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ECOG Performance status of 1 or greater than 1 ECOG performance status? | - ECOG Performance status of 1 or greater |
What is the first phase of CesametTM? | This is a phase IV, multicenter, open label of Cesamet™ at 1 mg daily progressing to 2mg BID in subjects with chemotherapy-induced neuropathic pain. This study has two phases: A pretreatment phase and a treatment phase. |
What is the TREATMENT OF ACUTE FRACTURE PAIN? | COMPARING KETAMINE AND MORPHINE IN THE TREATMENT OF ACUTE FRACTURE PAIN: |
- Severe steotic valvular disease - Severe | - Severe stenotic valvular disease |
What is the FMRI of HYPOTHALAMIC RESPONSES to | FMRI OF HYPOTHALAMIC RESPONSES TO GLUCOSE, FRUCTOSE, SUCROSE AND SUCRALOSE: |
What score did Karnofsky score? | - Karnofsky score > or = 70% |
What is the effect of OCs on ovarian folliculogenesis? | Clinically, polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS) is a heterogeneous disorder of functional androgen excess and the features of PCOS can run through a spectrum of severity. The optimal modality for long-term treatment of PCOS should positively influence androgen synthesis, sex hormone binding globulin (SHBG) production, insulin sensitivity, the lipid profile, and clinical symptoms including hirsutism and irregular menstrual cycles. Combined oral contraceptives have been a key component of the chronic treatment of women with PCOS; improving androgen excess and regulating menstrual cycles. The effect of OCs on ovarian folliculogenesis significantly decreases androgen production. This mechanism was confirmed in both healthy women and women with PCOS. In obese patients with PCOS, it is likely that the suppression of androgen production is not as significant. It is thus possible to hypothesize that the effects of OCs in PCOS could be dependent on body weight and what is needed is a head-to-head comparison. The aim of this study is to compare the effect of 6 months of a low-dose oral contraceptive regimen of 24/4 DRSP 3 mg/EE 0.02mg/levomefolate calcium 0.451 mg on androgen profiles, cardiometabolic measures, B-vitamin status, and menstrual cycle regulation in three groups, normal (BMI 18-24.9 kg/ m2) overweight (BMI 25-29.9 kg/ m2) and obese (BMI 30-35 kg/ m2) women with PCOS. |
What is the ability of clofarabine + ara-C to eliminate minimal residual | I. To test the ability of clofarabine + ara-C (cytarabine) to eliminate minimal residual (MRD) in acute myeloid leukemia (AML) patients whose bone marrows exhibit complete remission by morphology. |
What is the main reason for the popularity of complementary and alternative medicine? | The role of complementary and alternative medicine for the management of MS symptoms lies in palliative care: this is borne out by the popularity of such therapies among people with MS. This article describes some of the major complementary and alternative therapies used to treat MS symptoms and whether their use is supported by evidence from randomized controlled trials. For the vast majority of complementary and alternative regimens researched, there are only one or two trials per therapy. Thus, it is difficult to recommend any specific modality. Several trials have investigated linoleic acid and its derivatives, magnetic field therapy and cannabis extracts. All three approaches appear to be of use in ameliorating MS symptoms but more research is needed. Other issues that should be considered by MS patients when taking a complementary or alternative therapy are discussed. |
What is the main cause of IGF signaling? | Insulin-like growth factor (IGF) signaling has been implicated in the resistance to hormonal therapy in breast cancer. Using a model of postmenopausal, estrogen-dependent breast cancer, we investigated the antitumor effects of the dual IGF-1R/InsR tyrosine kinase inhibitor BMS-754807 alone and in combination with letrozole or tamoxifen. BMS-754807 exhibited antiproliferative effects in vitro that synergized strongly in combination with letrozole or 4-hydroxytamoxifen and fulvestrant. Similarly, combined treatment of BMS-754807 with either tamoxifen or letrozole in vivo elicited tumor regressions not achieved by single-agent therapy. Notably, hormonal therapy enhanced the inhibition of IGF-1R/InsR without major side effects in animals. Microarray expression analysis revealed downregulation of cell-cycle control and survival pathways and upregulation of erbB in response to BMS-754807 plus hormonal therapy, particularly tamoxifen. Overall, these results offer a preclinical proof-of-concept for BMS-754807 as an antitumor agent in combination with hormonal therapies in hormone-sensitive breast cancer. Cooperative cell-cycle arrest, decreased proliferation, and enhanced promotion of apoptosis may contribute to antitumor effects to be gauged in future clinical investigations justified by our findings. |
What is the exclusion criteria? | Exclusion Criteria: |
