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What is the name of the internet resource for the primary targets of approved, clinical trials and experimental
The Therapeutic Target Database: an internet resource for the primary targets of approved, clinical trial and experimental drugs.
What was the goal of the project "Leaving of babies at children's homes and deinstitut
The project "Leaving of babies at children's homes and deinstitutionalization" was implemented at the children's home of Tbilisi. The purpose was to find out what influence was produced by deinstitutionalization on the physical and psychomotor development of deprived babies. The study lasted for 12 months. 3 groups of children were investigated. Group 1 comprised children selected for deinstitutionalization, age-matching healthy children who stayed at the children's home were in group 2, and healthy children randomly selected from 2 nurseries of Tbilisi were in group 3. The parameters of anthropometry and psychomotor development were evaluated according to the Denver screening test at the very beginning and in 12 months. The children from the children's home almost caught up, in 12 months after deinstitutionalization, with their control matches. Whereas, the children, who were brought up at the children's home, were behind the group-1 children and controls by all parameters. Projects promoting the upbringing of deprived children in their own or foster families are recommended for implementation.
What was the effect of L-arginine on hemodynamics and venous function
The effect of L-arginine, 250 mg/kg over 10 min, on hemodynamics and venous function was studied in nine splenectomized dogs under light pentobarbital anesthesia before and after 17 +/- 1 days of rapid right ventricular pacing (RRVP) at 250 beats/min. Chronic RRVP induced mild congestive heart failure with increased mean circulatory filling (Pmcf), right atrial (Pra) and pulmonary capillary wedge pressures (Ppcw), and reduced cardiac output (CO). During the development of heart failure, total vascular compliance assessed from Pmcf-blood volume relationships during circulatory arrest was unchanged, but total vascular capacitance was markedly reduced, with an increase in stressed and reduction in unstressed blood volumes. At baseline but not after RRVP, L-arginine increased CO and reduced pulmonary vascular resistance. There were no significant changes in Pra, Ppcw, or total peripheral resistance. L-Arginine failed to alter total vascular compliance and capacitance or central blood volume in the baseline or failure state. These results do not support the hypothesis that increased Pmcf and reduced total vascular capacitance in the early stages of pacing-induced heart failure are caused by reduced substrate availability for or an endogenous competitive antagonist of NO synthase in venous endothelial cells.
What was the age-adjusted rate of congestive heart failure?
Discharge data from a representative sample of short-stay US hospitals were examined to obtain information regarding trends in the prevalence of congestive heart failure from 1973 through 1986. During this 14-year period, the number of discharges more than doubled and the age-adjusted rates increased from 53% to 88% among the four major sex-race groups. On average, nonwhite men experienced annual hospitalization rates 33% higher than white men, while for women the corresponding nonwhite rates were 50% higher. Hospitalization rates during this period remained constant for persons younger than 55 years but rose sharply in the elderly. Concurrently, a slight decline in case fatality rates for an individual hospitalization was seen. The two factors accounting for the growing prevalence of congestive heart failure seem to be the increasing average age of the population and the longer survival of persons with chronic heart disease. The role of improved medical therapy during the period of this study remains uncertain. Increasing demands to provide care for the congestive heart failure syndrome are likely to continue in the coming years, and medical facilities should develop new intervention strategies to treat or prevent the underlying conditions leading to heart failure as well as decrease the need for hospitalization in this common disorder.
What is the unique cause of rebleeding in children with portal hypertension?
Late-onset inferior vena cava obstruction in a shunted patient--a unique cause of rebleeding in children with portal hypertension.
What is the main reason for smoking cessation?
Varenicline for smoking cessation among methadone-maintained smokers: a randomized clinical trial.
How many patients were treated with interferon alone for 24 weeks?
BACKGROUND: Only 15 to 20 percent of patients with chronic hepatitis C have a sustained virologic response to interferon therapy. We compared the efficacy and safety of recombinant interferon alfa-2b alone with those of a combination of interferon alfa-2b and ribavirin for the initial treatment of patients with chronic hepatitis C. METHODS: We randomly assigned 912 patients with chronic hepatitis C to receive standard-dose interferon alfa-2b alone or in combination with ribavirin (1000 or 1200 mg orally per day, depending on body weight) for 24 or 48 weeks. Efficacy was assessed by measurements of serum hepatitis C virus (HCV) RNA and serum aminotransferases and by liver biopsy. RESULTS: The rate of sustained virologic response (defined as an undetectable serum HCV RNA level 24 weeks after treatment was completed) was higher among patients who received combination therapy for either 24 weeks (70 of 228 patients, 31 percent) or 48 weeks (87 of 228 patients, 38 percent) than among patients who received interferon alone for either 24 weeks (13 of 231 patients, 6 percent) or 48 weeks (29 of 225 patients, 13 percent) (P<0.001 for the comparison of interferon alone with both 24 weeks and 48 weeks of combination treatment). Among patients with HCV genotype 1 infection, the best response occurred in those who were treated for 48 weeks with interferon and ribavirin. Histologic improvement was more common in patients who were treated with combination therapy for either 24 weeks (57 percent) or 48 weeks (61 percent) than in those who were treated with interferon alone for either 24 weeks (44 percent) or 48 weeks (41 percent). The drug doses had to be reduced and treatment discontinued more often in patients who were treated with combination therapy. CONCLUSIONS: In patients with chronic hepatitis C, initial therapy with interferon and ribavirin was more effective than treatment with interferon alone.
How many mg of LV were administered to five normal subjects?
