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What was the expression level of thymosin beta4 in HL-60 cells? | To investigate the relationship between the growth situation of the cells and the expression level of thymosin beta4, the specific primer of thymosin beta4 was selected to test the expression of thymosin-beta gene in murine bone marrow endothelial cells in different proliferation states and in HL-60 cells and peripheral blood mononuclear cells by RT-PCR. The results showed that the expression level of thymosin beta4 in the murine bone marrow endothelial cells with active proliferation was high, otherwise it was low. The thymosin beta4 gene expression level was higher in HL-60 cells than that in human peripheral blood mononuclear cells. It was suggested that the expression level of thymosin beta4 mRNA is closely related to cell growth. |
What is the effect of a gas-release endorectal balloon? | Effectiveness of a novel gas-release endorectal balloon in the removal of rectal gas for prostate proton radiation therapy. |
What was the purpose of this article? | OBJECTIVE: The aim of this article was to present the surgical technique and the outcomes of rectangular body ostectomy in the treatment of severe mandibular prognathism. METHODS: Mandibular setback by bilateral rectangular body ostectomies combined with Le Fort I level maxillary advancement was performed. The deep bony concavity of paranasal area was grafted with bone blocks harvested from the ostectomized segments of the mandible. RESULTS: Satisfactory functional and aesthetic outcomes were obtained by rectangular body ostectomy combined with Le Fort I level maxillary advancement and an acceptable profile was provided for the patient. CONCLUSIONS: The mandibular rectangular ostectomy remains a safe and versatile procedure with predictable results in well-selected cases. |
What was the proximal part of the 'jailed' wire? | A 46-year-old woman underwent diagnostic coronary angiography in our institution due to a myocardial ischemia following a dobutamine echo-stress test. The patient showed critical stenosis of the left anterior descending (LAD) artery involving the ostium of a large diagonal branch. The planned treatment of coronary bifurcation by percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI) was direct stenting of the main branch with 'jailed' wire technique to protect the side branch, provisional T stenting of the side branch, and final kissing balloon inflation. After successful stent implantation in the LAD, the 'jailed' wire fractured during withdrawal: the distal part of the fragment was trapped in the side branch, and the proximal one was knotted in the LAD, left main coronary and the aortic bulb. We decided not to retrieve the fragment by snare, and we planned heart surgery to safely retrieve the fragment and bypass the side branch not treated by percutaneous coronary interventions. Angiographic control nine months after surgery showed non in-stent restenosis; patient is alive and event-free at 18 months' clinical follow-up. In conclusion, percutaneous management of particularly complex bifurcational lesions may be associated with procedural risks; accordingly, it is important to consider and be ready for a rescue surgical revascularization. |
What is the exclusion criteria? | Exclusion Criteria: |
What is lorcainide? | A new anti-arrhythmic agent, lorcainide, has been compared with lignocaine in patients with acute myocardial infarction. Lorcainide has been shown to be as effective as lignocaine in suppressing ventricular ectopy. Lorcainide is unusually free of side-effects and has the great advantage over lignocaine of being effective when given orally. |
What is the average optic density? | The iodination degree of the thyroid gland colloid of male dogs that underwent the regimen of multiple physical loads (PL) was estimated by authors by visualization of SH and SS groups by dioxydinaphtildisulphyde (DDD). The quantitative analysis of the iodination degree in the different groups of animals and the analysis of the spatial organization of the section (the central and peripheral zones) does not indicate reliable differences between them. TLPs, influencing the whole organism leads to the increase of the concentration of iodine in TG of animals, the function of the heart and respiratory system, the effective consummation of the peak of efficiency. The average optic density is a marker allowing to forecast the changes of TG in response to multiple PL. |
ECOG 2 ECOG 2 ECOG 2 | - ECOG ≤ 2 |
What was the telogenic mechanism that caused hair loss? | In investigations on Wistar rats aged 4-5 weeks it was found that intraperitoneal administration of Bleomycin in doses from 0.015 to 0.045 mg/100 g of body weight caused disturbances of hair growth. Initially hair loss had a telogenic mechanism, and after higher doses administered for longer time periods it changed to poorly evidenced alopecia with a dystrophic-telogenic pathological mechanism, without clinical signs of fur thinning. |
What is a specialized radiation therapy that sends x-rays directly to the | This pilot clinical trial studies the changes in dynamic perfusion computed tomography images before, during, and after stereotactic body radiation therapy in patients with stage I-II non-small cell lung cancer that has not spread to other parts of the body. Diagnostic imaging procedures, such as dynamic perfusion computed tomography, measure blood flow through tumors. Stereotactic body radiation therapy is a specialized radiation therapy that sends x-rays directly to the tumor using smaller doses over several days and may cause less damage to normal tissue. Giving dynamic perfusion computed tomography images before, during, and after stereotactic body radiation therapy may help better understand how radiation therapy works to stop tumor growth in patients with non-small cell lung cancer. |
