. |
What is the name of the clinical trials that have been conducted in the last 30 days? | - Participation to clinical trials in the last 30 days. |
What is the name of the sealer prepared with? | Solubility of Epiphany endodontic sealer prepared with resinous solvent. |
What is the name of the meal that you can inject? | If you need to, you can inject soon after a meal. |
Rare: | Rare: |
What is the best diagnostic procedure to determine the presence and severity of corrosive o | Acute poisonings with corrosive substances make 15-20% of all acute poisonings in our country. They are on the second place, after drug poisonings, which are far more often. After the ingestion of corrosives, corrosive lesions of the gastrointestinal tract appear. The oesophagus has lesions mostly in cases of ingestion of alkali, and the stomach (gaster) is damaged when an acid is ingested The first steps in the management of the patients having ingested a corrosive substance are to stabilise all vital parameters of the patient (reanimation) and to dilute the substance. The dilution can be done within 60 minutes, with water or milk. After the stabilisation of all vital parameters, the further treatment should start, meaning diagnostics and therapeutic measures. The best diagnostic procedure to determine the presence and severity of corrosive oesophageal lesions is oesophagoscopy. Basic therapeutic principles in the management of patients after corrosive substance ingestion must be applied. According to these principles, it is contraindicated to induce vomiting, diarrhoea and do corrosive substance neutralisation or gastric lavage. Charcoal has no effect, and is not indicated. It is important to identify the kind and quantity of ingested substance, as well as to withhold all oral feedings, and to assess fluid and electrolyte balance carefully and to watch for development of complications. This paper presents the complete treatment protocol of ENT Clinic, Clinical Center of Vojvodina, Serbia. This protocol has been in use since the year 2000 and the results are excellent. |
What is the ATPase alpha 1 isoform? | A genetic predisposition to develop a polyneuropathy in case of diabetes seems to exist. Some ethnic groups such as North Africans are prone to develop a diabetic polyneuropathy. To identify this predisposition could help in targeting a preventive treatment. We have observed that red cell Na/K ATPase activity was lower among diabetic patients than controls and even lower when diabetic neuropathy was present. Now an impaired NA/K ATPase activity has been implicated in the pathogenesis of diabetic neuropathy and ethnic differences in this enzyme activity have been demonstrated. For these reasons, we have compared red cell Na/K ATPase activity of European and North African individuals with or without diabetes and in case of diabetes with or without neuropathy. Among European subjects, Na/K ATPase activity was higher in 46 control subjects than in 84 insulin-dependent diabetic patients (405 +/- 16 nmol.mg Prot-1h-1 versus 282 +/- 10 p. < 0.05) and in the diabetic group Na/K ATPase activity was lower in the patients presenting with neuropathy (242 +/- 19 versus 323 +/- 12 p. < 0.05). The mean red cell Na/K ATPase activity was lower in 16 North African control subjects than in their European counterparts (296 +/- 26 p. < 0.05). The same observation was made when comparing 24 North Africans insulin dependent diabetic patients to the European diabetics (246 +/- 20 p. < 0.05). A low Na/K ATPase activity appears to be a risk marker of diabetic neuropathy. It could explain the propensity of North African patients to develop this diabetic complication. A restriction polymorphism exist on the first intron of the ATP1 A1 gene coding for the ATPase alpha 1 isoform. This isoform is preponderent in the nervous tissue and exclusive in red cells. Among European diabetic individuals, the presence of the restricted allele is strongly associated to diabetic neuropathy, confering a relative risk of 6.5 (95%, confidence interval 3.3-13). The restricted allele is associated to a lower Na/K ATPase activity but only among diabetic patients and not in control subjects. This fact suggests an interaction between genetic factors (the restriction polymorphism of ATP1 A1 gene) and environmental factors (diabetes) to induce a decrease in Na/K ATPase activity which in turn could favor the development of diabetic neuropathy. Among North African individuals the impairement of Na/K ATPase activity is not explained by the presence of this polymorphism. Other genetic factors remain to be identified. |
What is one of the most promising treatments we have for some cancers? | New but costly forms of hadron therapy to treat certain cancers raise important questions about how much health systems can afford to pay, but for some cancers, including many child cancers, they are among the most promising treatments we have. |