What was the interview protocol developed from? | Interviews with a sample (N = 5) of substance abuse counselors were conducted concerning perceptions of their relationship with their clinical supervisors. The interview protocol was developed from four existing supervision relationship inventories, with an additional group of questions concerning satisfaction with supervision. Significant themes were determined from the examination of interview data. In addition, the supervisory relationship responses were compared to responses about supervisee satisfaction with supervision. Salient themes also were compared based upon counselor and supervisor substance abuse recovery status. The significance of recovery within the supervisory relationship is discussed as well. |
What criteria | Exclusion criteria: |
What is the relationship between AERPs and antisocial behavior? | Longitudinal study of AERPs in hyperactive and normal children: relationship to antisocial behavior. |
What is the case report of a child affected from anhydrotic ectoderma | Prosthetic rehabilitation of a child affected from anhydrotic ectodermal dysplasia: a case report. |
How many randomized treatments will be self-administered at the three Study Visit | - At the Screening Visit and the beginning of each Study Visit, each subject will be trained on the correct self-administration of MDI. The following three randomized treatments will be self-administered, at three Study Visits: |
What is the physiologic role of p16? | Since its discovery as a CDKI (cyclin-dependent kinase inhibitor) in 1993, the tumor suppressor p16 (INK4A/MTS-1/CDKN2A) has gained widespread importance in cancer. The frequent mutations and deletions of p16 in human cancer cell lines first suggested an important role for p16 in carcinogenesis. This genetic evidence for a causal role was significantly strengthened by the observation that p16 was frequently inactivated in familial melanoma kindreds. Since then, a high frequency of p16 gene alterations were observed in many primary tumors. In human neoplasms, p16 is silenced in at least three ways: homozygous deletion, methylation of the promoter, and point mutation. The first two mechanisms comprise the majority of inactivation events in most primary tumors. Additionally, the loss of p16 may be an early event in cancer progression, because deletion of at least one copy is quite high in some premalignant lesions. p16 is a major target in carcinogenesis, rivaled in frequency only by the p53 tumor-suppressor gene. Its mechanism of action as a CDKI has been elegantly elucidated and involves binding to and inactivating the cyclin D-cyclin-dependent kinase 4 (or 6) complex, and thus renders the retinoblastoma protein inactive. This effect blocks the transcription of important cell-cycle regulatory proteins and results in cell-cycle arrest. Although p16 may be involved in cell senescence, the physiologic role of p16 is still unclear. Future work will focus on studies of the upstream events that lead to p16 expression and its mechanism of regulation, and perhaps lead to better therapeutic strategies that can improve the clinical course of many lethal cancers. |
What is the frequency of postoperative complications? | To evaluate the effect of tube decompression of the stomach after elective colorectal operations, 97 patients were randomly allocated to postoperative treatment with or without nasogastric tubes. Flatus passed earlier in the patient group without tubes. However, no significant differences were found between the two groups with respect to duration and severity of postoperative paralysis, as measured by occurrence and duration of nausea and vomiting, postoperative peroral fluid intake and time for defecation. The frequencies of postoperative complications were small in both groups and without any difference between groups. Tube decompression of the stomach does not relieve intestinal paralysis after elective colorectal operations. Tube decompression should be used only in patients with paralytic ileus. |
What is the key molecule for autophagy? | Autophagy is one of the downstream effector mechanisms for elimination of intracellular microbes following activation of the Toll-like receptors (TLRs). Although the detailed molecular mechanism for this cellular process is still unclear, Beclin 1, a key molecule for autophagy, has been suggested to play a role. Heat shock protein 90 (Hsp90) is a molecular chaperone that regulates the stability of signaling proteins. Herein, we show that Hsp90 forms a complex with Beclin 1 through an evolutionarily conserved domain to maintain the stability of Beclin 1. In monocytic cells, geldanamycin (GA), an Hsp90 inhibitor, effectively promoted proteasomal degradation of Beclin 1 in a concentration-dependent (EC(50) 100 nM) and time-dependent (t(50) 2 h) manner. In contrast, KNK437/Hsp inhibitor I had no effect. Hsp90 specifically interacted with Beclin 1 but not with other adapter proteins in the TLR signalsome. Treatment of cells with GA inhibited TLR3- and TLR4-mediated autophagy. In addition, S. typhimurium infection-induced autophagy was blocked by GA treatment. This further suggested a role of the Hsp90/Beclin 1 in controlling autophagy in response to microbial infections. Taken together, our data revealed that by maintaining the homeostasis of Beclin 1, Hsp90 plays a novel role in TLR-mediated autophagy. |