What is the function of magnetic resonance and spectroscopy in drug and substance abuse? | Functional magnetic resonance and spectroscopy in drug and substance abuse. |
What is the influence of vascular phenotype by basic fibroblast growth factor? | Importance of vascular phenotype by basic fibroblast growth factor, and influence of the angiogenic factors basic fibroblast growth factor/fibroblast growth factor receptor-1 and ephrin-A1/EphA2 on melanoma progression. |
What is the name of the STUDY? | LARGE HEAD X3 STUDY: |
What is the level of Vitamin D? | The investigators will recruit DoD beneficiaries 18 years or older, that have been referred for a screening colonoscopy or polyp surveillance (or had one in the last 2 weeks), and have no previous diagnosis of colorectal cancer. They will have a 25 OH Vitamin D level drawn to determine if there is an association between the level obtained and findings on colonoscopy, or previous findings (if repeating). |
What is the stent that is a multilink-Tristar stent? | [Expansion of the Multilink-Tristar stent after direct implantation and predilatation: comparison of clinical, angiography and intravascular ultrasound parameters]. |
How many women had hemorrhagic strokes? | The decreasing incidence of direct causes of maternal death over the past half century has led to a heightened awareness of nonobstetric factors responsible for maternal mortality. For example, cerebrovascular accidents are an important nonobstetric cause of maternal morbidity and mortality. During the 6.5-year period from 1984 to mid-1990, we encountered 15 women in whom pregnancy or the puerperium was complicated by an acute cerebrovascular accident. Six of these women had hemorrhagic strokes and nine had ischemic strokes. During this same time, approximately 90,000 women were delivered at Parkland Memorial Hospital, and thus the incidence of stroke was about one in 6000 pregnancies. Chronic hypertension or preeclampsia was causative in three cases of hemorrhagic stroke. It is important that 20% of the women died as a result of stroke, and of the 12 survivors, 40% have residual neurologic deficits. An aggressive work-up to define the etiology of stroke is necessary in order to implement cause-specific management, with subsequent reduction in morbidity and mortality. |
What is the pen horizontally held? | To ensure that you read the dose correctly, hold the pen horizontally, with the needle on the left and the dosage selector to the right as shown in the illustrations below. |
What is the first year after a pediatric lung transplant? | Epidemiology of bloodstream infections in the first year after pediatric lung transplantation. |
What is the name of the acute porphyria? | - Acute porphyria |
What is the treatment of foot xerosis? | A comparative study of lactic acid 10% and ammonium lactate 12% lotion in the treatment of foot xerosis. |
Inclusion Criteria: | Inclusion Criteria: |
What is the setting of patent foramen ovale? | Intramedullary abscess of the spinal cord in the setting of patent foramen ovale. |
What is one of the major causes of mortality and morbidity in patients with acutely rupture | SUMMARY: It is apparent that subarachnoid clots play an important role in the development of delayed vasospasm that is one of the major causes of mortality and morbidity in patients with acutely ruptured cerebral aneurysm. The purpose of this study is to compare the clearance of subarachnoid clots in the acute stage after the treatment with Guglielmi detachable coils (GDC) and after treatment with direct surgery. Forty-nine patients were treated by GDC embolization within four days of the ictus. After GDC embolization, adjunctive therapies, such as ventricular and/or spinal drainage (67%), intrathecal administration of urokinase (41%), continuous cisternal irrigation (16%), and external decompression (16%), were performed. Seventy-four surgically treated patients were subsequently treated by continuous cisternal irrigation with mock-CSF containing ascorbic acid for ten days. The clearance of subarachnoid clots was assessed by the Hounsfield number serial changes on the CT scans taken on days 0, 4, 7, 10 after subarachnoid hemorrhage. The incidence of symptomatic vasospasm was lower in the GDC group (6%) than in the surgery group (12%). The clearance of subarachnoid clots from both the basal cistern and the Sylvian fissure was more rapid in the GDC cases than in the surgery cases in the first four days. Intrathecal administration of urokinase accelerated the clearance significantly. GDC embolization followed by intrathecal administration of thrombolytic agents accelerates the reduction of subarachnoid clots and favorably acts to prevent delayed vasospasm. |
Sachets are wrapped per three in a transparent perforated plastic film and packed in | Sachets are wrapped per three in a transparent perforated plastic film and packed in a cardboard carton. |
What was the time taken to reach 50% of minimum pressure? | Suctioning is essential in managing tracheal tubes, but also has drawbacks. Using a bench model, we demonstrated the extent and time course of pressure changes during suctioning, examined their relationship with tracheal tube and catheter diameters and assessed the effects of artificial 'sputum' and of compensatory gas flow in the system. We suctioned at -20 kPa (-150 mmHg) and -80 kPa (-600 mmHg) using three different sized catheters and a 5.9-mm diameter bronchoscope through tracheal tubes ranging from 6.5 mm to 9.0 mm in diameter. Pressure changes ranged from -0.1 kPa (-0.8 mmHg) to -20.4 kPa (-153.0 mmHg). We demonstrated more negative pressures with decreasing tracheal tube diameter (p = 0.024) and increasing catheter diameter (p = 0.038). Addition of artificial 'sputum' led to more negative, but unpredictable, pressures than those seen with clean tubes (p = 0.012). Bronchoscopic suctioning produced pressure changes even greater than the largest suction catheter (p = 0.0039). Using a closed system with continuous positive airway pressure and 155 l.min(-1) compensatory gas flow attenuated the pressure changes generated both with a 4.0-mm catheter (p = 0.0005) and on bronchoscopic suctioning (p = 0.0078). The time taken to reach 50% of minimum pressure was always less than 1 s. The use of high compensatory flows during suctioning merits clinical evaluation. |