What is the effect of the calcium antagonist nifedipine? | For the purpose of testing extracardial haemodynamic effects of the calcium antagonist nifedipine (corinfar) in 15 patients with arterial obstructive disease and in a control group plethysmographic and doppler-sonographic measurements before and after oral application of the substance were performed. In these cases after the application of nifedipine a significant increase of the blood flow in the crural region developed. At the same time a slight decrease of the systolic pressure could be established at the upper and lower extremity. In patients with arterial obstructive disease these haemodynamic reactions had a less significant result. They correspond to an arterial vasodilatation with decrease of the peripheral resistance and simultaneously they explain a part of the antianginous effect of the calcium antagonist. The increase of the blood flow which is to be objectified after the application of nifedipine also in poststenotic areas might be of clinical importance particularly in the combined occurrence of atherosclerotically conditioned disturbances of the blood supply of the coronary and peripheral vascular system. |
What is the AUDIT score for problem drinking? | - Meets criteria for problem drinking on the AUDIT (score of 6 or greater) |
What is the cost savings associated with testing antibodies, antigens, and nucleic acids | Cost savings associated with testing of antibodies, antigens, and nucleic acids for diagnosis of acute HIV infection. |
What is associated with inhospital mortality in Ugandan patients with severe sepsis? | Hypoglycemia at admission is associated with inhospital mortality in Ugandan patients with severe sepsis. |
What is the risk of a nondiabetic controls? | - 1. Inclusion Criteria Nondiabetic controls High-risk (n=5) |
Induction therapy: Patients receive 1 of 2 induction therapy regimens. | - Induction therapy: Patients receive 1 of 2 induction therapy regimens. |
What was the relationship between cognitive impairment and physical disability? | BACKGROUND: The association between cognitive impairment and physical disability was examined in a larger, more representative sample of patients with multiple sclerosis (MS) than in previous studies. METHOD: Two hundred and fifty-three patients attending an MS clinic were assessed with respect to physical disability using the Expanded Disability Status Scale and cognitive impairment using a battery of neuropsychological tests. RESULTS: Physical disability correlated with duration of disease; cognitive impairment did not. Virtually all measures derived from the cognitive battery were significantly correlated with physical disability. Three measures of speeded information processing and one involving delayed recall of verbal material were unique predictors of disability status. The relationship between cognitive impairment and physical disability was equivalent for patients with shorter (< 3 years) versus longer (> 10 years) disease duration. Cognitive impairment correlated with the rate of disability progression as reflected by the progression index. CONCLUSION: Cognitive impairment is more closely associated with physical disability than most previous studies indicate. This relationship appears to be stable throughout the duration of MS, although this conclusion is qualified by the cross-sectional design of the study. Further attention should be paid to cognitive impairment as a possible predictor of the rate of patients' physical decline. |
What is the exclusion criteria? | Exclusion Criteria: |
What is the history of surgery, lumbar puncture, biopsy or trauma to internal organ | - History of surgery, lumbar puncture, biopsy or trauma to internal organs within the previous 30 days. |
- Men and woman 50 years of age - Men and woman 50 | - Men and woman ≥ 50 years of age |
What is the result of perineal urethrostomy? | Short- and long-term outcome after perineal urethrostomy in 86 cats with feline lower urinary tract disease. |
What was the 11778 mitochondrial DNA mutation associated with Leber's optic neuropathy | We examined the clinical characteristics of affected and unaffected members of an American black family with the 11778 mitochondrial DNA mutation associated with Leber's hereditary optic neuropathy. Thirty-six individuals from four generations were included. All maternally related subjects were shown to be essentially homoplasmic for the 11778 mitochondrial DNA mutation in blood. Paternally related subjects did not carry this mutation. Patients affected with optic neuropathy had optic nerve head cupping. Loss of unmyelinated axons from the prelaminar optic nerve may be responsible for cupping in these patients. Electrocardiographic analysis of subjects carrying the 11778 mitochondrial DNA mutation disclosed statistically significant (P = .02) prolongation of the corrected OT interval as compared to control subjects. While the clinical significance of this magnitude of corrected QT prolongation is unknown, it may represent a systemic manifestation of the 11778 mutation. No electrocardiographic evidence of preexcitation syndromes was seen. |