What is the first time Imatinib mesylate therapy has been induced | - Must be documented disease progression after imatinib mesylate therapy OR documented lack of cytogenetic response 6 months post-imatinib mesylate initiation OR imatinib mesylate intolerance |
What is NicVAX? | NicVAX (Nabi Biopharmaceuticals). |
What is the GR-specific effect of okadaic acid observed only at | The glucocorticoid receptor (GR) and the mineralocorticoid receptor (MR) bind similar ligands and target genes in vitro yet have distinct roles in vivo. With a single exception, known mechanisms conferring specificity have been limited to prereceptor mechanisms. These alone cannot account for specificity, particularly at a transcriptional level. These studies aimed to determine whether receptor-specific transcriptional regulation via physiological modulators of cellular signaling pathways, and MR-, as well as GR-specific interactions, could be demonstrated. By comparing modulation of GR- and MR-mediated transactivation in renal LLC-PK1 cells, we have identified several activators of intracellular signaling pathways that discriminate between the GR and the MR and demonstrate that differential regulation occurs at relatively specific points in the signaling pathway. The phosphatase inhibitor, okadaic acid, and the protein kinase G activator, sodium nitroprusside, stimulate only GR-mediated transactivation, in contrast to modulators of other protein kinase pathways that act in parallel on both receptors. The GR-specific effect of okadaic acid is observed only at doses where both phosphatases 1 and 2A are inhibited. MR-specific modulators include a centrally active alpha-2 adrenergic agonist and the thyroid receptor. Comparison of the interaction between the thyroid receptor and the GR, or the MR, distinguish two types of repression, only one of which is receptor-specific. These studies identify several signal transduction pathways that can differentially activate either the MR or the GR at a transcriptional level and might play physiological roles in conferring MR- or GR-specific regulation. |
What is the diagnostic approach to inflammatory disease of the pancreas? | A diagnostic approach to inflammatory disease of the pancreas by means of endoscopic retrograde cholangio-pancreatography. |
What is one of the most common complications in patients after HSCT? | BACKGROUND & OBJECTIVE: Veno-occlusive disease of the liver (VOD) is one of the most common complications in patients after hematopoietic stem cell transplantation (HSCT). So far, the mortality of severe VOD is almost 100%. How to deal with the disease remains to be an unresolved problem. This study was to explore more efficient methods of prevention and treatment of VOD. METHODS: Clinical data of 18 patients undergoing allogeneic HSCT were analyzed. All the patients were pretreated with busulfan and cyclophosphamide, and treated with prostaglandin E1, glutathione and ornithine aspartate before HSCT to prevent VOD. Prostagland E1, low molecular weight heparin and tissue plasminogen activator (tPA) were used to treat the patient with VOD. RESULTS: The serum level of glutamate-pyruvate transaminase was elevated in 11 patients after HSCT, and all the patients were cured. Only 1 patient suffered VOD which was severe. Prostaglandin E1 and low molecular weight heparin were not effective in this case, while tPA was. The side effect of tPA was bleeding of the skin and mucosa. CONCLUSIONS: The combination of prostaglandin E1, glutathione and ornithine aspartate is probably effective and safe in preventing VOD for it aims at many aspects of pathogenesis of VOD. tPA can be used carefully as a choice of treating severe VOD. |
What is the term for anesthesia? | [Peridural anesthesia with bupivacaine-CO2 and bupivacaine-HCl. A comparative study]. |
What is the medical condition or psychiatric condition or occupational responsibilities that preclude | - Medical or psychiatric condition or occupational responsibilities that preclude subject compliance with the protocol |
How many times will each measurement be repeated? | Each measurement will be repeated at least 3 times, until at least 2 reproducible measurements are obtained. |
