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What is the first dose of anaphylactic reaction/ shock? | anaphylactic reaction/ shock) even with the first dose, with the following symptoms: tightness in the chest, feeling dizzy, feeling sick or faint, or experience dizziness on standing. |
- Presence of sensory loss or communication difficulty (including inadequate command of English) sufficient to | - Presence of sensory loss or communication difficulty (including inadequate command of English) sufficient to interfere with the assessments. |
What is the name of the study of 894 criminal defendants referred by Virginia courts? | This article presents the results of a study of 894 criminal defendants referred by Virginia courts for evaluation of competency to stand trial or criminal responsibility. All evaluations were conducted on an outpatient basis by mental health professionals who had received specialized training in forensic evaluation. Findings as to the referral questions posed, the criminal offenses charged, and the clinical diagnoses and psycholegal opinions offered by the evaluators are described. Statistical analyses demonstrate significant relationships between both diagnosis and criminal charge and the psycholegal opinion rendered. |
What is the biochemical basis of lipoproteins? | Acute effects of high-density lipoproteins: biochemical basis and clinical findings. |
What is the first step in the early induction of apoptosis in and | Early induction of apoptosis in androgen-independent prostate cancer cell line by FTY720 requires caspase-3 activation. |
- platelets >90,000/uL/uL? | - platelets >90,000/uL |
Inclusion criteria: | Inclusion criteria: |
What is indicated for treatment of chronic respiratory infections caused by sensitive strains of Escherichi | Dicural oral solution is indicated for treatment of chronic respiratory infections caused by sensitive strains of Escherichia coli and Mycoplasma gallisepticum. |
How many cases were seroconverted? | To investigate whether predictors of AIDS progression are operative very early in the natural history of HIV infection, we conducted a nested case-control study within a cohort of 119 subjects who seroconverted while under observation in a prospective study of homosexual men. For each of the 18 cases who have progressed to AIDS, we randomly selected three controls who had seroconverted within 3 months of the case but who have remained AIDS-free. Cases and controls were compared with regard to laboratory and clinical parameters obtained at the time of the earliest HIV-positive result. The median duration between the estimated date of seroconversion and this first positive result was 4 months for cases and 6 months for controls. Cases exhibited lower CD4 counts (657 versus 774 x 10(6)/l; P = 0.037), lower CD4: CD8 ratios (0.98 versus 1.39; P = 0.003), higher immune complex levels (C1q binding: 25 versus 15%; P = 0.002), lower hemaglobin concentrations (14.8 versus 15.2 g/l; P = 0.011), higher immunoglobulin (Ig) A levels (272 versus 184 mg/dl; P = 0.003), and higher IgG levels (1530 versus 1300 mg/dl; P = 0.037) than controls. Cases exhibited higher CD8 counts of marginal statistical significance (732 versus 597 x 10(6)/l; P = 0.059). No differences were observed with respect to IgM levels, total lymphocyte or white blood cell counts, or the frequency of generalized lymphadenopathy. A total of 27.8% of cases but only 11.5% of controls reported one or more symptoms during the 6-month period preceding the first positive visit (P = 0.027). We conclude that laboratory and clinical abnormalities which are predictive of more rapid progression to AIDS may appear very early in HIV infection. This suggests that some of the factors responsible for more rapid disease progression are present in the host prior to or shortly after infection occurs. |
What is the result of a generalised bone loss? | The three-dimensional architecture of trabecular bone has structural trends related to physical function as described by Wolff's law. Mathematical modelling provides a means of analysing these structures through the use of simplified representations. A single measure of mineralized bone volume per unit volume of structure (Vv) and the surface area of mineralized bone per unit volume of structure (Sv) does not identify a particular architecture in any detail; the way in which Sv changes in relation to Vv does provide this information as the structure remodels. A series of structures using the elements of plates and rods were created. The rates of change of Sv with respect to Vv for trabecular structures give insight into differences in such models. Structures in the femoral head and iliac crest were analysed by power curve regression. In the principal compressive region, just above the medial cortex, advanced osteoarthritis was associated with a preferential loss of rods from the normal trabecular structure, resulting in a more plate-like architecture. The iliac crest remodelling that takes place in the osteoporotic appears to be the result of a generalised bone loss with some of the thinner elements of the structure being removed completely, resulting in an increase in unit cell dimension. The consequence of changing unit cell size has a major impact on surface availability for osteoblastic and osteoclastic activity. The simple plate model as a basis for the stereological analysis of trabecular structures is therefore limited because of the mixed plate and rod nature of trabecular architecture. |
What is the basic protein peptide 69-89? | Human myelin basic protein peptide 69-89: immunochemical features and use in immunoassays of cerebrospinal fluid. |