What is the primary function of the prefrontal cortex? | We used positron emission tomography (PET) to measure movement set-related changes in regional cerebral blood flow (rCBF) when human subjects were asked to copy hand movements. Movement set-related activity in the brain is thought to reflect the processes of movement selection, preparation and inhibition. Four conditions were used. In the first condition, prepare and execute (PE), the hand stimulus to be copied was shown to subjects 3 s before an auditory "go"-cue instructed subjects to execute the movement; a large part of the scanning time was therefore spent in preparing to move. In the immediate execution condition (E), the hand stimulus and the go cue were presented simultaneously. The prepare-only condition (P) was similar to PE, except subjects only prepared to make the movement and did not actually execute any movement when they heard the auditory go-cue. The same stimuli were presented in a baseline condition (B), but the subjects were instructed to neither prepare nor execute movements. There were 5 principle findings: (1) In contrast to a previous study of human set-related activity in which movements were instructed by an arbitrary pattern of LEDs, preparing to make a copied movement causes rCBF changes in area 44 in posterior Broca's area; (2) set-related activity can be recorded in the cerebellar hemispheres and midline; (3) we confirmed that the supramarginal gyrus has a general role in preparing movements - there was more rCBF in the P than the E condition; (4) the cerebellar nuclei and the basal ganglia may be particularly involved in the initiation and execution of a planned movement; these regions were more active in the PE condition than the P condition; (5) the ventrolateral prefrontal cortex and a left anterior cingulate area are part of a distributed system involved in the suppression of a motor response; these areas were significantly more active in the P than the PE condition. |
What is the highest amount of magnesium in blood? | - 1- Women with Non-proteinuric hypertension, 2- severe renal impairment 3- Myasthenia gravis 4- High amount of magnesium in blood 5- Low or high amount of calcium in blood 6- Myocardial damage, diabetic coma, heart block |
What is the case for diagnosis? | Case for diagnosis. |
What is the baseline FTND score? | - Smoke ≥10 cigarettes/day, Baseline FTND score ≥4, CO level ≥10 and are motivated to quit within 30 days of initial intake. |
What was the average age of the stent graft? | PURPOSE: We report results of a pivotal prospective clinical trial that compared standard surgical repair with endovascular exclusion of abdominal aortic aneurysm (AAA) with the Talent LPS stent graft system. METHODS: Between March 24, 1999, and September 19, 2000, 240 patients with AAA who underwent stent graft placement and 126 patients who concurrently underwent surgery to treat AAA were enrolled at 17 centers in the United States. All patients were considered to be at low risk from aortic surgery. Patients who underwent endovascular repair received a bifurcated Talent LPS stent graft; surgical control subjects underwent standard operative techniques. Inclusion criteria were AAA larger than 4.0 cm in diameter, with proximal neck > 5 mm long and 14 to 32 mm in diameter, and a 15 mm landing zone in at least one common iliac artery. Access requirements included one external iliac artery of 7 mm caliber or larger. Preoperative anatomic evaluation included computed tomography and angiography. After stent-graft placement, evaluation involved plain radiography and computed tomography performed before discharge and at 1, 6, and 12 months and yearly thereafter. RESULTS: There was no significant difference in early (<30 days) or late mortality between the two groups. Complications were slightly higher in the surgical cohort. The stent graft group did better in terms of procedure duration, requirement for general anesthesia and blood transfusion, and intensive care unit and hospital stay. There were three access or deployment failures. Immediate surgical conversion was necessary in only 1 patient, and late conversion in 5 additional patients. There were no aneurysm ruptures. Endoleak rate detected at CT (core laboratory validated) was 14% at 1 month, 12% at 6 months, and 10% at 12 months. CONCLUSIONS: Compared with surgical control subjects, patients with AAA treated with the Talent LPS stent graft had fewer complications and the same low operative mortality. Likewise, endovascular repair performed better than surgery in the perioperative period, as measured with several key procedural indicators. Long-term follow-up of patients with the stent graft will be essential to assess durability of these early results. |