What is the name of the infants with history of hyperbilirubinaemia during | - Infants with a history of hyperbilirubinaemia during the neonatal period. |
What was the average air-bone gap in the endoscopy group? | The objectives of this study were to ascertain the feasibility of transcanal endoscopic underlay myringoplasty using temporalis fascia and compare the results with microscopic myringoplasty. This prospective randomized trial included 60 patients with mucosal chronic otitis media with tympanic membrane perforations of all sizes and locations apart from posteriorly based small or moderate sized perforations. In the endoscopy group, 30 patients underwent exclusive transcanal myringoplasty using tympanomeatal flap elevation with underlay graft placement. In the microscopy group, 30 patients underwent myringoplasty using the postaural approach. Intra-operative variables compared were canalplasty and canal wall curettage for assessment of ossicular status. Graft uptake, hearing outcomes using pure tone audiometry and subjective cosmetic outcomes were assessed 24 weeks post-operatively and compared in the two groups. Resident feedback on the feasibility of endoscopic myringoplasty was obtained using a questionnaire. In the microscopy group, 5/30 patients required canalplasty due to canal overhangs and 4/30 required canal wall curettage for ossicular assessment, whereas none of the patients in the endoscopy group required these procedures. A graft uptake rate of 83.3% was observed in both groups post-operatively after 24 weeks. Mean air-bone gap pre- and post-operatively in the endoscopy group was 28.5 and 18.13 dB, respectively, whereas these values were 32.4 and 16.9 dB, respectively, in the microscopy group. Subjective cosmetic outcomes were better in the endoscopy group. Resident feedback on endoscopic myringoplasty was positive. Endoscopic myringoplasty appears to be an effective alternative to microscopic myringoplasty and results in excellent hearing with good cosmetic outcomes. |
What is the seminal plasma of infertile men with varicocele? | Soluble forms of Fas and Fas ligand concentrations in the seminal plasma of infertile men with varicocele. |
What is the problem in obtaining perfect images by single-particle electron cryomicros | Problems in obtaining perfect images by single-particle electron cryomicroscopy of biological structures in amorphous ice. |
What is the name of the disease that causes gastroesophageal reflux? | Determinants of gastroesophageal reflux disease in adults with a history of childhood gastroesophageal reflux disease. |
What is the major protein of the human Hsp70 family? | It is well-known that heat-shock protein 70.1 (Hsp70.1), a major protein of the human Hsp70 family, plays cytoprotective roles by both its chaperone function and stabilization of lysosomal membranes. Recently, we found that calpain-mediated cleavage of carbonylated Hsp70.1 in the hippocampal cornu Ammonis1 (CA1) contributes to neuronal death after transient global ischemia. This study aims to elucidate the differential neuronal vulnerability between the motor cortex and CA1 sector against ischemia/reperfusion. Fluoro-Jade B staining and terminal deoxynucleotidyl transferase-mediated dUTP-nick-end-labeling analysis of the monkey brain undergoing 20min whole brain ischemia followed by reperfusion, showed that the motor cortex is significantly resistant to the ischemic insult compared with CA1. Up-regulation of Hsp70.1 but absence of its cleavage by calpain facilitated its binding with NF-kappaB p65/IkappaBalpha complex to minimize NF-kappaB p65 activation, which contributed to a neuroprotection in the motor cortex. In contrast, because activated mu-calpain cleaved carbonylated Hsp70.1 in CA1, the resultant Hsp70.1 dysfunction not only destabilized lysosomal membrane but also induced a sustained activation of NF-kappaB p65, both of which resulted in delayed neuronal death. We propose that the cascades underlying lysosomal stabilization and regulating NF-kappaB activation by Hsp70.1 may influence neuronal survival/death after the ischemia/reperfusion. |
What is the name of the company SANOFI WINTHROP INDUSTRIE 1, | Manufacturer SANOFI WINTHROP INDUSTRIE 1, rue de la Vierge Ambarès & Lagrave F-33565 Carbon Blanc Cedex - France |
What is the result of a biopsy of the endobronchial tuberculo | Diagnosis of three cases of endobronchial tuberculosis presenting as unresolved pneumonia, following fiberoptic bronchoscopic biopsy. |
What is the name of the drug reaction that is associated with prior treatment? | 12. Patients must have recovered or stabilized sufficiently from the adverse drug reactions associated with prior treatment before beginning treatment with INC424 |
What is the expansion of canine bone marrow-derived endotheli | Expansion of canine bone marrow-derived endothelial progenitor cells and dynamic observation. |
What is the clinically significant RPE/Macular changes? | - Clinically significant RPE/Macular changes |
What is the exception to short-term ART for prevention of mother-to-child transmission | - ART-naïve and not eligible for ART treatment as per established guidelines. Subjects must never have received ART after HIV diagnosis, including lamivudine used for chronic hepatitis B infection. The exception to this is short-term ART for prevention of mother-to-child transmission (PMTCT) which must have been completed at least 360 days prior to enrollment. |