What was the most common antibiotic resistance in a ward? | Over a one-year period, all coagulase-negative staphylococci (CoNS) from blood cultures, cerebrospinal fluids and peritoneal effluents from patients in a major Danish university hospital were investigated for susceptibility to penicillin G; methicillin; gentamicin; netilmicin; amikacin; erythromycin; clindamycin; fusidic acid; rifampicin; tetracycline; chloramphenicol; ciprofloxacin; teicoplanin; and vancomycin. Among the CoNS-isolates, 56% were resistant to methicillin, 51% to gentamicin, 28% to ciprofloxacin, and 5% to teicoplanin. Blood culture CoNS-isolates from patients with a central venous catheter (CVC) were more often resistant to various antibiotics compared to CoNS-isolates from patients without a CVC, e.g. methicillin (72% vs 21%), gentamicin (65% vs 22%) (p<0.00000001). Great diversity in antibiotic resistance between the wards was found; methicillin resistance (in most cases multiple antibiotic resistance) was in particular associated with consumption of broad-spectrum beta-lactams, quinolones, and total antibiotic consumption in a ward. Thus, the antibiotic policy of a ward is an important factor for antibiotic resistance among CoNS. |
What is corneal disease? | - Acute or inflammatory corneal disease |
What is the blood pressure raised? | - raised blood pressure which may require treatment with medicinal products or adjustment of the |
What was the last updated summary of this summary? | This summary was last updated in August 2008. |
What is the name of the enzyme immunoassay for human oxidatively modified low | Simple and practical sandwich-type enzyme immunoassay for human oxidatively modified low density lipoprotein using antioxidized phosphatidylcholine monoclonal antibody and antihuman apolipoprotein-B antibody. |
What is the effect of indapamide and various diuretics alone or combined with | Effects of indapamide and various diuretics alone or combined with beta-blockers on serum lipoproteins. |
What is the name of the subject with cancer? | 7. Subjects with cancer (except basal cell carcinoma) or history of cancer in the last 5 years (except treated basal cell carcinoma). |
What is the PTH action on MG63 osteoblast-like cells? | Comparison between mevinolin and PTH action on MG63 osteoblast-like cells. |
What are the socio-economic determinants and inequities in coverage and timelines | Socio-economic determinants and inequities in coverage and timeliness of early childhood immunisation in rural Ghana. |
What is the current controversy? | Guidelines and policies for medical writers in the biotech industry: an update on the controversy. |
What is the effect of nondepolarizing skeletal muscle relaxants? | Nondepolarizing skeletal muscle relaxants (e. g. tubocurarine): the effect of nondepolarizing skeletal muscle relaxants may be potentiated by hydrochlorothiazide; |
How many cases of invasive pulmonary aspergillosis were retrospectively reviewed? | PURPOSE: To review the early CT findings of invasive aspergillosis in AIDS patients who are at high risk for developing this infection. Early recognition of invasive fungal disease is imperative in these patients, and longer survival can be achieved with early CT detection and prompt institution of high-dose antifungal therapy. MATERIAL AND METHODS: February, 1992 to December, 1994, sixteen cases of invasive pulmonary aspergillosis in AIDS patients were retrospectively reviewed. All patients underwent a chest radiograph and high-resolution Computed Tomography (HRCT) and the results were confirmed by pathology. RESULTS: 11/16 cases (68.8%) showed angioinvasive aspergillosis, characterized by nodules surrounded by the halo sign and cavitations; the remaining 5 patients (31.2%) showed invasive aspergillosis of the airways with centrilobular nodules and/or peribronchial consolidations. Five cases of extrapulmonary fungal dissemination were also observed. CONCLUSIONS: HRCT is a sensitive noninvasive method for evaluating early angioinvasive aspergillosis because the halo sign is characteristic enough to allow an early presumptive diagnosis. Invasive aspergillosis of the airways presents no characteristic radiologic pattern. However, the association of the clinical and radiologic pattern allows prompt institution of high-dose antifungal therapy. |
What is the name of the system that can accurately capture lumen pressure from a subm | This letter describes the design, fabrication, and testing of a wireless bladder-pressure-sensing system for chronic, point-of-care applications, such as urodynamics or closed-loop neuromodulation. The system consists of a miniature implantable device and an external RF receiver and wireless battery charger. The implant is small enough to be cystoscopically implanted within the bladder wall, where it is securely held and shielded from the urine stream. The implant consists of a custom application-specific integrated circuit (ASIC), a pressure transducer, a rechargeable battery, and wireless telemetry and recharging antennas. The ASIC includes instrumentation, wireless transmission, and power-management circuitry, and on an average draws less than 9 muA from the 3.6-V battery. The battery charge can be wirelessly replenished with daily 6-h recharge periods that can occur during the periods of sleep. Acute in vivo evaluation of the pressure-sensing system in canine models has demonstrated that the system can accurately capture lumen pressure from a submucosal implant location. |
What is the clinically significant abnormality detected on physical examination? | - Any clinically significant abnormality detected on physical examination, including: |
How many men must be between 18 and 65 years of age? | This study will include 30 men with alcohol dependence and 50 men without alcohol dependence. All of the men must be between 18 and 65 years of age. Participants in both groups must not have any medical conditions that will prevent them from undergoing PET or MRI scans. |
What is the main reason women of childbearing age must use reliable birth control? | - Women of childbearing age must use reliable birth control (i.e. oral contraceptives) while participating in the study. |
What is the value of physical fitness in preventive medicine? | The value of physical fitness in preventive medicine. |
Elimination of the Elimination of the Elimination of the Elimination of the Elimination of | Elimination |
What is the exclusion criteria? | Exclusion Criteria: |
What is the name of the patients with known allergic reaction or intolerance to NSAID | - Patients with known allergic reaction or intolerance to NSAIDs (nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs) |