The clinical formulation of leucovorin calcium (leucovorin, LV) is a mixture of stereoisomers [(6R,S)-5-formyltetrahydrofolate], which have been shown to differ significantly in plasma clearance and route of elimination after intravenous administration; the (6S) isomer is rapidly converted to 5-CH3 tetrahydrofolate (5-CH3 THF), and the (6R) isomer is slowly eliminated by renal excretion. The relative importance of (6S) LV and 5-CH3 THF in expanding reduced folate pools in tumor cells is unknown, but it is known that high concentrations of (6R) LV can support growth of folate-depleted cells and thus have the potential to interfere with the biological activity of the (6S) isomer. To examine the pharmacokinetics of the LV isomers and metabolites, we administered 1,000 mg of LV to five normal subjects as a 2-hour intravenous infusion and in divided oral 100-mg doses given over 24 hours. Plasma and urine samples were analyzed by reverse phase followed by chiral high-performance liquid chromatography. Following intravenous administration, peak plasma concentrations of (6R) LV, (6S) LV, and 5-CH3 THF were 148 +/- 32, 59.1 +/- 22, and 17.8 +/- 17 microM, respectively. During oral administration of LV, virtually no (6S) LV appeared in the plasma. Steady-state plasma concentrations of (6R) LV and 5-CH3 THF were approximately 1.5 +/- 0.23 and 2.8 +/- 0.41 microM, respectively. Intravenous administration of LV resulted in an area under the curve (AUC) for (6R) LV that was more than four times that of the biologically active (6S) folates, whereas oral administration produced an AUC for (6S) reduced folates [(6S) LV and 5-CH3 THF] that was approximately twice that of (6R) LV. After administration of high doses of LV intravenously, conversion of (6S) LV to 5-CH3 THF was saturable, as indicated by the prolonged (6S) LV half-life of 58 minutes and the slow (6S) LV clearance of 119.2 +/- 38 mL/min, compared with previously reported data for administration of low doses. This study illustrates that intravenous administration of LV produces equivalent AUCs of (6S) LV and 5-CH3 THF but a substantially higher AUC for (6R) LV. Oral administration over 24 hours results in an AUC of 5-CH3 THF equivalent to that obtained after intravenous dosing in the presence of only small amounts of (6R) LV. The optimal route of LV administration will ultimately be determined by ongoing studies of the cellular pharmacology of LV that will determine if high concentrations of (6R) LV interfere with the biological activity of the (6S) reduced folates.
What was the overall clinical trial participation rate of HIV-positive women?
BACKGROUND: To describe participation in clinical trials among HIV-positive women enrolled since 1993 in the Canadian Women's HIV Study, a prospective open cohort study. METHODS: All HIV-positive women being followed at hospital-based or community-based clinics at 28 sites in 11 Canadian cities were eligible to participate in the Canadian Women's HIV Study. Baseline and follow-up information was collected for 413 women every 6 months by study nurses using standardized questionnaires. Data included sociodemographic variables, HIV exposure group, CD4 count, disease classification, use of antiretroviral therapies and participation in clinical trials. RESULTS: At study intake 15.0% (62/413) of the women had participated in a clinical trial; an additional 8.5% (35/413) participated during a median follow-up of 18 months. Multivariate analysis revealed that the following factors were independently associated with participation in a clinical trial: white race (adjusted odds ratio [OR] 3.38, p = 0.001), current use of antiretroviral therapy (adjusted OR 2.01, p = 0.008), completion of secondary school (adjusted OR 1.97, p = 0.024) and residence in the Prairies or Atlantic provinces (adjusted OR 1.98, p = 0.043). INTERPRETATION: Although the overall clinical trial participation rate of 23.5% was relatively high among HIV-positive women, injection drug users were underrepresented in this study population, and non-white women, women who did not complete high school and women not receiving antiretroviral therapy were less likely than white women, women of higher education and women receiving antiretroviral therapy to participate in clinical trials in Canada. Because of the importance of trial participants being representative of the population for which therapeutic agents are intended, HIV clinical trials must recruit women with lower literacy levels, non-white women, women not receiving antiretroviral therapy and women who are injection drug users to ensure generalizability of research findings. Further study is needed to assess factors that act as barriers and motivators to women's participation in HIV clinical trials.
What is the difference between CXCR3- and CCR4-positive cells?
Differing distributions of CXCR3- and CCR4-positive cells among types of interstitial pneumonia associated with collagen vascular diseases.
What is the life expectancy 6 months due to?
- Life expectancy <6 months due to another illness (cancer, severe heart disease, etc.)
What was the name of the group that partnered with the 12 participating community health centers?
BACKGROUND: The Bureau of Primary Health Care (BPHC) adopted a collaborative approach that used the Chronic Care Model and quality improvement methods. The North Carolina Diabetes Prevention and Control Branch has partnered with the 12 participating community health centers since early 2000. METHODS: Team leaders of the first four centers that participated in the collaboratives were interviewed. Information obtained included previous diabetes efforts, benefits of the collaborative, success factors, and barriers to sustainability. CASE STUDY: In one of two case studies, a nonprofit community health center made Chronic Care Model-based changes to the organization of health care, clinical information systems, and delivery system design. RESULTS: Centers tracked used the electronic registry to establish a baseline, trend key process and outcome measures, and raise the standard of care. Success factors included senior leadership support, physician champions, multidisciplinary teams, and priority of collaborative activities. Barriers included staff turnover and low priority in strategic planning. Glycohemoglobin (A1C) values from aggregated reports demonstrated improvement. DISCUSSION: Useful strategies for future collaboratives may include providing provider-specific data, imparting vision to new team members, ensuring that leadership provides collaborative structure and resources, and pairing veteran and new participating sites.