What is calcified? | 4. Is severely calcified |
Paroxetina Merck 20 mg Comprimidos recubiertos E | Paroxetina Merck 20 mg Comprimidos recubiertos EFG |
What is the result of a transient ischemic attack? | - Transient ischemic attack |
What is the name of the paper that presents experience with surgical and combined treatment of 197 patients | The paper presents experience with surgical and combined treatment of 197 patients with malignant tumors involving the skull base and extracranially originating. The authors have defined indications for and contraindications to different types of surgical treatment, developed methods for radical and palliative tumor removal, which are based on a comprehensive approach considering the basic principles of oncology and neurosurgery. Assessing the immediate and long-term results of surgical treatment by mathematical statistical methods could reveal the major factors influencing survival rates in patients after surgery and the duration of a relapse-free period. |
How many children were diagnosed with pilocytic astrocytoma? | OBJECTIVE: To evaluate the response rates, survival and toxicity of treatment with antineoplaston A10 and AS2-1 (ANP) in the first 12 children enrolled in our studies diagnosed with incurable recurrent and progressive multicentric glioma. PATIENTS AND METHODS: The patients' median age was 9 years. Six patients were diagnosed with pilocytic astrocytoma, four with low-grade astrocytoma and one with astrocytoma grade 2. In one case of visual pathway glioma, a biopsy was not performed due to a dangerous location. Patients received ANP intravenously initially and subsequently orally. The average duration of intravenous ANP therapy was 16 months and the average dosage of A10 was 7.95 g/kg/day and of AS2-1 was 0.33 g/kg/day. The average duration of oral ANP was 19 months and the average dosage of A10 and AS2-1 was 0.28 g/kg/day. Responses were assessed by MRI according to the National Cancer Institute's criteria and confirmed by PET scans in some cases. RESULTS: Complete response was accomplished in 33%, partial response in 25%, and stable disease in 33% of patients, and there was no progressive disease. One patient was non-evaluable due to only 4 weeks of ANP and lack of follow-up scans. One patient who had stable disease discontinued ANP against medical advice and died 4.5 years later. Ten patients are alive and well from 2 to >14 years post-diagnosis. Only one case of serious toxicity of reversible tinnitus, of one day's duration, was described. The study continues with accrual of additional patients. CONCLUSION: The results of the present study are favourable in comparison with radiation therapy and chemotherapy. We believe that confirmation of these results through further studies may introduce a new promising treatment for incurable paediatric brain tumours. |
What group receives pazopanib? | - Group 2 will receive pazopanib, possibly followed by everolimus. |
What isoniazid-resistant Mycobacterium tuberculosis is detected | [Rapid detection of rifampin- and isoniazid-resistant Mycobacterium tuberculosis using real-time PCR and melting curve analysis]. |
What is the first result of RF ablation? | Histopathologic and immunohistochemical features of tissue adherent to multitined electrodes after RF ablation of liver malignancies can help predict local tumor progression: initial results. |
What is the stage 4 chronic kidney disease? | - Stage 4 or greater chronic kidney disease (eGFR < 30 mL/min |
What is the primary goal of this study? | primary goal of this study will be to evaluate the COGNISION™ Platform across multiple study locations. This will demonstrate an ability to perform tests, collect data, and generate classifications irrespective of variations in testing locations and personnel. |
What is the value of nitrogen intake? | [Use of a new solution of synthetic amino acids in postoperative surgical intensive care. Evaluation of the value of nitrogen intake started in the immediate preoperative period]. |
What is the PHARMACEUTICAL FORM? | PHARMACEUTICAL FORM |
Participation in other investigational drug trials within 30 days prior to screening? | 11. Participation in other investigational drug trials within 30 days prior to screening |
What is the treatment of well differentiated neuroendocrine tumours of the lung? | [Surgical treatment of well differentiated neuroendocrine tumours of the lung]. |
What is the CpG methylation-dependent repression of the human O6 | CpG methylation-dependent repression of the human O6-methylguanine-DNA methyltransferase gene linked to chromatin structure alteration. |
What did Subjects who did not have the third molar extraction completed as planned? | - Subjects who did not had the third molar extraction completed as planned. |
What was the effect of sitagliptin as monotherapy on glycae | In clinical trials, sitagliptin as monotherapy improved glycaemic control with significant reductions in haemoglobin A1c (HbA1c) and fasting and postprandial glucose. |
What is a clinically significant cardiopulmonary abnormality? | - Clinically significant cardiopulmonary abnormalities (diagnosed clinically or by x-ray/ECG) that are not related to COPD and that require further evaluation |
- Keine recurrente oder persistent disease - | - No recurrent or persistent disease |
What is the use of standard tests? | Nursing research with preoperational age children: the use of standardized tests. |