How many instruments will the data for the study be collected? | Instrument. The data for the study will be collected utilizing three adapted instrument from previous study and the permission to use the questionnaire will be obtained through email. |
Early stage squamous cell carcinoma of the pyriform sinus: a | Early stage squamous cell carcinoma of the pyriform sinus: a review of treatment options. |
What is the primary objective of the new EUS histology needle? | Primary Objective To compare the diagnostic accuracy of new EUS histology needle (19G, ProCore, Cook Medical Inc., Winston-Salem, NC) with the conventional histology needle (19G, Quick-Core, Cook Medical Inc., Winston-Salem, NC) |
Inclusion Criteria: | Inclusion Criteria: |
Ongoing clinical trials in systemic hypertension. | Ongoing clinical trials in systemic hypertension. |
Epidermolysis bullosa simplex. | Epidermolysis bullosa simplex. |
What is the main benefit of controlled drug delivery systems? | The two main advantages of controlled drug delivery systems are: maintenance of therapeutically optimum drug concentrations in the plasma through zero-order release without significant fluctuations; and elimination of the need for frequent single dose administrations. The oral and other therapeutic systems in human use have validated the concept that controlled continuous drug release can minimize the daily dose of a drug required to maintain the required therapeutic effect, while minimizing unwanted pharmacological effects. By minimizing patient intervention, a design feature of therapeutic systems, compliance is automatically enhanced. Oral drug delivery systems, in particular, have required innovation in materials science to provide materials biocompatible during prolonged contact with body tissues, bioengineering to develop drug delivery modules, and clinical pharmacology for elucidation of drug action under conditions of continuous controlled drug administration. Recent work in advanced oral delivery has been primarily focused on liposome technology and the concept that substances that are normally destroyed by the stomach can be protected long enough before they could be absorbed downstream. For cost and patient convenience, oral delivery certainly would be an attractive method. The nature of biologic substances, however, with their unique technical problems, will probably limit greatly those that can be delivered orally. Besides, where delivery rate control is critical, oral delivery, even when possible, would probably be insufficiently precise. Oral delivery would also limit the substance to bloodstream delivery to the disease site. Even so, oral controlled drug delivery systems will likely find primary usefulness in specific carefully controlled therapies and prophylactic situations with due regard for drug interactions. This system represents a potentially very significant therapeutic modality. These delivery systems will find usefulness primarily in certain well-defined and well-controllable areas with due regard for individual patient variations. The purpose of the present article is to review oral controlled-release drug delivery systems, with particular emphasis on the practical aspects of testing and fabricating these systems and the underlying mechanisms by which control over drug release rate is accomplished. |
How many gravid proglottides were obtained from a patient in Chieng | Twenty-five gravid proglottides of a Thailand Taenia were obtained from a patient in Chiengmai, Thailand, and brought to our laboratory. The tapeworm was determined to be T. saginata-like by counting uterine branches (mean number 16, range 12-19 on each side). The eggs from these proglottides remained infective under storage at room temperature for 14 days followed by refrigeration (4-8 degrees C) for 131 days. Eight Small-Ear-Miniature pigs and two Holstein calves were each fed with 3000 eggs and sacrificed 12-76 days afterwards. Six pigs became infected and 16 cysticerci were recovered from the livers. Thirteen degenerated/calcified cysticerci were also recovered from the livers of the two calves. More cysticerci were found in the liver parenchyma (55%) than on the liver surface (45%) of the infected animals. Measurements of length, width, diameters of protoscolex, rostellum and sucker and hooklet pattern show that Thailand Taenia is similar to Taenia from Taiwan, Korea and Indonesia but different from T. saginata and T. solium. These findings indicate that Thailand Taenia, Taiwan Taenia, Korea Taenia, and Indonesia Taenia may be of the same species or sub-species. |
What are the alternatives to arthroplasty in young patients? | [Indications and alternatives for arthroplasty in young patients]. |
Upon receiving a transplant, what organ transplant is a recipient of? | 7. Recipient of any organ transplant |
How many ml of water does 120 ml of water? | 120 ml |
What is the ANP fragment? | Plasma atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP) fragments proANP (1-30) and proANP (31-67) measurements in chronic heart failure: a useful index for heart transplantation? |
Infection of the upper respiratory tract or influenza infection or influenza infection? | Upper respiratory tract infection or influenza |
What is a prospective trial? | Non-invasive positive pressure ventilation for the treatment of severe stable chronic obstructive pulmonary disease: a prospective, multicentre, randomised, controlled clinical trial. |
What is the name of the other SPECIAL WARNING(S)? | OTHER SPECIAL WARNING(S), IF NECESSARY |
What is the STEP-BD Community Partners Experience? | Increasing minority research participation through collaboration with community outpatient clinics: the STEP-BD Community Partners Experience. |
What is lumbar scoliosis defined as? | - Spinal deformity defined as lumbar scoliosis with a Cobb angle of the lumbar spine greater than 15 degrees |