What is the risk of hypoglycaemia?
Glycaemic control (HbA1c) with Levemir is comparable to NPH insulin, with a lower risk of nocturnal hypoglycaemia and no associated weight gain.
What is the Exceptional good cognitive and phenotypic profile in a male
Exceptional good cognitive and phenotypic profile in a male carrying a mosaic mutation in the FMR1 gene.
What is the main cause of Haemophilus influenzae becoming resistant to beta-l
Haemophilus influenzae has become increasingly resistant to beta-lactam antibiotics. Three major mechanisms, both enzymatic and non-enzymatic, are involved. Enzymatic resistance is mainly due to production of a TEM-1 plasmid-mediated beta-lactamase, and in some cases to a new enzyme ROB-1. Of the non-enzymatic mechanisms, decreased permeability due to alteration of outer membrane proteins seems to be rare in comparison to decreased affinity of penicillin-binding proteins for beta-lactam antibiotics. Enzymatic resistance is present in about 10-20% of clinical isolates, while non-enzymatic resistance is present only in 2-4%.
What was the goal of the American Board of Medical Specialties?
PURPOSE OF REVIEW: Management of arrhythmias is an integral component of care for adults with congenital heart disease (CHD). Our objective was to highlight the important advances from the year 2012 regarding arrhythmias in adult CHD, with a focus on diagnostic considerations, acute management, catheter ablation, and device therapy. RECENT FINDINGS: During the course of 2012, Holter studies suggested that routine screening was helpful in guiding the clinical decisions for certain patient subgroups, such as adults with tetralogy of Fallot. Supportive evidence was provided for the common practice of anticoagulation and/or screening for intracardiac thrombosis by transesophageal echocardiography prior to electrically cardioverting atrial tachyarrhythmias. Advances in catheter ablation, particularly robotic magnetic navigation, offer new hope for patients in whom access to arrhythmia substrates is not feasible by standard means. The subcutaneous defibrillator emerged as an innovative solution of great interest to the patients at risk of sudden death in whom transvenous lead implantation is unachievable or contraindicated. Finally, 2012 ended with a major milestone: the establishment of physician certification in adult CHD by the American Board of Medical Specialties. SUMMARY: The year 2012 witnessed important advances in the diagnosis and management of arrhythmias in adults with CHD.
What is the optimum beam configuration for IMRT?
Intensity-modulated radiotherapy (IMRT) provides better sparing of normal tissue. We evaluated the optimum beam configuration for IMRT based on inverse treatment planning in adjuvant radiotherapy for breast cancer in a case of left-sided tumor. In addition to radiotherapy planning with the conventional technique of tangential wedged 6-MV photon beams and an oblique 15-MeV electron beam, we performed inversely planned IMRT with the step-and-shoot-technique. Dose calculation was carried out using the treatment planning system Virtuos with the inverse optimization module KonRad adapted to it. IMRT plans were generated for 2 to 16 beams. The results were compared with conventional techniques. For a maximum treatment time of 20 minutes, it is shown that IMRT with 12 modulated photon beams and 7 intensity steps is best suited for treatment in the presented case. Compared with a conventional technique with photons combined with electrons, dose conformality and homogeneity of the planning target volume was increased. The mean heart dose was reduced from 9.1 Gy to 6.1 Gy. The volume of heart irradiated with a dose higher than 30 Gy was reduced from 7.6% to 1.9%, and the volume of the left lung from 13.6% to 11.5% as well. Inverse optimization for IMRT with multiple beams is feasible in the adjuvant treatment of breast cancer. Because of the reduction of the high-dose area of a substantial cardiac volume, it is superior to conventional techniques in cases where the parasternal lymph nodes should be integrated into the target volume. Here, a clinical advantage might be detectable.
What is the name of the application of SELDI-MS technology in oncology?
Applications of SELDI-MS technology in oncology.
Preliminary results of the use of Ilizarov fixation in clavicular
Preliminary results of the use of Ilizarov fixation in clavicular non-union.
What is the understanding of cancer clusters?
Understanding cancer clusters.
What cancer must be unresectable?
- The cancer must be unresectable.
What should women of childbearing potential apply during the entire treatment period?
- Pregnancy. N.B: Women of childbearing potential should be strongly advised to apply appropriate contraceptive precautions during the entire treatment period.
What percentage of respondents were included in the mail survey?
OBJECTIVE: This study examined patterns of work and retirement among older pediatricians, including the determinants of part-time work and retirement, as well as extended participation in the pediatrician workforce. METHODS: A mail survey regarding recent and expected workforce participation was distributed to American Academy of Pediatrics members who were aged >or=50 years. A total of 1158 (72%) responded, 1114 (70%) of whom were included in these analyses. Analyses examined levels of engagement in medicine, retirement plans, and differences between men and women and primary care pediatricians and pediatric subspecialists. RESULTS: Providing or planning to provide patient care past age 65 was reported by 45% of the respondents. Engaging in part-time work was increasingly more common with age and may represent a step toward retirement for many. In this sample, women were more likely to work part-time (32% vs 18% of men) and less likely to work past age 65 (26% vs 57% of men). When compared with primary care pediatricians, pediatric subspecialists worked more hours per week (59 vs 53) but spent a smaller percentage of their time on patient care (63% vs 82%). CONCLUSIONS: Part-time work and reduced work hours in anticipation of retirement are options that are used and desired by older pediatricians. Results of this study suggest that making provisions for gradual reduction in work hours or other forms of phasing out of the workforce could benefit the practice of pediatrics by extending the career length of the most experienced pediatricians.