What is a calcium-based bone cement that has great potential in craniofacial | Bone cement has great potential in craniofacial surgery in the repair of osseous defects secondary to surgery or trauma. This includes the use of bone cement as a bone void filler for full-thickness cranial defects and as augmentation of deficient bones. Ideally, this material should be easily available, biocompatible, resorbable, bone inductive, and have adhesive qualities to bone. Calcium-based bone cements have some of these qualities but have a higher than desirable failure rate. OsteoCrete, a new magnesium-based bone cement and bone void filler, was compared to Norian in critical-sized skull defects and cementing bone flaps in rabbits. Both materials were successful; however, OsteoCrete had a faster resorption and replacement by bone rate than Norian. Bone flap position and apparent stability were also superior with OsteoCrete. There were no adverse reactions to either cement. A magnesium-based bone cement presents with advantages when compared with a comparator calcium-based cement in craniofacial surgery. |
What is the dopamine supersensitivity unmasked by withdrawal of endogenous estrogens | Postpartum psychosis with abnormal movements: dopamine supersensitivity unmasked by withdrawal of endogenous estrogens? |
- Being pregnant or lactating | - Being pregnant or lactating |
What is the name of the Cozaar? | Cozaar |
What is the pharmacology of antiplatelet drugs? | Antiplatelet drugs: a review of their pharmacology and management in the perioperative period. |
- Progesterone dependent neoplasia - | - Progesterone dependent neoplasia |
What is the reason for the cost effectiveness of 3-drug combination antiretroviral regimen | Since 1997, expert panel guidelines for HIV care have recommended the use of combination antiretroviral therapy with at least 3 antiretroviral drugs. Several studies have examined the cost effectiveness of 3-drug combination antiretroviral regimens for the treatment of HIV infection. Analyses comparing a 3-drug protease inhibitor-containing regimen with a 1- or 2-drug non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor regimen have consistently yielded incremental direct cost estimates ranging from $US10,000 to just over $US13,000 per year of life saved. In Western societies, such an incremental cost per year of life saved compares favourably with chronic therapy for other diseases and argues for the adoption of these drugs by payors and policy makers. The reason for this favourable cost-effectiveness ratio appears to be the decrease in opportunistic complications and hospitalisation associated with the effective use of combination antiretroviral therapy. Whether this initial benefit will be maintained is not yet known. Other comorbid illnesses such as hepatitis C or renal failure may subsequently increase the cost of HIV care, and some analyses suggest that resistance may develop to these drugs over the long term. In addition, studies are needed to assess the cost effectiveness of these therapies in developing countries where the expense of these drugs appears to put them out of reach. The collection and analysis of economic data will continue to be needed as newer HIV therapies become available and the HIV healthcare environment evolves. Quantifying medical care costs and calculating cost effectiveness involve assessing a moving target. Economic analyses of HIV infection must evolve in tandem with therapeutic changes to continue to be relevant to policy makers, payors of care, and those who provide and receive HIV care. |
What is the immunodominant major surface protein 2 of the genogroup II ehrlich | Highly conserved regions of the immunodominant major surface protein 2 of the genogroup II ehrlichial pathogen Anaplasma marginale are rich in naturally derived CD4+ T lymphocyte epitopes that elicit strong recall responses. |
What is the name of the cell line that is a gene chip? | Identify lymphatic metastasis-associated genes in mouse hepatocarcinoma cell lines using gene chip. |
What is the most common cause of death in systemic sclerosis? | Mortality in systemic sclerosis. |
What is the name of the neurological condition that affects voice quality? | - No other neurological conditions(i.e. stroke, cerebellar ataxia) that affect voice quality |
What is the effect of Glivec on the outcome of bone marrow transplantation? | The effect of Glivec on the outcome of bone marrow transplantation has not been determined. |
What is the HVL variation of filter 4-8? | Using a Pantak Therapax SXT 150 system HVL values for clinical beams generated with filters 4-8, were determined as a function of FCD (30-130 cm). Aluminium absorbers were placed midway between the focus and chamber with collimation to define both narrow and broad beam geometries. For filters 4-7 with broad beam geometry the HVL initially decreases as the FCD is increased from 30 cm and then increases as the FCD approaches 130 cm. In contrast filter 8 exhibits a reduction in HVL with increasing FCD attributed to the decreasing influence of absorber scatter. With narrow beam geometry the HVL of filter 4 increases as the FCD is increased. For other filters the HVL variation is similar to that for the broader beam albeit that for a given FCD the HVL is smaller, a consequence of reduced absorber scatter. Monte Carlo BEAMnrc simulations of filter 4-8 beams demonstrated a quality dependent air attenuation effect associated with an increase in HVL for lower quality beams with increasing FCD. Thus for the beams investigated in this work the variation of HVL with FCD can be interpreted in terms of the competing influences of absorber scatter, which tends to decrease the measured HVL, and a quality dependent in air attenuation that tends to increase the HVL with increasing FCD. In terms of an absorbed dose determination it is shown that changes of HVL with FCD resulted in variations of D w,z = 0 < +/-0.5 %. |