What was the coding structure of the visits? | OBJECTIVE: To use observation to understand how decisions about higher-risk treatments, such as biologics, are made in pediatric chronic conditions. METHODS: Gastroenterology and rheumatology providers who prescribe biologics were recruited. Families were recruited when they had an outpatient appointment in which treatment with biologics was likely to be discussed. Consent/assent was obtained to video the visit. Audio of the visits in which a discussion of biologics took place were transcribed and analyzed. Our coding structure was based on prior research, shared decision making (SDM) concepts, and the initial recorded visits. Coded data were analyzed using content analysis and comparison with an existing model of SDM. RESULTS: We recorded 21 visits that included discussions of biologics. In most visits, providers initiated the decision-making discussion. Detailed information was typically given about the provider's preferred option with less information about other options. There was minimal elicitation of preferences, treatment goals, or prior knowledge. Few parents or patients spontaneously stated their preferences or concerns. An implicit or explicit treatment recommendation was given in nearly all visits, although rarely requested. In approximately one-third of the visits, the treatment decision was never made explicit, yet steps were taken to implement the provider's preferred treatment. CONCLUSIONS: We observed limited use of SDM, despite previous research indicating that parents wish to collaborate in decision making. To better achieve SDM in chronic conditions, providers and families need to strive for bidirectional sharing of information and an explicit family role in decision making. |
Eye disorders | Eye disorders |
What is the difference between adaptation and toxicity? | Alteration of liver cell function and proliferation: differentiation between adaptation and toxicity. |
What is cancer? | - cancer |
What is the exclusion criteria? | Exclusion Criteria: |
How many cycles were performed with 3.2+/-1.3 embryos transferred? | OBJECTIVE: To verify whether advantages can derive from the implementation of preimplantation genetic diagnosis for aneuploidy in patients with a poor prognosis of full-term pregnancy, compared with conventional treatment procedures. DESIGN: A randomized, controlled study. SETTING: Reproductive Medicine Unit of the Societa Italiana Studi Medicina della Riproduzione, Bologna, Italy. PATIENT(S): In a total of 262 stimulated cycles, women presented with the following poor-prognosis indications: maternal age of > or =36 years (n = 157), > or =3 previous IVF failures (n = 54), and an altered karyotype (n = 51). After giving consent, 127 patients underwent preimplantation genetic diagnosis for aneuploidy, whereas 135 controls underwent assisted zona hatching. INTERVENTION(S): Analysis of chromosomes XY, 13, 14, 15, 16, 18, 21, and 22 was carried out with the fluorescence in situ hybridization technique in a blastomere biopsied from day 3 embryos. Assisted zona hatching was performed on day 3 embryos from the control group. MAIN OUTCOME MEASURE(S): Embryo morphology and chromosomal status, number of transferred embryos, clinical pregnancies, implantation rates, and abortions. RESULT(S): In the study group, 717 embryos were analyzed by fluorescence in situ hybridization, and 60% were chromosomally abnormal. A mean of 2.3+/-0.9 euploid embryos were transferred in 99 cycles, resulting in 37 clinical pregnancies (37%) and a 22.5% ongoing implantation rate. In the control group, 126 cycles were performed with 3.2+/-1.3 embryos transferred, yielding 34 clinical pregnancies (27%) and a 10.2% ongoing implantation rate. CONCLUSION(S): The advantage of selecting embryos with a normal chromosome complement has an immediate impact on the ongoing implantation rate, especially in patients aged > or =38 years and carriers of an altered karyotype. |
What is the name of the thalamic/subthalamic region? | Conventional AC-PC based DBS implantation in the thalamic/subthalamic region (Vim-cZI) starting as awake surgery with a brief general anesthesia for stimulator implantation at the end of surgery. |
How many patients entered a sixth year of LC monotherapy? | BACKGROUND/AIMS: Lanthanum carbonate (LC, FOSRENOL) is an effective phosphate binder for which tolerability and a safety profile have been reported in haemodialysis patients. Patients from previous studies entered a 2-year extension, enabling assessment of efficacy and safety for up to 6 years of LC monotherapy. METHODS: Patients from four previous trials entered this study. RESULTS: Ninety-three patients started the extension, with 22 entering a sixth year of LC treatment. Two-thirds of all patients received LC doses of 2,250 or 3,000 mg/day. Reductions in serum phosphate and calcium x phosphate product were maintained for up to 6 years. There were no new or unexpected adverse events (AEs), and no increase in the incidence of events with increasing treatment exposure. Over the complete duration of therapy, treatment-related AEs occurred in 25.8% of patients and were primarily gastrointestinal in nature. No clinically relevant changes in liver function tests were observed and there was no evidence of adverse effects on the liver, bone or the central nervous system. CONCLUSIONS: LC monotherapy was effective and well tolerated for up to 6 years with no evidence of safety concerns or increased frequency of AEs. |