What was the most common aerobic isolate?
In 100 patients undergoing abdominal hysterectomy, a double-blind study was undertaken to evaluate the efficacy of prophylactic tinidazole treatment in diminishing the postoperative infection rate. The patients treated received a single dose of 1,600 mg tinidazole i.v. during 2 h preoperatively. One patient each from the placebo and treatment groups was excluded since the operations was ultimately not hysterectomy. The two groups of women, 49 in each, were comparable with regard to age, previous obstetrical and gynecological history, and reason for hysterectomy. Significant infectious complications (pelvic cellulitis, vaginal cuff abscess, pelvic abscess) were observed in 9 (18.4%) of the 49 placebo patients, but in only 3 (6.1%) of the 49 tinidazole-treated patients. Mild or mode rate wound infections were found in 2 patients of each group (4%). Urinary tract infections were found in 10 placebo (20.4%) and 12 tinidazole-treated patients (24.5%). Among patients developing cuff abscesses, Bacteroides was the most frequently isolated anaerobic genus, B. bivius being the predominant species, while bacteria of enteric origin such as Escherichia coli and Streptococcus faecalis were the most common aerobic isolates. The results of the present study indicate that an intravenous preoperative single-dose tinidazole prophylaxis might reduce the risk of major pelvic infection following hysterectomy, the causative microorganisms usually being a mixture of aerobic and anaerobic bacteria.
What is the utility of high-frequency ultrasound in dermal filler evaluation?
The utility of high-frequency ultrasound in dermal filler evaluation.
What is the name of the ESSENTIAL TREMOR?
EXPERIMENTAL THERAPEUTICS IN ESSENTIAL TREMOR USING TRANSCRANIAL DIRECT CURRENT STIMULATION:
What is the main reason for treatment failure?
Even though potent antiretrovirals are available against human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)-1 infection, therapy fails in a significant fraction of patients. Among the most relevant reasons for treatment failure are drug toxicity and side effects, but also the development of viral resistance towards the drugs applied. Efflux by ATP-binding cassette (ABC-) transporters represents one major mechanism influencing the pharmacokinetics of antiretroviral drugs and particularly their distribution, thus modifiying the concentration within the infected cells, that is, at the site of action. Moreover, drug-drug interactions may occur at the level of these transporters and modulate their activity or expression thus influencing the efficacy and toxicity of the substrate drugs. This review summarizes current knowledge on the interaction of antiretrovirals used for HIV-1 therapy with ABC-transporters and highlights the impact of ABC-transporters for cellular resistance and therapeutic success. Moreover, the suitability of different cell models for studying the interaction of antiretrovirals with ABC-transporters is discussed.
What is the purpose of this study?
The purpose of this study is to see whether it is possible to give 8 doses of a combination of chemotherapy called FOLFIRINOX before surgery in subjects whose pancreas cancer can be removed with surgery.
What is chloroquine used to treat malaria?
A longitudinal trial comparing chloroquine as monotherapy or in combination with artesunate, azithromycin or atovaquone-proguanil to treat malaria.
What is the outcome of patients operated on for unresectable colorectal liver met
Patients operated on for initially unresectable colorectal liver metastases with missing metastases experience a favorable long-term outcome.
What is the classification of newborn infants according to?
[The classification of newborn infants with reference to length of gestation and birth weight].
Inclusion Criteria:
Inclusion Criteria:
Inclusion Criteria:
Inclusion Criteria:
What is the density of duodenal CgA cells reduced in patients with IBS
Background and Aim. Chromogranin A (CgA) is a common marker for endocrine cells. The density of duodenal CgA cells is reduced in patients with irritable bowel syndrome (IBS). Methods. The present study was undertaken to evaluate the density of duodenal CgA as a biomarker for the diagnosis of IBS. Two hundred and three patients with IBS were recruited (180 females and 23 males; mean age, 36 years; range, 18-66 years). The control group comprised 86 healthy subjects without gastrointestinal complaints (77 females and 9 males; mean age, 38 years; range, 18-67 years). Biopsy samples were taken from the duodenum during gastroscopy. Sections from these biopsy samples were immunostained for CgA using the avidin-biotin complex (ABC) method. CgA cell density was quantified by computerized image analysis. Results. The CgA cell density was lower in IBS-total and in all of the IBS subgroups than in the controls. The sensitivity and specificity for a cutoff of <200 cells/mm(2) were 86% and 95%, respectively. Conclusion. The duodenal CgA cell density seems to be a good biomarker for the diagnosis of IBS. It is an inexpensive, simple, and easy-to-use method that does not require sophisticated equipment or considerable experience.
What is the Prevalence of Mutations in the FGFR3 Gene?
Prevalence of Mutations in the FGFR3 Gene in Individuals with Idiopathic Short Stature.
What is the name of the section on indications in preoperative evaluation?
OBJECTIVES: To collect and summarize information published by INAHTA agencies on the indications, habitual attitudes and practices, and economic and legal implications of preoperative evaluation in elective surgeries. METHOD: The authors appraised the information contained in six papers published between 1989 and 1999 in Sweden, France, Basque Country, the Netherlands, United Kingdom, and Catalonia. The section on indications in preoperative evaluation does not present global conclusions. The sections addressing habitual attitudes and practices among physicians and those addressing economic and legal considerations cover only the similarities among the reports and the main ideas relating to these issues. RESULTS: The conclusions found in the reports about indications in preoperative evaluation are similar or differ slightly, e.g., as regards age limits in patients for whom the tests are recommended. However, more important differences are shown in other areas, especially in reports where consensus methods were used. In some instances, the opinions, attitudes, and customary practices of professionals during the preoperative stage do not concur with the recommendations extracted from the assessment reports and the customary practice of doctors. In relation to economic considerations, a substantial quantity of resources could be liberated if the recommended general clinical practices were followed. From the point of view of civil law, the evidence-based recommendations could be considered as a kind of coded lex artis.