What is the standard therapy for younger patients with newly diagnosed symptomatic multiple myelo | Autologous stem cell transplantation (ASCT) is considered the standard therapy for younger patients with newly diagnosed symptomatic multiple myeloma (MM). The introduction into clinical practice of novel agents, such as the proteasome inhibitor bortezomib and the immunomodulatory derivatives (IMiDs) thalidomide and lenalidomide, has significantly contributed to major advances in MM therapy and prognosis. These novel agents are incorporated into induction regimens to enhance the depth of response before ASCT and further improve post-ASCT outcomes. Between January 2000 and November 2011, 65 patients with MM were transplanted in the Department of Biomedical Science and Clinical Oncology at the University of Bari. According to Durie-Salmon, 60 patients had stage III of disease and 5 stage II. Only 7 patients were in stage B (renal failure). Induction regimens that were administered in two or more cycles were VAD (vincristine, adriamycin, and dexamethasone), Thal-Dex (thalidomide, dexamethasone), Len-Dex (lenalidomide, dexamethasone), Vel-Dex (bortezomib, dexamethasone), VTD (bortezomib, thalidomide, and dexamethasone), and PAD (bortezomib, pegylated liposomal doxorubicin, and dexamethasone). In mobilization procedure, the patients received cyclophosphamide and granulocyte colony-stimulating factor (G-CSF). The number of cells collected through two or more leukapheresess, response after induction, and toxicity were evaluated to define the more adequate up-front induction regimen in transplantation-eligible MM patients. |
What is the reduction in shaving? | - Loss of body (axillary and pubic) hair - reduced shaving |
What is the assembly of a Repressive Complex for Retroviral Silencing in So | Ectopic DNMT3L Triggers Assembly of a Repressive Complex for Retroviral Silencing in Somatic Cells. |
What is the role of focal segmental glomerulosclerosis? | Cardiac disease in children with primary glomerular disorders-role of focal segmental glomerulosclerosis. |
What is the effect of Dai-kenchu-to on levels of 3 brain-gut | Effect of Dai-kenchu-to on levels of 3 brain-gut peptides (motilin, gastrin and somatostatin) in human plasma. |
What is the history of a clinically significant infection? | - History of a clinically significant infection. |
What was the safety of the concomitant administration of thrombolytic agents and | Thrombolytics: the safety of the concomitant administration of clopidogrel, fibrin or non-fibrin specific thrombolytic agents and heparins was assessed in patients with acute myocardial infarction. |
What is the most important aspect of the S3 guideline? | The majority of recommendations in the current S3 guideline on the diagnosis and treatment of gastric carcinoma are based on good clinical practice and lack supporting randomized studies. With the development of endoscopic resection and multimodal treatment concepts, pretherapeutic tumor staging has gained in importance. However, the accuracy of present imaging modalities is still limited with a tendency towards overstaging of locally advanced tumors. Extended lymph node dissection cannot be recommended in cases with advanced lymph node involvement. In cardiac cancer retroperitoneal lymphatic spread to the left renal vein is an early event and should thus not be classified as stage IV disease. In cases of intra-abdominal gastrectomy a pouch reconstruction should be considered in cases with a good overall prognosis. Subgroup analyses indicate a differential therapeutic effect of the established perioperative chemotherapy depending on the location of the primary tumor. There is also good evidence for an additional beneficial effect of radiotherapy in combination with chemotherapy. |
What is the name of the surgery that should be completed within 4 weeks after the first diagnosis? | 7. Surgery should be completed within 4 weeks after the first diagnosis. |
How old are males and females? | 1. Males and females, 12-75 years of age |
What was the case of a 10.5-year-old boy who had complete right main | The case of a 10.5-year-old boy who had complete right main pulmonary artery thromboembolism complicating steroid-resistant nephrotic syndrome is presented. Despite the massive nature of the lesion clinical symptoms were relatively minor. The thromboembolism was successfully treated with intrapulmonary artery streptokinase. The case highlights the discrepancy that may be found between the clinical and pathological findings in pulmonary thromboembolism in the nephrotic syndrome of childhood. |
What is the name of the INCLUSION CRITERIA? | - INCLUSION CRITERIA: |
- Men less than 70 years old | - Men less than 70 years old |
What is the name of the multislice spiral computed tomography? | Noninvasive coronary artery imaging by multislice spiral computed tomography. |
What is the compliance index associated with? | Arterial compliance is associated with the first stage of hypertension and atherosclerosis. We propose here a compliance index, which measures pulsating renal blood flow distribution using a power Doppler ultrasound (US). We assessed the relationship between the compliance index and blood pressure and between the compliance index and risk factors of atherosclerosis. The subjects consisted of 136 consecutive patients (96 males, 40 females) who underwent a physical checkup. Ages ranged from 40 to 60 years with a mean of 50.1 years. Patients with past renal disease and/or renal dysfunction were excluded. Using a power Doppler US combined with an ECG-gated and echo-tracking system, we recorded the vascular distribution of the renal parenchyma at 8 to 10 time points during an interval of the R wave of the ECG. Using a color pixel counting technique, we calculated the area (A) corresponding to the colored vascular distribution at power Doppler US. The relationships between A and the time points (t) were fitted to a quadratic equation. The compliance index of renal parenchymal vessels was obtained by twice differentiating the quadratic equation obtained above (d2A/dt2), and taking the result as a new hemodynamic index. In the univariate correlation analysis, the compliance index was correlated with age (r=-0.26, p=0.002), systolic blood pressure (r=-0.33, p=0.0001), diastolic blood pressure (r=-0.45, p<0.0001), serum uric acid (r=-0.28, p=0.001), and body mass index (r=-0.32, p=0.0002). On the multivariate stepwise regression analysis, the compliance index was significantly correlated with diastolic blood pressure (beta=-0.36, p<0.0001) and body mass index (beta=-0.18, p<0.0001). In conclusion, the compliance index is a candidate for a new hemodynamic marker of renal blood flow abnormality caused by hypertension. |