What was the inversely associated with high Gleason grade disease? | BACKGROUND: Higher consumption of coffee intake has recently been linked with reduced risk of aggressive prostate cancer (PC) incidence, although meta-analysis of other studies that examine the association between coffee consumption and overall PC risk remains inconclusive. Only one recent study investigated the association between coffee intake and grade-specific incidence of PC, further evidence is required to understand the aetiology of aggressive PCs. Therefore, we conducted a prospective study to examine the relationship between coffee intake and overall as well as grade-specific PC risk. METHODS: We conducted a prospective cohort study of 6017 men who were enrolled in the Collaborative cohort study in the UK between 1970 and 1973 and followed up to 31st December 2007. Cox Proportional Hazards Models were used to evaluate the association between coffee consumption and overall, as well as Gleason grade-specific, PC incidence. RESULTS: Higher coffee consumption was inversely associated with risk of high grade but not with overall risk of PC. Men consuming 3 or more cups of coffee per day experienced 55% lower risk of high Gleason grade disease compared with non-coffee drinkers in analysis adjusted for age and social class (HR 0.45, 95% CI 0.23-0.90, p value for trend 0.01). This association changed a little after additional adjustment for Body Mass Index, smoking, cholesterol level, systolic blood pressure, tea intake and alcohol consumption. CONCLUSION: Coffee consumption reduces the risk of aggressive PC but not the overall risk. |
What is the immunoblot detection of? | [Immuno-blot detection of hemangiopoietin in the human fetal liver]. |
What was the cause of the rupture of the liver? | [Malignant liver hemangiopericytoma ruptured after an abdominal traumatism]. |
How many patients were eligible for inclusion? | BACKGROUND: Knee and hip OA is the clinical and pathological outcome of a functional and structural failure of the joint, resulting in pain and physical dysfunction. Despite the similarity in clinical presentation the pathogenesis seems to differ. Where knee OA is associated with obesity and trauma, hip OA is associated with FAI covering three fundamentally different hip deformities, including acetabular dysplasia; all hypothesized to initiates OA development. Where PAO is used worldwide as a joint-preserving procedure in acetabular dysplasia, TKA and THA are the treatment of choice of end stage OA. Traditional main outcomes are clinically objective surgeon-reported endpoints. Patient perceived outcomes are known to differ from these and PROMs are now recommended as the core set of outcomes. When evaluating the outcome in younger patients, this high demanding group can show ceiling-effects of the scores. The overall aim of this thesis was to investigate the consequences of PAO, TKA, and THA in younger patients evaluated by alternative outcomes in relation to satisfaction, fulfillment of expectations, symptoms of depression, the socioeconomic effects, and abilities in sex-life; to improve patient information prior to PAO, TKA and THA surgery. MATERIAL AND METHODS: This PhD thesis is based on three studies. Study I is a cross-sectional survey of preserved hip joints with a mean follow-up of ten years after PAO. One hundred patients (121 PAO's) were eligible for inclusion. An inquiry to the National Patient registry identified 36 of PAO's (in 35 patients) being converted to THA. The 61 remaining patients (80 preserved hip joints) were asked to participate in this questionnaire based follow-up. Fifty-five patients (70 preserved hip-joints) accepted and constituted the study population. All patients received a questionnaire concerning aspects of functional ability, patient satisfaction, expectations, and quality of life following PAO. Both Study II and Study III are prospective multicenter cohort studies. Consecutive patients less than 60 years of age scheduled for (study II) unilateral or bilateral simultaneous primary TKA or (study III) scheduled for unilateral or bilateral simultaneous primary THA or HR were eligible for inclusion. Study II consisted of 115 primary TKA patients; 103 unilateral and 12 simultaneous, and Study III consisted of 136 primary THA patients; 86 unilateral THA, six simultaneous bilateral THA, and 44 HR. The study groups received a paper-format questionnaire within one month before surgery and at three, six, and 12 months postoperatively. RESULTS: Study I showed a high willingness to undergo PAO again with the experience and knowledge they have today and improvements were seen in all quality of life parameters except for ability in sex-life for males. Study II showed significantly improvements in joint function and HRQoL. Satisfaction and fulfillment of expectations do, however, not fully mirror the observed significant improvements in knee function and HRQoL. Patients with a depression preoperatively experience an inferior result evaluated by OKS and SF-36 PCS and MCS, but not concerning satisfaction, work-life, income or sex-life. In general TKA surgery in younger patients cannot be expected to change relation to work or annual income. Patients stay sexually active after TKA, but a decrease in frequency and a negative affection of sexual practice should be expected. Study III showed significantly improvements in joint function and HRQoL and a high degree of satisfaction and fulfillment of expectations. Only patients with major complications were not willing to repeat. THA surgery in younger patients cannot be expected to change the patient's relation to work or annual income. Patients stay sexually active after THA, and female patients experiences positive changes. CONCLUSION: Based on the findings in this thesis PAO patients are satisfied with the outcome at medium to long-term follow-up, and lasting improvements is seen in the patients' sex life, ability to do sports, and social life. TKA and THA are reliable surgical procedures in younger patients. In addition to significantly improving joint function and HRQoL, patients' stay employed and sexually active postoperatively. However, a decrease in frequency of sexual activities and negative affection of sexual practice patterns should be anticipated following TKA surgery, THA surgery have a positive influence on female THA patients sex-life. |