What is the name of the NICOTINE PHARMACOKINETICS AND S
A NICOTINE PHARMACOKINETICS AND SMOKING BEHAVIOUR STUDY EXAMINING CIGARETTE INGREDIENTS:
What percentage of reference value after treatment is FEV1?
- FEV1 < 70% of reference value after treatment
What is the effect of antibacterial effects?
Evaluation of antibacterial effects by atmospheric pressure nonequilibrium plasmas against Enterococcus faecalis biofilms in vitro.
What is the standard of the Milan criteria?
Comparison of microwave ablation and surgical resection for treatment of hepatocellular carcinomas conforming to Milan criteria.
What is the RNAPII Ser-2) phosphorylation critical for transcription e
ICP22 is a multifunctional herpes simplex virus 1 (HSV-1) immediate early protein that functions as a general repressor of a subset of cellular and viral promoters in transient expression systems. Although the exact mechanism of repression remains unclear, this protein induces a decrease in RNA polymerase II Serine 2 (RNAPII Ser-2) phosphorylation, which is critical for transcription elongation. To characterize the mechanism of transcriptional repression by ICP22, we established an in vivo transient expression reporter system. We found that ICP22 inhibits transcription of the HSV-1 alpha, beta and gamma gene promoters. The viral tegument protein VP16, which plays vital roles in initiation of viral gene expression and viral proliferation, can overcome the inhibitory effect of ICP22 on alpha-gene transcription. Further immunoprecipitation studies indicated that both ICP22 and VP16 bind to positive transcription elongation factor b (P-TEFb) and form a complex with it in vivo. We extended this to show that P-TEFb regulates transcription of the viral alpha-gene promoters and affects transcriptional regulation of ICP22 and VP16 on the alpha-genes. Additionally, ChIP assays demonstrated that ICP22 blocks the recruitment of P-TEFb to the viral promoters, while VP16 reverses this blocking effect by recruiting P-TEFb to the viral alpha-gene promoters through recognition of the TAATGARAT motif. Taken together, our results suggest that ICP22 interacts with and blocks the recruitment of P-TEFb to viral promoter regions, which inhibits transcription of the viral gene promoters. The transactivator VP16 binds to and induces the recruitment of P-TEFb to viral alpha-gene promoters, which counteracts the transcriptional repression of ICP22 on alpha-genes by recruiting p-TEFb to the promoter region.
What is the aim of the present study?
The aim of the present study is to compare serum nicotine levels of different e-Cigarette strength with usual cigarettes. Serum levels of carcinogenic and toxic substances will be also compared.
What is the QT interval in children and infants receiving cisapride?
QT interval in children and infants receiving cisapride.
What is the soluble isoform?
The Fas signalling system probably plays a critical role in the natural and chemotherapeutic cell death machinery, suggesting that aberrant Fas expression is involved in growth control of tumours. The membrane isoform (mFas) is a 45 kD cell surface protein containing a single transmembrane region, and induces apoptosis in normal or tumour cells, whereas the soluble isoform (sFas) lacks the transmembrane domain due to alternative splicing of the transcript and is thought to block Fas-mediated apoptosis. To clarify the clinical roles of expression of these two Fas isoforms in adult T-cell leukaemia (ATL), we investigated the levels of the Fas isoforms in 81 patients with ATL. The expression patterns of the Fas isoforms were heterogenous, and there was no significant correlation between mFas and sFas levels: 10/81 cases were negative for mFas and had high serum sFas levels, whereas the remaining 71 cases were positive for mFas and had various levels of expression of the two Fas isoforms. Irrespective of the status of mFas expression in leukaemic cells, the mRNAs encoding these isoforms were always detectable, indicating the potential for protein translation. Although mFas expressed on freshly isolated ATL cells could iduce apoptosis in vitro, positive versus negative mFas status was not associated with any clinical aspects of ATL, whereas the sFas level was strongly correlated with clinical parameters such as serum LDH activity, tumour burden, serum soluble IL-2R level, hypercalcaemia and prognosis. These results suggest that the ratio of Fas isoforms varies, and high expression of the sFas protein and message reflects the malignant behaviour of ATL and is an independent risk factor for the prognosis.
What is the name of the disease that caused renal impairment?
- No current clinically significant disease (other than renal impairment), except for stable underlying disease that caused renal impairment, as determined by clinical history and physical examination.
What is the effect of Ling Qi Juan Gan capsule drug-containing serum on PD
[Effects of Ling Qi Juan Gan capsule drug-containing serum on PDGF-induced proliferation and JAK/STAT signaling of HSC-T6 cells].
What is the rare form of myasthenia gravis?
Can a rare form of myasthenia gravis shed additional light on disease mechanisms?
What is the count of a platelet?
- Platelet count >= 100,000/mm^3
What are the issues and basic principles of training physicians of clinical laboratory diagnostics?
[The issues and basic principles of training of physicians of clinical laboratory diagnostics].
- No other concurrent investigational or commercial antineoplastic therapies?