How many patients had successful operation? | OBJECTIVE: To explore therapeutic effects of cannulated screw fixation through posteromedial approach for the treatment of tibial avulsion fracture of the tibial attachment of the posterior cruciate ligament. METHODS: From February 2007 to March 2012, 36 patients with tibial avulsion fracture of the tibial attachment of the posterior cruciate ligament were reviewed. Among the patients, 28 patients were male and 8 patients were female, ranging in age from 16 to 57 years old,averaged 35 years old. All fractures were fresh closed fracture. The posterior drawer test and heavy sign were positive in all patients. AP X-ray of knee joints of all patients showed avulsion fracture flaps at the posterior tibia platform. All the patients were treated with cannulated screw fixation through posteromedial approach, and function exercise performed after operation. The Lysholm criterion was used to evaluate clinical effects. RESULTS: All the patients had successful operation, and were followed up. The duration of follow-up ranged from 6 to 36 months, with an average of 12 months. The fractures healed at 3 months after operation. According to Lysholm knee joint evaluation criteria, 30 patients got an excellent result, 4 good and 2 poor,the average score was 92.2 +/- 3.8. CONCLUSION: Cannulated screw fixation through posteromedial approach for the treatment of tibial avulsion fracture of the tibial attachment of the posterior cruciate ligament is effective to recover joint function to large extent, which is a safe, simple and effective surgical method. |
What is the health of general health as determined by detailed medical history and physical examination? | - Good general health ascertained by detailed medical history and physical examination. |
What is the effect of phenytoin and ethosuximide on | One-third of Wistar rats bred in our laboratory present recurrent seizures whose EEG and clinical symptomatology resemble those of human petit mal. Bilateral cortical synchronous spike- and wave discharges (7-11 c/s; 200-600 microV, lasting 0.5 to 40 s) accompany behavioral arrest and are associated frequently with facial myoclonia. These seizures, observed as long as the animals survive, appear spontaneously and seem to be unrelated to surgical procedures. Antiepileptics in common clinical use were tested. Ethosuximide (greater than 12.5 mg/kg), diazepam (greater than 0.5 mg/kg), trimethadione and sodium valproate (greater than 50 mg/kg) suppressed these discharges in a dose related manner. Carbamazepine and phenytoin were ineffective or aggravated the seizures. Phenobarbital, effective at 2.5 to 10 mg/kg, was ineffective at 20 mg/kg. The similar effects of these antiepileptics on both the rats' seizures and human petit mal confirm the hypothesis that this phenomenon constitutes a valid pharmacological model of petit mal epilepsy. Its predictive value appears to be superior to that of other currently used models. |
What is the description of the description of the description of the description? | Detailed Description |
What was the hazard ratio of the Thr164Ile polymorphism? | Genetic polymorphisms of adrenergic receptors (ARs) have been associated with the development, progression, and prognosis of patients with heart failure (HF), with few data for the Brazilian population. We evaluated the role of the beta2-AR Thr164Ile polymorphism at codon 164 on prognosis in a prospective study on 315 adult Brazilian HF patients, predominantly middle-aged Caucasian men in functional class I-II, with severe left ventricular systolic dysfunction. Genomic DNA was extracted from peripheral blood and beta2-AR164 genotypes were detected by PCR followed by restriction fragment length analysis. During a median follow-up of 3 years, 95 deaths occurred and 57 (60%) were HF-related. Unexpectedly, Ile164 carriers (N = 12) had no HF-related events (log-rank P value = 0.13). Analysis using genotype combination with beta1-AR polymorphisms at codons 49 and 389 identified patients with favorable genotypes (Thr164Ile of beta2-AR, Gly49Gly of beta1-AR and/or Gly389Gly of beta1-AR), who had lower HF-related mortality (P = 0.01). In a Cox proportional hazard model adjusted for other clinical characteristics, having any of the favorable genotypes remained as independent predictor of all-cause (hazard ratio (HR): 0.41, 95%CI: 0.17-0.95) and HF-related mortality (HR: 0.12, 95%CI: 0.02-0.90). These data show that the beta2-AR Thr164Ile polymorphism had an impact on prognosis in a Brazilian cohort of HF patients. When combined with common beta1-AR polymorphisms, a group of patients with a combination of favorable genotypes could be identified. |
What is the potential of the Rett syndrome? | Evoked potentials in the Rett syndrome. |