What is a common type of cephalosporin? | Ceftriaxone is a widely used third-generation cephalosporin. It is generally very safe, but complications of biliary pseudolithiasis and, rarely, nephrolithiasis have been reported in children. These complications generally resolve spontaneously with cessation of the ceftriaxone therapy; however, they may symptomatically mimic more serious clinical problems, such as cholecystitis. We report a case of both ceftriaxone-induced biliary pseudolithiasis and nephrolithiasis. |
What is the IRF5 risk haplotype? | Both genetic and environmental interactions affect systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) development and pathogenesis. One known genetic factor associated with lupus is a haplotype of the interferon regulatory factor 5 (IRF5) gene. Analysis of global gene expression microarray data using gene set enrichment analysis identified multiple interferon- and inflammation-related gene sets significantly overrepresented in cells with the risk haplotype. Pathway analysis using expressed genes from the significant gene sets impacted by the IRF5 risk haplotype confirmed significant correlation with the interferon pathway, Toll-like receptor pathway, and the B-cell receptor pathway. SLE patients with the IRF5 risk haplotype have a heightened interferon signature, even in an unstimulated state (P = 0.011), while patients with the IRF5 protective haplotype have a B cell interferon signature similar to that of controls. These results identify multiple genes in functionally significant pathways which are affected by IRF5 genotype. They also establish the IRF5 risk haplotype as a key determinant of not only the interferon response, but also other B-cell pathways involved in SLE. |
How many days does the day of the day? | • 205 days • 216 days |
What is the functional capability of CD3+CD4-CD8- and CD3+ | Analysis of the functional capabilities of CD3+CD4-CD8- and CD3+CD4+CD8+ human T cell clones. |
What was the highest magnitude of association for higher STV? | BACKGROUND: Decline in cognitive performance is associated with gait deterioration. Our objectives were: 1) to determine, from an original study in older community-dwellers without diagnosis of dementia, which gait parameters, among slower gait speed, higher stride time variability (STV) and Timed Up & Go test (TUG) delta time, were most strongly associated with lower performance in two cognitive domains (i.e., episodic memory and executive function); and 2) to quantitatively synthesize, with a systematic review and meta-analysis, the association between gait performance and cognitive decline (i.e., mild cognitive impairment (MCI) and dementia). METHODS: Based on a cross-sectional design, 934 older community-dwellers without dementia (mean+/-standard deviation, 70.3+/-4.9years; 52.1% female) were recruited. A score at 5 on the Short Mini-Mental State Examination defined low episodic memory performance. Low executive performance was defined by clock-drawing test errors. STV and gait speed were measured using GAITRite system. TUG delta time was calculated as the difference between the times needed to perform and to imagine the TUG. Then, a systematic Medline search was conducted in November 2013 using the Medical Subject Heading terms "Delirium," "Dementia," "Amnestic," "Cognitive disorders" combined with "Gait" OR "Gait disorders, Neurologic" and "Variability." FINDINGS: A total of 294 (31.5%) participants presented decline in cognitive performance. Higher STV, higher TUG delta time, and slower gait speed were associated with decline in episodic memory and executive performances (all P-values <0.001). The highest magnitude of association was found for higher STV (effect size = -0.74 [95% Confidence Interval (CI): -1.05;-0.43], among participants combining of decline in episodic memory and in executive performances). Meta-analysis underscored that higher STV represented a gait biomarker in patients with MCI (effect size = 0.48 [95% CI: 0.30;0.65]) and dementia (effect size = 1.06 [95% CI: 0.40;1.72]). CONCLUSION: Higher STV appears to be a motor phenotype of cognitive decline. |
HIV positivity | - HIV positivity |
What type of goiter is a benign non-toxic goiter? | - Patients undergoing hemi- or total thyroidectomy for benign non-toxic goiter with pressure symptoms |