What is the name of the IgE responses in human filariasis? | IgE responses in human filariasis. I. Quantitation of filaria-specific IgE. |
What is the exclusion criteria? | Exclusion Criteria: |
Test Group 2: | Test Group 2: |
What was the name of the progression after radical prostatectomy for men in their t | Progression after radical prostatectomy for men in their thirties compared to older men. |
What is the effect of low-dose prednisone on calcium and bone metabolism in | Effect of low-dose prednisone (with calcium and calcitriol supplementation) on calcium and bone metabolism in healthy volunteers. |
What was the effect of two aromatase inhibitors on steroid hormone levels | AIM: The present study was designed to investigate the effects of two aromatase inhibitors on steroid hormone levels, bone mineral density (BMD) and bone turnover markers in intact female rats. METHODS: Letrozole and anastrazole at two different dose levels were investigated for their effect on serum levels of estradiol, androstenedione, testosterone, dehydroepiandrosterone and dehydroepiandrosterone sulfate, BMD of femur and dorsal spine, and osteocalcin and pyridinoline levels as bone turnover markers. Fifty intact female rats were randomly divided in five groups (group 1 (n = 10): control, 2 ml saline; group 2 (n = 10): letrozole 1 mg/kg; group 3 (n = 10): letrozole 2 mg/kg; group 4 (n = 10): anastrazole 0.1 mg/kg; group 5 (n = 10): anastrazole 0.2 mg/kg, and oral gavages were applied for a period of 16 weeks. RESULTS: Both doses of letrozole and anastrazole did not change femoral and vertebral BMD. Serum estradiol levels were reduced significantly at all dose levels by both agents (p < 0.001); all androgen levels were significantly elevated by letrozole (p < 0.05), although anastrazole increased only androstenedione (p < 0.05). The higher dose of letrozole increased osteocalcin levels (p < 0.05), while pyridinoline levels were increased (p < 0.05) by the higher dose of anastrazole. CONCLUSION: Our results indicate that short-term use of letrozole and anastrazole had no clear effects on BMD in intact rats. Further investigations are needed to understand their effects on bone metabolism in intact females. |
What was the most common variant of ossification variability in 910 children? | PURPOSE: To determine how the magnetic resonance (MR) signal intensity seen with variability in distal femoral epiphyseal ossification in children varies with (a) age, (b) sex, (c) distribution to the medial or lateral condyles, and (d) residual physeal cartilage. MATERIALS AND METHODS: Ethics committee approval was obtained, and informed patient consent was waived. Two pediatric radiologists retrospectively reviewed the consecutive knee MR imaging studies of 910 children (457 boys, 453 girls; age range, 0.7-16.9 years) for variability in ossification and categorized the variability as preossification center, early ossification center, puzzle piece, incomplete puzzle piece, spiculation, or accessory ossification center. Patient age and sex, ossification variability site, residual physeal cartilage, and associated findings were analyzed. Basic descriptive statistical analysis, Student t tests for comparison of continuous variables, and kappa statistics analysis of interobserver agreement were performed where appropriate. RESULTS: In 202 (22.2%) patients (278 condyles), ossification variability was present. In the 910 patients, early ossification center (n = 172, 18.9%) and spiculated configuration of the secondary ossification center (n = 151, 16.6%) were the most common variants. Preossification center (50 [5.5%] patients), puzzle piece (26 [2.9%] patients), accessory ossification center (nine [1.0%] patients), and incomplete puzzle piece (two [0.2%] patients) were seen less often. Ossification variability was more common in the medial condyles (169 [18.6%] of 910 cases) than in the lateral condyles (109 [12.0%] of 910 cases), nearly always posteriorly located (277 [99.6%] of 278 condyles), and more common in boys (153/457 [33.5%]) than in girls (49/453 [10.8%]). Ossification variability was less common with decreasing residual physeal cartilage. Peak patient age ranges for ossification variability were 2-12 years for boys and 2-10 years for girls. CONCLUSION: Ossification variability in the femoral condyles is common in children and should not be confused with abnormal processes. |
What is the strain of Klebsiella pneumoniae? | Efficacies of piperacillin-tazobactam and cefepime in rats with experimental intra-abdominal abscesses due to an extended-spectrum beta-lactamase-producing strain of Klebsiella pneumoniae. |
What is self-HPV? | The investigators expect to see that Self-HPV may be an accurate method for the follow-up of women with a history of HPV infection. |
What is the ability to understand and understand? | - Ability to understand and willingness to sign written informed consent. |
What is the name of the erythematous rash? | Psoriasis, photosensitivity reaction, maculopapular rash, dermatitis, face or peripheral oedema, erythematous rash, eczema, acne, furunculosis, erythema, urticaria, abnormal hair texture, nail disorder |
What are people who are frail or in doubt? | 1. Individuals who are frail or in questionable health, |
What criteria | Exclusion criteria: |
What is the name of the clinic that is referred for cancer genetic counseling? | - Referred for cancer genetic counseling from any clinic other than the 4 listed above. |
What is the name of the study that focuses on alpha-adrenolytic | Clinical and urodynamic assessment of alpha-adrenolytic therapy in patients with neurogenic bladder function. |
What is the name of the disease that is associated with toxoplasmosis? | Juvenile polyarteritis nodosa associated with toxoplasmosis presenting as Kawasaki disease. |
What is another malignant disease diagnosed within 5 years? | - other malignant disease diagnosed within the previous 5 years, excluding intra-epithelial cervical neoplasia or non-melanoma skin cancer; |