- No other concurrent investigational or commercial antineoplastic therapies
Patients:
Patients:
PROPERTIES PHARMACOLOGICAL PROPERTIES PHARMACOLOG
PHARMACOLOGICAL PROPERTIES
What is the name of the STRAIN OF CHORIOMENINGITIS VIR
CHARACTERISTICS OF A STRAIN OF LYMPHOCYTIC CHORIOMENINGITIS VIRUS ENCOUNTERED AS A CONTAMINANT IN TISSUE CULTURES OF RABIES VIRUS.
- Measurable recurrent or residual primary disease by MRI?
- Measurable recurrent or residual primary disease by MRI
How many patients developed DPPAB?
OBJECTIVE: To investigate the diagnosis and treatment of delayed post-pancreaticoduodenectomy arterial bleeding (DPPAB). METHODS: Records of 336 patients who underwent pancreaticoduodenectomy (PD) between January 2000 and December 2010 were retrospectively analyzed. Detailed data of patients with DPPAB were assessed by a thorough review of medical records. RESULTS: 14 patients developed DPPAB. The mean time interval between the initial surgery and DPPAB was 33 days (range 7-72). Three patients experienced sentinel bleeding 5-8 days before DPPAB. All DPPAB patients had intra-abdominal septic complications before bleeding. The overall prevalence of success of angiography and transcatheter arterial embolization (TAE) was 85.7% (12/14), including 3 patients who achieved complete hemostasis by TAE after unsuccessful re-laparotomy. The prevalence of mortality of DPPAB was 28.6% (4/14). After hemostasis was achieved, intra-abdominal septic complications were controlled by percutaneous catheter drainage or re-laparotomy with drain replacement. CONCLUSION: Angiography and TAE are recommended as the first-line diagnostic and treatment choice for DPPAB, respectively. Surgical intervention should be preserved to eliminate the cause of bleeding.
What is the effect of the Monte Carlo codes on surface dose calculation?
An evaluation of calculation parameters in the EGSnrc/BEAMnrc Monte Carlo codes and their effect on surface dose calculation.
How long will the questionnaire take?
Data will be collected at 12, 26, and 52 weeks from both participants and their treating surgeons. Participants will receive a survey in the mail, and then be contacted over the phone to attain their answers. On each occasion they will be asked whether they have had any further procedures on their leg, and if so at which hospital and by whom. At three months they will also be asked about their average use of the device, whether they are seeing their surgeon in private rooms or a hospital clinic and of their insurance status. That is, are they being treated under medicare, private health insurance, workers compensation, or third party insurance. They will be asked if they have managed to return to work, and to complete the Lower Extremity Functional Score as well as the Short Form-36 (a general health survey). The phone questionnaire is expected to take 15-30 minutes each time.
What is the MMP family that degrades the extracellular matrix?
INTRODUCTION: Matrix metalloproteinase (MMP)-3 is a member of the MMP family that degrades the extracellular matrix. Application of MMP-3 to injured pulp tissue induces angiogenesis and wound healing, but its anti-inflammatory effects are still unclear. Here, we evaluated the anti-inflammatory functions of MMP-3 in vitro and in vivo. METHODS: Nitric oxide and inflammatory mediator synthesis in macrophages activated by lipopolysaccharide (LPS) was measured in the presence or absence of MMP-3. The mouse Mmp3 (mMmp3) expression vector containing full length cDNA sequence of mMmp3 or cDNA sequence of mMmp3 missing the signal peptide and pro-peptide regions was transfected to RAW264, a mouse macrophage cell line, and NO synthesis and inflammatory mediator expression were evaluated. Pulpal inflammation was histologically and immunohistochemically evaluated in a rat model of incisor pulpitis induced by the application of LPS for 9 hours in the presence or absence of MMP-3. RESULTS: NO and pro-inflammatory mediator synthesis promoted by LPS was significantly down-regulated by MMP-3 in vitro. The full length of mMmp3 down-regulated the LPS-induced NO synthesis and chemical mediator mRNA expression, however the mMmp3 missing the signal peptide failed to block the NO synthesis induced by LPS. The numbers of major histocompatibility complex class II+ and CD68+ cells, which infiltrated into the rat incisor pulp tissues in response to the topical application of LPS, were significantly decreased by the application of MMP-3 in vivo. CONCLUSIONS: These results indicate that MMP-3 possesses anti-inflammatory functions, suggesting its potential utility as an anti-inflammatory agent for pulpal inflammation.
What is the term for BBTs?
TPE provides contact between the care providers and patients. TPE has been extensively studied in the management of anxiety, stress, and pain for chronic lower back pain. It is thought that in chronic diseases, TPE should be adapted to the needs of patients and caregivers. BBTs were identified as "grade A" evidence in the American Consortium of Evidence Based Headache Guidelines. It has been proposed that BBT based on educational approaches be used to manage migraines.
What is the standard score for diagnostic tests?
Assessing diagnostic tests by a strictly proper scoring rule.
What inhibitor did c-MET inhibitors do?
- No prior treatment with a c-MET inhibitor
- free of active ocular or systemic disease - free of what type of
- free of active ocular or systemic disease
What is the target flow rate for patients?
At least fifty (50) consecutive subjects meeting the eligibility criteria, scheduled for angiographic assessment (with a view to PTA if necessary), will be invited to participate in the study. Subjects who consent will undergo their procedure, which will be performed by a qualified interventional radiology doctor (IRD). Patients will be randomly allocated to each group. All previous Transonics measurements will be available to the treating IRD. A target flow rate will be pre-decided in all patients in consultation with the nephrology service.