What is the risk of death and hepatic decompensation? | Co-infected patients with advanced cirrhosis receiving HAART may be at increased risk of hepatic decompensation and death. |
What is the starting point of the health economic debate? | The social insurance systems in Germany are about to face radical changes, predominantly due to demographic developments. The solution might be an increasing self-responsibility of the population. The suitability of this health economical concept is to be verified for health insurance. The starting point of the health economic debate, discussing the issue of responsibility, is its description, and therefore the health of populations and the fundamental determinants for the maintenance of health and for illness. This is followed by a theoretical health economic discussion on the question whether insurants and patients are suitable market partners shoulder the responsibility transferred to them. The description of empiric evidence of the effects of co-payment questions the concept of self-responsibility and finally leads to discussing the individual versus social responsibility for health and illness. |
What is the auxiliary protein FXYD7? | Evidence accumulating during almost 50 years suggests Na(+), K(+)-ATPase dysfunction in bipolar disorder, a disease treatable with chronic administration of lithium salts, carbamazepine or valproic acid. Three Na(+), K(+)-ATPase alpha subunits (alpha1-3) and two beta subunits (beta1 and beta2) are expressed in brain together with the auxiliary protein FXYD7. FXYD7 decreases K(+) affinity, and thus contributes to stimulation of the enzyme at elevated extracellular K(+) concentrations. Na(+), K(+)-ATPase subtype and FXYD7 genes were determined by RT-PCR in mice co-expressing one fluorescent signal with an astrocytic marker or a different fluorescent signal with a neuronal marker and treated for 14 days with carbamazepine. Following fluorescence-activated cell sorting of neurons and astrocytes it was shown that alpha2 Expression was upregulated in astrocytes and neurons and alpha1 selectively in neurons, but alpha3 was unchanged. beta1 was upregulated in astrocytes, but not in neurons. beta2 was unaffected in astrocytes and absent in neurons. FXYD7 was downregulated specifically in neurons. According to cited literature data these changes should facilitate K(+) uptake in neurons, without compromising preferential uptake in astrocytes at increased extracellular K(+) concentrations. This process seems to be important for K(+) homeostasis of the cellular level of the brain (Xu et al. Neurochem Res E-pub Dec. 12, 2012). |
What are subjects who report a frequent occurrence of migraine attacks? | 25. subjects, who report a frequent occurrence of migraine attacks |
What is the term for brain metastases? | - Brain metastases, or spinal cord compression. Individuals with brain metastases are allowed if they have been treated with irradiation or surgery, are clinically stable without steroid treatment. Individuals with documented leptomeningeal disease are not eligible. |
What is associated with Murine malaria? | Murine malaria is associated with significant hearing impairment. |
How many patients were injected with 111In-labeled monoclonal anti | Radiolabeled antiferritin immunoglobulin (Ig) preparations were tested in patients with advanced, end-stage Hodgkin's disease. Four patients received indium-111 (111In)-labeled monoclonal antiferritin (QCI). Targeting was not observed in tumor-bearing areas. Instead, scans showed rapid accumulation of QCI in normal liver. Forty-five patients were injected with 111In-labeled polyclonal antiferritin (rabbit, pig, or baboon). Forty (89%) patients showed tumor uptake, with dosimetric estimates ranging from 300 to 3,000 cGy in 1 week for the subsequently administered yttrium-90 (90Y)-labeled antiferritin. Yttrium-labeled antibody caused hematologic toxicity. Treatment-induced toxicity was not observed in any other organ system. Intravenous autologous bone marrow cells, 18 days after the yttrium infusion, accelerated hematopoietic recovery in eight patients receiving 30 mCi or 40 mCi. Hematopoietic recovery after a 20 mCi 90Y-labeled antiferritin infusion was not influenced by an autologous bone marrow transplant. Two patients receiving 20 mCi and one patient receiving 50 mCi remained aplastic after transplantation for unknown reasons. In 29 assessable patients, a 62% response rate was observed; nine of the 18 responses were complete. Responses ranging from 2 to 26 months were more commonly noted in patients with small tumors and long disease histories. Dosimetric calculations did not predict for responses. Recurrences frequently occurred in new areas instead of areas exhibiting bulky disease at the start of the treatment. Complete responses after 90Y antiferritin were significantly (P less than .02) more frequent than in a previous study with iodine-131 (131I) antiferritin. Further improvements are needed to make this new treatment modality curative. |
What is the current of cone photoreceptor outer segments? | Analysis of fluctuations in the cGMP-dependent currents of cone photoreceptor outer segments. |
What is a good comprehension of French? | - good comprehension of french |
Born at less than 32 weeks gestation | - Born at less than 32 weeks gestation |