How much does plasma protein binding of irbesartan mean? | Plasma protein binding of irbesartan is approximately 96%, with negligible binding to cellular blood components. |
What is the name of the research publications that are published in Urology? | Urology research publications: lessons learned from a developing country. |
What is the primary indication of fetal therapy? | Fetal therapy may be needed in certain clinical settings with the primary indication to improve perinatal or long-term outcomes for the fetus or the newborn. It can be classified in pharmacotherapy or non-invasive, and invasive therapy. The first one involves the administration of drugs to the mother that cross the placenta and get to the fetus, a non-invasive approach. On the other hand, invasive therapy involves the use of needles, fetoscopic treatments or open fetal surgery. This review provides an update of non-invasive and invasive fetal therapy. |
What is the normal cardiac function assessed by electrocardiograms? | - Normal cardiac function as assessed by electrocardiogram (ECG) and echocardiogram |
What is the N-WASP-dependent pathway that regulates actin comet tail | Abl kinases regulate actin comet tail elongation via an N-WASP-dependent pathway. |
Progressive malignant tumor, suspicious laryngeal lesions (dysplasi | - Progressive malignant tumor, suspicious laryngeal lesions (dysplasia ...) |
What is the name of the HGs? | Morphologically distinct lymphoid cells with homogeneous, condensed chromatin and scant cytoplasm can be observed in large numbers in the bone marrow of children with a variety of hematologic and nonhematologic disorders. In some patients, these cells may account for greater than 50% of the bone marrow cells, creating a picture that can be confused with acute lymphoblastic leukemia (ALL) or metastatic tumor. Although originally called hematogones (HGs), a variety of other names have been proposed for these unique cells. The clinical significance of expanded HGs has not been resolved, and the biologic features of these cells are incompletely described. In this study, we correlate the clinical, morphologic, cytochemical, flow cytometric, molecular, and cytogenetic properties of bone marrow samples from 12 children with substantial numbers of HGs (range 8% to 55% of bone marrow cells). Diagnoses in these patients included anemia, four; neutropenia, one; anemia and neutropenia, one; idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura, two; retinoblastoma, two; Ewing's sarcoma, one; and germ cell tumor, one. Flow cytometric analyses of bone marrow cells demonstrated a spectrum extending from early B-cell precursors (CD10+, CD19+, TdT+, HLA-Dr+) to mature surface immunoglobulin-bearing B cells in these patients, corroborating our morphologic impression of HGs, intermediate forms, and mature lymphocytes. DNA content was normal, and no clonal abnormality was identified by either cytogenetic or immunoglobulin and T-cell receptor (TCR) gene rearrangement studies. Follow-up ranged from 3 months to 3 years. None of the patients has developed acute leukemia or bone marrow involvement by solid tumor. The possible role of HGs in immune recovery and hematopoiesis is presented. |
What was the proapoptotic effect of saikosaponin | In this study, we report the proapoptotic effect of saikosaponin d in two liver cancer cell lines, Hep G2 and Hep 3B cells. Treatment with saikosaponin d decreased the cell proliferation of Hep G2 and Hep 3B cells in a dose dependent manner. In Hep G2, saikosaponin d blocked the progression of cell cycle at G1 phase by inducing p53 expression and further up-regulating p21/WAF1 expression. In addition, an enhancement in Fas/APO-1 and its two form ligands, membrane-bound Fas ligand (mFasL) and soluble Fas ligand (sFasL), as well as Bax protein, was responsible for the apoptotic effect induced by saikosaponin d. Furthermore, saikosaponin d also inhibited the cell survival signaling by enhancing the amount of IkappaBalpha in cytoplasm and reducing the level and activity of NF-kappaB in the nucleus, and subsequently attenuated the expression of Bcl-XL in Hep G2 and Hep 3B cells. Saikosaponin d therefore decreased the cell proliferation and inducted apoptosis both in p53-positive Hep G2 and p53-negative Hep 3B cells. |
What is the distance between the gingival margin and the bottom of the gingival | 3. Clinical Probing Depth (CPD) - Distance in millimeters from the gingival margin to the bottom of the gingival sulcus at three points (mesial, center and distal); |
How many subjects were excluded from the study? | The high prevalence of psychoactive substance abuse or dependence among schizophrenic patients has now been well established. Mueser et al. stressed the need to assess the abuse of specific classes of substances and analyse the data accordingly. The objective of this study was to compare the socio-demographic correlates and the clinical features in a group of schizophrenic patients with a lifetime cannabis abuse or dependence according to the DSM III-R with a group of schizophrenic patients who had never presented any abuse or dependence. SUBJECTS AND METHODS: The study included 124 subjects with diagnoses of schizophrenia or schizoaffective disorders according to the DSM III-R. Inclusion criteria for participation in the study were age 18 years or older and willingness to provide consent to participate in the study. The inpatients were evaluated when their condition was stabilised. Assessment tools were the psychoactive substance use disorder section of the Composite International Diagnostic Interview (CIDI), the Positive and Negative Syndrome Scale (PANSS), the Global Assessment of Functioning Scale (GAF). Subjects with cannabis abuse or dependence during their lifetime were compared with subjects without abuse or dependence, using chi(2) test for categorical variables and analyses of covariance (ANCOVA) for quantitative variables. RESULTS: Forty-nine subjects (42,6%) presented lifetime abuse or dependence on one or more substances. Since 19 patients with alcohol, stimulant, sedative or opiate abuse or dependence were excluded, the study finally included 96 subjects including a first group of schizophrenic patients with cannabis abuse (n=6) or dependence (n=24) and a second group without any psychoactive substance abuse (n=66). Thirteen (11.3%) patients presented cannabis abuse or dependence within the 6 months prior to the assessment. The mean SD age of onset of cannabis abuse or dependence was 19.6 +/- 3.0 years. Cannabis abuse/dependence preceded the first psychiatric treatment in 70% of the subjects (n=21). 