What was the magnitude of airflow limitation during the late phase response to inhaled allergen
The mechanism(s) leading to the development of late phase allergic reactions is (are) unknown. Previous studies have indicated that a relationship between serum IgE and the late phase exists. To explore the relationships between allergen-specific immunoglobulins in bronchoalveolar lavage (BAL) fluids and the magnitude of airflow limitation during the late phase response to inhaled allergen. Ragweed-specific IgE, IgA, secretory IgA (sIgA) and IgG were measured in BAL fluid and in the serum 1-5 weeks before whole lung antigen challenge with ragweed extract, in 16 ragweed allergic asthmatics. In addition, BAL and serum eosinophil cationic protein (ECP) and BAL fibrinogen levels were determined and BAL cells counted and differentiated. The latter procedures were repeated in a second BAL performed 24 h after the end of the ragweed challenge. After the challenge, lung function was monitored hourly for 8 h, to record the magnitude of airflow limitation. Ragweed-specific immunoglobulins were detected in 25% to 37.5% of BAL samples. Compared to the subjects with undetectable BAL fluid ragweed-specific IgE levels at baseline, those with detectable antibodies had stronger late phase reactions as determined by the nadir of FEV1 between hours 4 and 8 after the ragweed inhalation challenge (P = 0.0007). Allergen-induced changes in BAL ECP and fibrinogen levels were also higher in those subjects with detectable ragweed-specific IgE in baseline fluids (P = 0.03 and P = 0.005, respectively). Significant relationships between BAL antigen-specific IgA, serum ragweed-specific IgE and IgA and the late phase reaction were also found. The results of this study point towards the possibility that allergen-specific IgE and IgA may be independently involved in the pathogenesis of the late phase reaction. This notion merits further exploration.
What is the problem with therapy-compliance?
- poor therapy-compliance
What is the name of the esophagus that is induced by duo
INTRODUCTION: Barrett's esophagus and adenocarcinoma of the esophagus are related to long-standing duodeno-gastroesophageal reflux. The development of an animal model in which Barrett's esophagus and/or carcinoma is induced by duodeno-(gastro-)esophageal reflux could provide better understanding of the pathogenesis of the metaplasia-dysplasia-carcinoma sequence and would create the possibility of investigating new treatment strategies for this aggressive disease. MATERIALS AND METHODS: Two rat models were analyzed. In the first experiment, 44 male Sprague Dawley rats underwent end-to-side esophagojejunostomy with gastric resection, to ensure duodenoesophageal reflux without gastric acid. In the second experiment a side-to-side esophago-gastrojejunostomy was performed in 30 rats, ensuring duodeno-gastroesophageal reflux. In both experiments animals were not exposed to any exogenous carcinogens during the experiment. Sequential morphological changes (i.e., esophagitis, intestinal metaplasia, dysplasia, and carcinoma) were studied after 4, 6, and 12 months. To analyze histopathologic characteristics, evaluation of the hematoxylin and eosin specimens was combined with immunohistochemical stainings for high-iron diamine-alcian blue, alcian blue/periodic acid-Schiff, the proliferation marker PCNA, and mutations in the tumor suppressor gene p53. RESULTS: In the first experiment, only 11 animals survived the postoperative period. These animals had to be sacrificed at a median of 11 weeks due to persistent weight loss and failure to thrive. Severe ulcerative esophagitis was seen in all animals, with a 2-mm segment of metaplastic epithelium found at the anastomosis. In four animals a large, well-differentiated, mucinous tumor without malignant characteristics was observed. In the second experiment, eight animals died postoperatively. Twelve animals were sacrificed according to protocol at 4 or 6 months. In these animals, extensive esophagitis with squamous cell hyperplasia was found. In addition, a short (2 mm) segment of metaplastic epithelium was observed, without dysplasia. The remaining animals survived 1 year. After 1 year, 9 of the 10 animals had developed a glandular metaplastic segment (median length, 10 mm), which was histologically and immunohistologically characteristic for the specialized columnar epithelium of Barrett's esophagus without signs of dysplasia. Finally, in seven animals a mucinous tumor with cytologic characteristics of a well-differentiated mucinous adenocarcinoma was found without infiltrative growth. These tumors were always found at the site of the anastomosis, originated in the submucosa, and did not reach either the luminal surface or the muscular layer. The mucinous lesions were not positive for p53, and PCNA was only slightly increased. Although they showed cytological characteristics of malignancy, histopathologic evaluation was more suggestive of a reactive mucous producing lesion fitting the diagnosis "esophagitis cystica profunda." CONCLUSION: This study demonstrates the development of a long Barrett's segment in an animal duodeno-gastroesophageal reflux model. Although mucinous tumors resembling adenocarcinomas develop around the anastomosis, these are probably not reflux induced and are more likely to be reactive lesions. However, the true nature of these tumors remains to be elucidated.
What is the microvessel density at presentation?
Microvessel density at presentation predicts subsequent muscle invasion in superficial bladder cancer.
What is the study of health and health related social problems in the geriatric population in
A study of health and health related social problems in the geriatric population in a rural area of Tamil Nadu.
What is the goal attainment of LDL?
Compelling, consistent clinical trial evidence indicates that lipid-lowering therapy reduces the risk of recurrent cardiovascular events and improves survival in patients with coronary heart disease, cerebral vascular disease, peripheral vascular disease, and diabetes. Despite this evidence and the national clinical guidelines recommending lipid-lowering treatment and low-density lipoprotein (LDL) goal attainment in patients with clinically evident atherosclerotic vascular disease or similar risk, study after study has documented low treatment rates. Furthermore, a large proportion of high-risk patients have not achieved LDL goals, thereby creating a clinical practice and public health dilemma. This article features a tool to guide the initiation and optimization of LDL-lowering therapy and a program to improve long-term treatment rates, LDL goal attainment, and clinical outcomes.