How many patients had a Gleason sum? | OBJECTIVE: To investigate the relationship between prostate-specific antigen (PSA) level and Gleason sum, and its impact on biochemical failure (persistent PSA level of >0.2 ng/mL) after radical prostatectomy (RP), as the PSA, Gleason sum and clinical stage are commonly used preoperative predictors of outcome in men with localized prostate cancer. PATIENTS AND METHODS: The Columbia Urologic Oncology Database was reviewed (1988-2006); 3460 had undergone RP. Patients who received neoadjuvant/adjuvant therapy or had incomplete data were excluded, yielding 1932 in the analysed sample. Analysis of variance (ANOVA) methods were used to assess differences in PSA level (on a log scale) among three different groups of patients, categorized by their Gleason sum scores, as <7, 7 and >7. To account for full penetrance of PSA screening, surgery before 1998 was considered as a potential confounder. ANOVA was used to determine whether the association of Gleason score and PSA levels differed before and after 1998. The effect of PSA level on biochemical failure was examined for variance among the three Gleason score groups using a Cox proportional hazards model with time to biochemical failure as the outcome, logPSA, Gleason sum (<7, 7 and >7), their interaction, and clinical stage as the predictors. Concordance indices (c-index) were calculated for the model with and without the interaction term between PSA and Gleason sum to determine its significance. RESULTS: Of 1932 patients, 1190 (61.6%) had a Gleason sum of <7, 595 (30.8%) of 7 and 146 (7.6%) of >7. The median PSA level was 5.9, 6.1 and 7.8 ng/mL, respectively (P < 0.001). After adjusting for clinical stage, there was no significant interaction effect (P = 0.34) between Gleason sum and time of surgery on PSA level, implying that the relationship between Gleason sum and PSA levels has not changed over these two periods, despite changes in PSA screening. Results from the Cox model showed that PSA level, Gleason sum, their interaction term and clinical stage were significant predictors of biochemical failure. The c-index for the model without the interaction term was 0.70 and increased to 0.72 when including it, indicating an increase in the predictive ability of the model when including the interaction term. CONCLUSION: PSA level and Gleason sum are highly interrelated variables, although they each carry additional information that significantly contributes to the prediction of biochemical failure. This study shows that, for an individual patient, the higher the initial PSA level the higher the risk of having poorly differentiated prostate cancer. Also, predictive models of biochemical failure can be improved by considering the interaction between PSA and Gleason sum. |
What is the most common cause of enthesitis? | BACKGROUND: Enthesitis is an extra-intestinal manifestation of inflammatory bowel disease (IBD) in adults. However, little has been published about the prevalence or characteristics of enthesitis in pediatric IBD. METHODS: We conducted a cross-sectional study of children and young adults ages 4-21 years with IBD. Subjects were recruited among those receiving routine care in a gastroenterology clinic. All subjects underwent a clinical examination of the entheses and joints, and completed a study questionnaire. RESULTS: We enrolled 43 subjects, who had a median age of 16 years and a median time from IBD diagnosis of 2.7 years. 32 subjects (74%) had Crohn disease, 10 subjects (23%) had indeterminate colitis, and 1 subject (2%) had ulcerative colitis. At least one tender enthesis was present in 21% of subjects and 12% had more than 2 tender entheses. The most commonly affected entheses were located at the inferior patella, the femoral greater trochanter, and the proximal humerus. The presence of enthesitis was associated with a higher intensity of recent musculoskeletal pain (p=0.03). CONCLUSIONS: Enthesitis is a prevalent extra-intestinal manifestation of pediatric IBD and is associated with increased musculoskeletal pain. Future studies should evaluate the functional and long-term impact of enthesitis on children with IBD. |
What patch does Prometax only wear at a time? | Only wear one Prometax patch at a time. |
What is the mean pH in GV-intact oocytes? | In the sea urchin, some other marine invertebrates, and the frog, Xenopus, egg activation at fertilization is accompanied by an increase in intracellular pH (pHi). We measured pHi in germinal vesicle (GV)-intact mouse oocytes, ovulated eggs, and in vivo fertilized zygotes using the pH indicator dye, SNARF-1. The mean pH, was 6.96 +/- 0.004 (+/- SEM) in GV-intact oocytes, 7.00 +/- 0.01 in ovulated, unfertilized eggs, and 7.02 +/- 0.01 in fertilized zygotes, indicating no sustained changes in pHi after germinal vesicle breakdown (GVBD) or fertilization. To examine whether transient changes in pHi occur shortly after egg activation, mouse eggs were parthenogenetically activated by 7% ethanol in phosphate buffered saline (PBS); no significant change in pHi followed ethanol activation. Since increased Na+/H+ antiporter activity is responsible for pHi increase in the sea urchin, pHi was measured in the absence of added bicarbonate or CO2 (a condition under which the antiporter would be the only major pHi regulatory mechanism able to operate, since the others were bicarbonate-dependent) in GV-intact oocytes, ovulated eggs, and in vivo fertilized zygotes to determine whether a Na+/H+ antiporter was activated. There was no physiologically significant difference in pHi after GVBD or fertilization, when pHi was measured in bicarbonate-free medium, nor any change upon parthenogenetic activation. Thus, a change in pHi is not a feature of egg activation in the mouse. |
What is the term for a periodontitis that is unresponsive to treatment? | - Patients with a severe generalized chronic periodontitis , an aggressive periodontitis or a periodontitis unresponsive to treatment. |