What is the clinical marker for specific language impairment? | PURPOSE: Extended optional use of direct object clitic pronouns (e.g., la in Paula la vede ["Paula sees her"]) appears to be a clinical marker for specific language impairment (SLI) in Italian. In this study, we examined whether sentence production demands might influence the degree to which Italian-speaking children with SLI produced clitics. METHOD: Preschool-age children with SLI ( n = 15) and 2 groups of younger typically developing children ( n = 15 each) participated. Production demands were varied through use of a syntactic priming task. RESULTS: The children with SLI were more likely than the comparison children to omit the clitic in a control condition in which they had to describe a target picture without the benefit of a preceding sentence prime. The children with SLI were also more likely to describe target pictures using a default clitic or a clitic that had appeared in the preceding prime sentence but was inappropriate for the target. CONCLUSIONS: The findings suggest that children with SLI have difficulty generating a sentence containing a grammatical slot for a clitic when production demands are increased, and when they succeed in generating such a sentence, they often cannot at the same time retrieve the appropriate clitic form. |
What is the cause of symptomatic congestive heart failure? | 3. Uncontrolled intercurrent illness including, but not limited to ongoing or active infection, symptomatic congestive heart failure, unstable angina pectoris, life threatening cardiac arrhythmia |
Bone marrow dysfunctions preceding acute leukemia in children: a clinical | Bone marrow dysfunctions preceding acute leukemia in children: a clinical study. |
How much does ETN 50mg twice weekly for 12 weeks? | To compare the efficacy of ETN 50mg twice weekly for 12 weeks followed by reduction to a maintenance dose of 25mg twice weekly at week 24 with that of combination of ETN 25 mg Twice Weekly plus Acitretin 10mg BID at week 24 in subjects with moderate to severe psoriasis. |
What is the name of the infection that is known as acute or chronic? | - Known acute or chronic hepatitis B or hepatitis C infection as determined by serologic tests |
What are the exclusion criteria? | Exclusion Criteria |
What is the most common arrhythmia in patients admitted to Emergency Departments? | BACKGROUND: Atrial fibrillation (AF) is the most common arrhythmia in patients admitted to Emergency Departments. However, the management of permanent AF in order to prevent thromboembolism in clinical practice is still widely discussed. We aimed to evaluate this management and the occurrence of clinical events in a cohort of patients with permanent AF admitted to our Emergency Department. METHODS: We enrolled in this observational study 582 patients with permanent AF consecutively seen in our Emergency Room. RESULTS: Mean age was 80.1 +/- 9.6 years. Two or more comorbidities were present in 67% of patients. 28% of patients were treated with oral anticoagulant therapy (OT) at the time of admission to the Emergency Department, 34.2% with anti-platelet therapy (APT), while 37.8% were taking no anti-thrombotic therapy. There was no correspondence between three observed groups of treatment and the risk stratification according to CHADS2. In the groups of patients at high or intermediate risk a higher number of ischemic stroke was observed in patients taking APT than in OT patients (16.1% vs 31.5%, p=0.001). A low frequency of total and cerebral haemorrhagic events was observed in all groups. Only the non severe bleeds were significantly more frequent in patients on OT. CONCLUSIONS: OT is well-tolerated even in elderly patients, with a low rate of haemorrhagic events. In clinical practice OT is underused, in particular in older patients, in spite of a high number of thrombotic events. |
What is the name of the subspecialty that has allowed interventional neurology to transition | Neurologists have a long history of involvement in cerebral angiography; however, the roots of neurologist involvement in therapeutic endovascular procedures have not been previously documented. As outlined in this article, it has taken the efforts of several early pioneers to lay the ground work for interventional neurology, a specialty that has become one of the fastest growing neurological subspecialties. The ground work, along with a great clinical need, has allowed the modern interventional neurologist to tackle some of the most intractable diseases, especially those affecting the cerebral vasculature. The institutionalization of interventional neurology as a subspecialty was first advocated in 1995 in an article entitled, "Interventional Neurology, a subspecialty whose time has come." The institutions created in the wake of this article have provided the framework that has allowed interventional neurology to transition from "a subspecialty whose time has come" to a subspecialty that is here to stay and thrive. |
What is the current malignancy at other sites? | - Current malignancies at other sites, with the exception of adequately treated cone-biopsied in situ carcinoma of the cervix uteri and basal or squamous cell carcinoma of the skin. |