What is the purpose of this research study?
The investigators' believe that it is important to medical practice to obtain information on how expandable metal stents work in a large group of patients who have metal stents placed in the gastrointestinal system. The purpose of this research study is to collect information on the stent placement in our facility and how the patients responded to the stent placement.
What is the name of the group that is used for randomization?
1. Soft tissue sarcoma of adults, primary or locally recurrent, with spindle-cell or pleomorphic histology, belonging to one of the following for the randomization (Group1):
What was one single diagnosis?
One single diagnosis, bodily distress syndrome, succeeded to capture 10 diagnostic categories of functional somatic syndromes and somatoform disorders.
What is the name of the inpatients or outpatients?
- inpatients or outpatients
What is the name of the study that focuses on the detection of Cushing's disease
Serendipitous detection of Cushing's disease by FDG positron emission tomography and a review of the literature.
How old is BMI?
- 18-60 years old, ASA physical status I or II, BMI<30
What is the main cause of RES?
Resveratrol (RES), a natural plant polyphenol, is an effective inducer of cell cycle arrest and apoptosis in a variety of carcinoma cell types. In addition, RES has been reported to inhibit tumorigenesis in several animal models suggesting that it functions as a chemopreventive and anti-tumor agent in vivo. The chemopreventive and chemotherapeutic properties associated with resveratrol offer promise for the design of new chemotherapeutic agents. However, the mechanisms by which RES mediates its effects are not yet fully understood. In this study, we showed that RES caused cell cycle arrest and proliferation inhibition via induction of unfolded protein response (UPR) in human leukemia K562 cell line. Treatment of K562 cells with RES induced a number of signature UPR markers, including transcriptional induction of GRP78 and CHOP, phosphorylation of eukaryotic initiation factor 2alpha (eIF2alpha), ER stress-specific XBP-1 splicing, suggesting the induction of UPR by RES. RES inhibited proliferation of K562 in a concentration-dependent manner. Flow cytometric analyses revealed that K562 cells were arrested in G1 phase upon RES treatment. Salubrinal, an eIF2alpha inhibitor, or overexpression of dominant negative mutants of PERK or eIF2alpha, effectively restored RES-induced cell cycle arrest, underscoring the important role of PERK/eIF2alpha branch of UPR in RES-induced inhibition of cell proliferation.
What is the name of the cell that is regenerative medicine?
Stem cell and regenerative medicine.
What is the peak inspiratory flow measured?
- Demonstrated peak inspiratory flow with respiratory testing through the mouth of at least 0.4 L/sec
What is Avemar?
Many healthy foods are derived from wheat germ. The molecular composition of these products, however, greatly differs as shown by normal-phase HPLC-mass spectrometry analysis; thus, experimental data obtained by one of them is not necessarily true for the other. Avemar is a nontoxic wheat germ extract registered as a special nutriment for cancer patients in Hungary. It shows potent anticancer activity on cell lines by deeply interfering with glucose metabolism and affecting expressions of several kinases. In in vivo experimental models, Avemar is also effective by enhancing the activity of the immune system such as stimulating NK cell activity (by reducing MHC I molecule expression), enhancing TNF secretion of the macrophages, increasing ICAM 1 molecule expression on the vascular endothelial cells. All of these lead to apoptosis of tumor cells. The wide range of biological activity of Avemar probably cannot be explained by only one active ingredient. Since there are numerous experimental data and the clinical benefit repeatedly confirmed Avemar can be one of the most potent and best researched food supplements available for cancer patients.
What is the medically stable over the last month?
- Medically stable over the last month, and psychiatrically stable without significant symptom exacerbation over the last three months based on the investigator's judgment
What is the name of the subject that is considered to be a subject that meets any of
Potential subjects meeting any of the following criteria will be excluded from enrollment and subsequent randomization.
What was the MIS group with higher levels of schizotypal, schizo
While social anhedonia is a promising indicator of vulnerability to schizophrenia, it remains uncertain whether anhedonia is a core feature of schizotypy or merely a secondary associated characteristic. This issue was examined by comparing dimensional scores on schizophrenia spectrum personality disorder symptoms derived from clinical interviews among three groups: a) "pure" social anhedonics with high scores on the Revised Social Anhedonia Scale (SAS; [Eckblad, M.L., Chapman, L.J., Chapman, J.P., Mishlove, M., 1982. The Revised Social Anhedonia Scale. Unpublished test, University of Wisconsin, Madison.]) and low scores on the Magical Ideation Scale (MIS, [Eckblad, M.L., Chapman, L.J., 1983. Magical ideation as an indicator of schizotypy. Journal of Consulting and Clinical Psychology, 51, 215-225.]), b) subjects with high MIS and low SAS scores, and c) controls with low scores on both scales. This study also sought to identify individual differences in stress reactivity, personality, coping style, and social support that might be related to severity of clinical symptoms among at-risk subjects. Compared to controls, the SAS group had higher levels of schizotypal, schizoid, and paranoid symptoms and the MIS group had higher schizotypal symptoms. Among social anhedonics, individual differences in perceived stress, trait negative affectivity, and coping style accounted for over 40% of the variance in schizotypal and paranoid symptoms. This cross-sectional study bolsters support for the validity of social anhedonia as a primary feature of schizotypy. Longitudinal studies are required to determine whether these individual differences potentiate clinical outcomes among social anhedonics.
What is the primary yolk sac tumor in the spinal cord?
Primary yolk sac tumor in the spinal cord.