What is the name of the two receptor antagonists that are involved in Pavlovian cu | RATIONALE: Glutamate and orexin/hypocretin systems are involved in Pavlovian cue-triggered drug seeking. OBJECTIVES: Here, we asked whether orexin and glutamate interact within ventral tegmental area (VTA) to promote reinstatement of extinguished cocaine seeking in a rat self-administration paradigm. METHODS/RESULTS: We first found that bilateral VTA microinjections of the orexin 1 receptor (OX1R) antagonist SB-334867 (SB) or a cocktail of the AMPA and NMDA glutamate receptor antagonists CNQX/AP-5 reduced reinstatement of cocaine seeking elicited by cues. In contrast, neither of these microinjections nor systemic SB reduced cocaine-primed reinstatement. Additionally, unilateral VTA OX1R blockade combined with contralateral VTA glutamate blockade attenuated cue-induced reinstatement, indicating that VTA orexin and glutamate are simultaneously necessary for cue-induced reinstatement. We further probed the receptor specificity of glutamate actions in VTA, finding that CNQX, but not AP-5, dose-dependently attenuated cue-induced reinstatement, indicating that AMPA but not NMDA receptor transmission is required for this type of cocaine seeking. Given the necessary roles of both OX1 and AMPA receptors in VTA for cue-induced cocaine seeking, we hypothesized that these signaling pathways interact during this behavior. We found that PEPA, a positive allosteric modulator of AMPA receptors, completely reversed the SB-induced attenuation of reinstatement behavior. Intra-VTA PEPA alone did not alter cue-induced reinstatement, indicating that potentiating AMPA activity with this drug specifically compensates for OX1R blockade, rather than simply inducing or enhancing reinstatement itself. CONCLUSIONS: These findings show that cue-induced, but not cocaine-primed, reinstatement of cocaine seeking is dependent upon orexin and AMPA receptor interactions in VTA. |
What is the practice of institute review board in China? | Principles of ethics review on traditional medicine and the practice of institute review board in China. |
What is the effect of telmisartan on selected adipokines, | Effect of telmisartan on selected adipokines, insulin sensitivity, and substrate utilization during insulin-stimulated conditions in patients with metabolic syndrome and impaired fasting glucose. |
What is the name of the TECHNIQUE CLOSED WINDOW VS. | CLOSED WINDOW VS. OPEN WINDOW TECHNIQUE IN MANAGEMENT OF PALATALLY IMPACTED CANINES: |
What is the selenite incubated with? | Selenite incubated with NADPH and mammalian thioredoxin reductase yields selenide, which inhibits lipoxygenase and changes the electron spin resonance spectrum of the active site iron. |
What is the cause of the seat belt contusion? | [Laryngeo-tracheal contusion caused by a seat belt]. |
What is the DNA content determined by photophotometrically determined DNA content, mitotic index and | [Cytophotometrically determined DNA content, mitotic index and proliferative activity clinical gastric cancer]. |
What is the flora of inpatients and isolation frequency of Staphyloc | [Intestinal flora of inpatients and isolation frequency of methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus]. |
What is the value of laparoscopic hemihepatectomy compared to open | The added value of the laparoscopic hemihepatectomy compared to the open hemihepatectomy has never been studied in a randomized controlled setting. Therefore, the multicenter international ORANGE II PLUS - trial has been constructed and will provide evidence on the merits of laparoscopic versus open hemihepatectomy in terms of time to functional recovery, hospital length of stay, intraoperative blood loss, operation time, resection margin, time to adjuvant chemotherapy initiation, readmission percentage, (liver-specific) morbidity, quality of life, body image, reasons for delay of discharge after functional recovery, long term incidence of incisional hernias, hospital and societal costs during one year and overall five-year survival. |
What is the metalloproteinases 2 and 9 of Matrix? | Matrix metalloproteinases 2 and 9 correlate with alanine aminotransferase and hepatitis C virus in blood donors. |
What is the first step in the leukotriene pathway? | GSK2190915 is a high affinity 5-lipoxygenase-activating protein (FLAP) inhibitor that attenuates the production of leukotrienes through the blockage of the first step in the leukotriene pathway, 5-lipoxygenase (5-LO) activation. GSK2190915 inhibits the production of leukotriene B4 (LTB4) and cysteinyl leukotrienes (cysLTs). |
What is the kinetics of bile acids and cholesterol adsorption from biological | The kinetics of bile acids (BA) and cholesterol adsorption from biological fluids (bile) and reference solutions on carbon SCN were compared with conventional medical carbon with the view of elucidating the role of adsorption in improving cholesterol metabolism. It was found that the adsorptive capacity of carbon adsorbents is determined, primarily, by their porous structure as well by the chemical properties of the adsorbing surface. The enterosorbents were tested both in experimental animals and in clinical trials and are now successfully employed for preventing and treating atherosclerosis as well as for normalizing lipid metabolism. A procedure for surgical treatment combined with adsorptive detoxication (enterosorption) for patients with obstructive jaundice has been developed. |