83.3% of the schizophrenic patients with cannabis abuse or dependence were male (n=25) compared to 62.1% in the group without substance abuse (n=41) (chi(2)=4.32, df=1, p=0.04). Schizophrenic patients with cannabis abuse were significantly younger (mean age: 28.9 +/- 6.3 vs 37.0 +/- 12.7, ANCOVA, F=7.2, df=1,96 p=0.009). There was no significant difference between the two groups for marital status, (chi(2)=5.34, df=2, p=0.07), level of education, (chi(2)=0.93, df=2, p=0.62) professional status, (chi(2)=8.7, df=5, p=0.11), on PANSS total score (ANCOVA, F=0.42, df=1,93, p=0.52), GAF score (ANCOVA, F=0.06, df=1,92, p=0.80), mean number of hospitalizations (ANCOVA, F=3.25, df=1,85, p=0.08), mean age of first psychiatric contact (ANCOVA, F=0.74, df=1,93, p=0.39), and neuroleptic dosages (ANCOVA, F=0.03, df=1,90, p=0.87). In contrast, the total duration of hospitalization was significantly longer for the group with cannabis abuse. Patients with cannabis abuse were more likely to have an history of suicide attempts than subjects without substance abuse (chi(2)=11.52, df=1, p=0.0007). DISCUSSION: The prevalence rates for substance abuse and the socio-demographic characteristics of the population of our study are consistent with findings of previous studies. Male gender and age were significantly related to history of cannabis abuse or dependence. Cannabis abuse frequently preceded the onset of psychiatric treatment. However, both schizophrenia and substance abuse tend to develop gradually, with no clear demarcation for the onset of schizophrenia. The absence of any link between the scores for the subscales of the PANSS and cannabis abuse, both in our study and in some retrospective previous studies, is not suggestive of cannabis abuse as a self-medication of positive or negative symptoms of schizophrenia. Self-medication could concern other symptoms, such as cognitive deficits. In addition, the hypothesis of self-medication has especially been suggested in cocaine abuse or dependence. Some limitations to this study can be discussed. First, although the recruitment was systematic and done in a public mental health service, the patients of our study are not necessarily representative of all schizophrenic patients. Secondly, as in any retrospective study, the prevalence of lifetime substance abuse may have been under-estimated. Urinary toxicology tests may have been able to improve the sensitivity of the diagnosis of recent substance abuse, but structured interviews are more appropriate for the diagnosis of lifetime substance abuse in schizophrenic patients than urinary toxicology tests. CONCLUSION: The socio-demographic characteristics of cannabis abuse or dependence in schizophrenia are similar to those found in general population. Cannabis using schizophrenic patients were more likely to be younger and male than non users. The duration of hospitalization was significantly longer for the group with cannabis abuse. Prevalence of suicide attempts in schizophrenia is closely correlated to cannabis abuse. |
What is the name of the patient with prior non-breast malignancies eligible | - Patients with prior non-breast malignancies are eligible if they have been disease free for 5 years before enrollment. Patients with squamous or basal cell carcinoma of the skin that has been effectively treated, carcinoma in situ of the cervix that has been treated by operation only, or LCIS of the ipsilateral or contralateral breast treated by surgery only are eligible, even if these conditions were diagnosed within 5 years before enrollment onto this study. |
What is the history of severe cardiac disease? | - History of severe cardiac disease |
What is the crucifixion of Jesus? | The crucifixion of Jesus: review of hypothesized mechanisms of death and implications of shock and trauma-induced coagulopathy. |
What percentage of children were uninsured, poor, or nonwhite? | To evaluate access to health care for American children and adolescents, a telephone survey of a national random sample of households was conducted in which 2182 children 17 years or younger were studied. Approximately 10% had no medical insurance; 10% had no regular source of care; and 18% identified emergency rooms, community clinics, or hospital outpatient departments as their usual site of medical care. Children who were uninsured, poor, or nonwhite were less likely to have seen a physician in the past year (P less than .001), and uninsured children were less likely to have up-to-date immunizations. Logistic regression analyses revealed that poor, uninsured, or nonwhite children less frequently had a regular source of care; more frequently used emergency rooms, community clinics, and hospital outpatient departments as their regular providers; and more frequently encountered financial barriers to health care. Low-income or nonwhite children had much less access to care compared with children from more affluent or white families, independent of insurance status or health status. |
What military service was served prior to 1989? | - military service prior to 1989. |
What is the lumbar lordosis below Harrington instrumentation for | The lumbar lordosis below Harrington instrumentation for scoliosis. |
What is the main evidence that suggests that there may be significant harm to patients with cancer who are | There is therefore consistent evidence to suggest that there may be significant harm to patients with cancer who are treated with recombinant human erythropoietin. |