What is the imaging neuroblastoma in children? | Imaging neuroblastoma in children. |
- Operation Elective and subacute | - Elective and subacute surgery |
What is the history of sensitivity to any of the study medications? | - History of sensitivity to any of the study medications, or components thereof, or a history of drug (including sulfa drugs) or other allergy that, in the opinion of the investigator or GSK Medical Monitor, contraindicates their participation. History of sulphonamide allergy (FPV includes a sulphonamide moiety) |
What was the HabibTM EndoHBP? | All patients who underwent endoscopic radiofrequency ablation with the HabibTM EndoHBP as a treatment for malignant biliary obstruction in Austria between November 2010 and December 2012. |
What is the general organisation of the study? | General organisation of the study |
What is the purpose of the above information? | The above information is not intended to contain all considerations relevant to a patient's potential participation in a clinical trial. |
What is the Portuguese Surveillance Group for the Study of Respiratory Pathogens | Streptococcus pyogenes isolated in Portugal: macrolide resistance phenotypes and correlation with T types. Portuguese Surveillance Group for the Study of Respiratory Pathogens. |
What is the process of transportation by aircraft? | The transportation of chicks by aircraft increased in the last years greatly. High losses occurred frequently. A very important reason is water and food deprivation for too long a time between hatching and the arrival at the consignee. The process of transportation by aircraft, the development of the animal at hatching, and the clinical and chemical changes caused by water and food deprivation are described. In our opinion pathophysiological conditions are likely to appear 48 hours after hatching, when the animals are not fed and watered. It seems to be necessary to pay more attention to this problem. |
What is the most commonly cited indication for surgery? | The role of surgery before the completion of a standard course of antibiotics in endocarditis continues to evolve. The most commonly cited indications for surgery include heart failure, repeated emboli, resistant infection, large vegetations seen by echocardiography, and deep tissue involvement. It has also been suggested that any prosthetic valve infected with a nonstreptococcal pathogen should be considered for early replacement. We discuss the rationale behind surgical intervention, critically review the pertinent literature, and propose guidelines for the clinical management of these patients. |
What is the second dose of HBIg needed for infants of hepatitis | Anti-HBs levels in infants of hepatitis B carrier mothers after delayed active immunization with recombinant vaccine concomitant with DTP-polio vaccine: is there need for a second dose of HBIg? Dutch Study Group on Prevention of Neonatal Hepatitis B. |
Patients with congenital abnormalities with congenital abnormalities are often diagnosed with congen | - Patients with major congenital abnormalities |
What is the effect of daily SMS? | The effect of daily SMS will be tested comparing groups 1+3 vs. group 2+4. Logistic Regression model will be applied for testing the statistical significance of the difference in responders' rate between study arms 1, 2 and 3 vs. group 4 and between the active groups with adjustment to suspected confounders related to study outcome which will be found different between the arms. |
What did the hematomas after dural puncture delay? | Bilateral subdural hematomas after dural puncture: delayed diagnosis after false negative computed tomography scan without contrast. |
What was the effect of DMI treatment on the prolactin and ACTH response? | Gravid female rats were injected subcutaneously with saline (SAL) or nicotine (3.0 mg/kg and 0.05 mg/kg, bid) from days 14-21 of gestation. Adult 105-day old male offspring from each of the three groups were treated daily with saline or desipramine (DMI) (10 mg/kg, sc) for 14 days. Twenty-four hours after the last injection, animals were challenged with saline or 8-hydroxy-2- (di-n-propylamino) tetralin (8-OH DPAT) (0.1 mg/kg, sc), a serotonin IA(5-HT(IA)) agonist, and plasma prolactin and ACTH concentrations were measured 15 minutes later. DMI treatment augmented both the prolactin and ACTH responses to 8-OH DPAT in the SAL controls. Neither the prolactin nor the ACTH response was augmented significantly in the animals exposed prenatally to either nicotine dosage regimen, although there was a strong trend for the augmentation to occur in the low-dose nicotine exposed animals. The results indicate the capacity of 5-HT systems to adapt normally to DMI administration, as manifested by neuroendocrine responsivity to 8-OH DPAT, was compromised in adult animals exposed to nicotine in utero. |
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