What is the main reason for the study to be successful? | 7. Must be willing to use a barrier method of contraception to avoid pregnancy throughout the study, and for at least 56 days following completion of the study. |
What are the study activities? | Study activities: |
What is the name of the subject that is excluded from treatment? | - Subjects at risk for tuberculosis (TB). Specifically excluded will be subjects with a history of active TB within the last 3 years and subjects with latent TB must have a negative chest X-ray and be started on treatment for at least 28 days prior to dosing. |
What type of bleeding has been reported in haemophiliac patients? | There have been reports of increased bleeding, including spontaneous skin haematomas and haemarthroses, in haemophiliac patients type A and B treated with protease inhibitors. |
What is the clinically significant active infection? | 16. Any clinically significant active infection, including, but not limited to, human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) infection; |
How many dogs were diagnosed at necroscopy? | In the period 1984-1991, mesenteric torsion was diagnosed in ten dogs at necroscopy. The dogs were all of large breeds and were aged between 1 and 5 years. Mesenteric torsion was considered as clinical diagnosis in only one dog. |
What is the nonpeptide orally active vasopressin V1 receptor antagonist? | Pharmacokinetics, safety, and pharmacologic effects of OPC-21268, a nonpeptide orally active vasopressin V1 receptor antagonist, in humans. |
What is the maximum amount of valproate? | Valproate is an important anticonvulsant currently in clinical use for the treatment of seizures. We used electrophysiological and tracer uptake methods to examine the effect of valproate on a gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA) transporter (mouse GAT3) expressed in Xenopus laevis oocytes. In the absence of GABA, valproate (up to 50 mm) had no noticeable effect on the steady-state electrogenic properties of mGAT3. In the presence of GABA, however, valproate enhanced the GABA-evoked steady-state inward current in a dose-dependent manner with a half-maximal concentration of 4.6 +/- 0.5 mm. Maximal enhancement of the GABA-evoked current was 275 +/- 10%. Qualitatively similar observations were obtained for human GAT1 and mouse GAT4. The valproate enhancement did not alter the Na(+) or Cl(-) dependence of the steady-state GABA-evoked currents. Uptake experiments under voltage clamp suggested that the valproate enhancement of the GABA-evoked current was matched by an enhancement in GABA uptake. Thus, despite the increase in GABA-evoked current, ion/GABA co-transport remained tightly coupled. Uptake experiments indicated that valproate is not transported by mouse GAT3 in the absence or presence of GABA. Valproate also enhanced the rate of the partial steps involved in transporter presteady-state charge movements. We propose that valproate increases the turnover rate of GABA transporters by an allosteric mechanism. The data suggest that at its therapeutic concentration, valproate may enhance the activity of neuronal and glial GABA transporters by up to 10%. |
Hypoxia and amino acid supplementation synergistically promote the osteogenesis of human me | Hypoxia and amino acid supplementation synergistically promote the osteogenesis of human mesenchymal stem cells on silk protein scaffolds. |
What is the name of the digital blood flow scintigraphy that is used to diagnose | Diagnosis of Raynaud's phenomenon by (99m)Tc-hydroxymethylene diphosphonate digital blood flow scintigraphy after one-hand chilling. |
What is the most common cause of vertebral osteomyelitis? | Proteus organisms are rare causes of osteomyelitis. Vertebral osteomyelitis caused by this organism has only been reported in 21 cases over the last 75 years. Although Staphylococcus aureus is the most common cause of vertebral osteomyelitis, rare causes such as P. mirabilis may need to be considered in the context of recent urinary tract infection or urological surgery. Therefore biopsy should be undertaken to establish the causative organism and determine appropriate antibiotic susceptibility. |
What is the correlation between p53 protein overexpression in adenoma and carcinoma | Clinicopathologic correlation of p53 protein overexpression in adenoma and carcinoma of the ampulla of Vater. |