What is the strength of the FRA and PLIF spacers? | Restoring a stable anterior column is essential to achieve normal spinal biomechanics. A variety of mechanical spacers have been developed and advocated for both anterior and posterior approaches. The ability to radiographically assess the "biology" of bone incorporation in these mechanical (metal) spacers is an inherent limitation. The femoral ring allograft (FRA) and posterior lumbar interbody fusion (PLIF) spacers have been developed as biological cages that permit restoration of the anterior column with a machined allograft bone (biological cage). Test results demonstrate that the FRA and PLIF Spacers have a compressive strength over 25,000 N. The pyramid shaped teeth on the surfaces and the geometry of the implant increase the resistance to expulsion at clinically relevant loads (1053 and 1236 N). The technique of anterior column reconstruction with both the FRA and the PLIF biological cages are discussed. Clinical experience with the PLIF biological cage (10 patients) and the FRA biological cage (90 patients) has not revealed any graft migration, infection, or subsidence. Additional posterior instrumentation may increase the stability of the motion segment, but the degree of stability necessary to achieve a biological union remains unclear. The incorporation of these biological cages can be monitored by conventional radiographic techniques. The method of insertion preserves the vertebral end-plates and can be performed by a minimally invasive or standard open procedure. |
What is the name of the two foodborne pathogens that are used to separate the role | While the antimicrobial effectiveness of wine is well documented, relative contributions of the wine components to its antimicrobial activity is controversial. To separate the role of wine phenolics, ethanol, and pH from other wine constituents, the antimicrobial effects of intact wine were compared to that of phenols-stripped wine, dealcoholized wine, ethanol, and low pH applied separately and in combination, against 2 common foodborne pathogens, Salmonella enterica serovar Enteritidis and Escherichia coli. All samples were biochemically characterized with respect to their total phenolics and resveratrol content, antioxidant capacity, ethanol content, and pH. Antioxidative activity of the samples corresponded to their total phenolics content. Except for respective controls, pH and ethanol content were similar in all samples. The order of antibacterial activity of the samples was: intact wine > phenols-stripped wine > dealcoholized wine > combination of ethanol and low pH > low pH > ethanol. Separate application of ethanol or low pH showed negligible antibacterial activity while their combination showed synergistic effect. Antibacterial activity of the samples could not be related to their total phenolics and resveratrol content, antioxidant capacity, ethanol content, or pH. Our study indicates that antimicrobial activity of complex solutions such as intact wine cannot be exclusively attributed to its phenolic or nonphenolic constituents, nor can the antimicrobial activity of wine be predicted on the basis of its particular components. |
- - Symptoms of musculoskeletal or neurological disorders - | - Significant musculoskeletal or neurological disorders |
Inclusion Criteria: | Inclusion Criteria: |
Subjects with distance of less than 2mm margin between the tumor and the prostate capsule? | 16. Subjects with distance of the less than 2mm margin between the tumor and the prostate capsule |
What is the effect of a home-based maintenance exercise program after center-based cardiac rehabilitation | A home-based maintenance exercise program after center-based cardiac rehabilitation: effects on blood lipids, body composition, and functional capacity. |
- Females age 18-70? | - Females age 18-70 |
What is the survival time? | 4. survival time less than two years |
What is the most sensitive method for detecting HPeV? | Human parechoviruses (HPeVs) are members of the large and growing family of Picornaviridae. Although 16 types have been described on the basis of the phylogenetic analyses of the VP1 encoding region, the majority of published reports relate to the HPeV types 1-8. In pediatrics, HPeV1, HPeV2 and HPeV4-8 mainly cause mild gastrointestinal or respiratory illness; only occasionally more serious diseases have been reported, including myocarditis, encephalitis, pneumonia, meningitis, flaccid paralysis, Reye syndrome and fatal neonatal infection. In contrast, HPeV3 causes severe illness in young infants, including sepsis and conditions involving the central nervous system. Currently, the most sensitive method for detecting HPeV is real-time polymerase chain reaction assays on stools, respiratory swabs, blood and cerebrospinal fluid. However, although it is known that HPeVs play a significant role in various severe pediatric infectious diseases, diagnostic assays are not routinely available in clinical practice and the involvement of HPeV is therefore substantially underestimated. Despite long-term efforts, the development of antiviral therapy against HPeVs is limited; no antiviral medication is available and the use of monoclonal antibodies is still being evaluated. More research is therefore needed to clarify the specific characteristics of this relevant group of viruses and to develop appropriate treatment strategies. |
What is the main insertion loop of Candida albicans sterol 14alpha | Amino acid substitutions at the major insertion loop of Candida albicans sterol 14alpha-demethylase are involved in fluconazole resistance. |
What is the size of atherosclerotic plaques in vasectomized | Frequency and size of atherosclerotic plaques in vasectomized diabetic monkeys. |
What is the multicenter comparative trial of aztreonam? | A multicenter comparative trial of aztreonam in the treatment of gram-negative infections in compromised intensive-care patients. |
What is the cytochrome P450-2D6 and 1A2 cataly | Both cytochromes P450-2D6 and 1A2 catalyse the formation of the two major metabolites glucuronide conjugate of 4-hydroxy duloxetine and sulphate conjugate of 5hydroxy,6-methoxy duloxetine. |
What is Apo2L? | Expression of tumor necrosis factor-related apoptosis-inducing ligand, Apo2L, and its receptors in myelodysplastic syndrome: effects on in vitro hemopoiesis. |