What was the IL-8 production of in placental tissues? | Interleukin-8 (IL-8) exerts unique chemotactic and activating activity on neutrophils. To address the significance of IL-8 in the fetoplacental unit during pregnancy, we cultured human placental explants that had been obtained by vaginal delivery, Caesarean section, or artificial abortion and then measured the IL-8 titer in the culture supernatants by enzyme immunoassay (EIA). Chorionic tissue from the first trimester produced a significant amount of IL-8 (2.2 +/- 0.4 ng/ml/10 mg, n = 5), while placentae in the second trimester (8.3 +/- 1.6 ng/ml/10 mg, n = 7) or at term (9.2 +/- 0.7 ng/ml/10 mg, n = 29) produced significantly higher amounts of IL-8. The presence or absence of labor did not affect the amount of placental IL-8 production. However, placentae with chorioamnionitis (25.2 +/- 1.6 ng/ml/10 mg, n = 9) showed significantly higher IL-8 production than those without chorioamnionitis (p less than 0.0001). Northern blot analysis of IL-8 mRNA expression demonstrated a constant level during pregnancy with or without chorioamnionitis, indicating the possibility that the major site of regulation of IL-8 synthesis in the placenta is posttranscriptional. Immunohistochemical analysis of first and third trimester placental tissues with rabbit anti-IL-8 antibody revealed the IL-8 producing cells to be trophoblasts and macrophage-like cells. IL-8 produced by the placental cells might contribute to potentiation of the immunocompetence of placental cells against bacteria invading the fetoplacental unit. |
What was the most frequent finding? | PURPOSE: To establish the prevalence of drusen in a population of over-65 year subjects residing in institutions. MATERIAL AND METHOD: A medical interview, ophthalmological examinations and midriatic retinography were performed in 392 older-than-65 year subjects living in homes for the elder (784 eyes). Each eye was reviewed by means of the Wissconsin Age-Related Maculopathy Grading System, in order to determine drusen frequency. RESULTS: Druses frequency totalled 33.3%. A great trend to symmetry was observed; bilateral in 23% of patients. The most frequent finding was multiple units (40 to 59 per eye), well defined soft drusen of 125 micrometer in size, which showed very little tendency to confluence. Twelve to 24% of macular area was affected by drusen. Subjects between ages of 65 to 74, presented the highest frequence. Drusen decreased with age from 75 years upwards. CONCLUSION: The observed drusen frequency found appear lower than those described in other studies outside our country, perhaps due to higher prevalence of media opacities. Midriatic retinography can be a good screening method for the detection of drusen. |
What was the average agreement between the methods' classification of the hospital performance? | BACKGROUND: In order to improve the quality of care delivered to patients and to enable patient choice, public reports comparing hospital performances are routinely published. Robust systems of hospital 'report cards' on performance monitoring and evaluation are therefore crucial in medical decision-making processes. In particular, such systems should effectively account for and minimise systematic differences with regard to definitions and data quality, care and treatment quality, and 'case mix'. METHODS: Four methods for assessing hospital performance on mortality outcome measures were considered. The methods included combinations of Bayesian fixed- and random-effects models, and risk-adjusted mortality rate, and rank-based profiling techniques. The methods were empirically compared using 30-day mortality in patients admitted with acute coronary syndrome. Agreement was firstly assessed using median estimates between risk-adjusted mortality rates for a hospital and between ranks associated with a hospital's risk-adjusted mortality rates. Secondly, assessment of agreement was based on a classification of hospitals into low, normal or high performing using risk-adjusted mortality rates and ranks. RESULTS: There was poor agreement between the point estimates of risk-adjusted mortality rates, but better agreement between ranks. However, for categorised performance, the observed agreement between the methods' classification of the hospital performance ranged from 90 to 98%. In only two of the six possible pair-wise comparisons was agreement reasonable, as reflected by a Kappa statistic; it was 0.71 between the methods of identifying outliers with the fixed-effect model and 0.77 with the hierarchical model. In the remaining four pair-wise comparisons, the agreement was, at best, moderate. CONCLUSIONS: Even though the inconsistencies among the studied methods raise questions about which hospitals performed better or worse than others, it seems that the choice of the definition of outlying performance is less critical than that of the statistical approach. Therefore there is a need to find robust systems of 'regulation' or 'performance monitoring' that are meaningful to health service practitioners and providers. |
What is the predominant force that drives fluid out of the pulmonary capillaries into the inter | Pulmonary capillary pressure (Pcap) is the predominant force that drives fluid out of the pulmonary capillaries into the interstitium. Increasing hydrostatic capillary pressure is directly proportional to the lung's transvascular filtration rate, and in the extreme leads to pulmonary edema. In the pulmonary circulation, blood flow arises from the transpulmonary pressure gradient, defined as the difference between pulmonary artery (diastolic) pressure and left atrial pressure. The resistance across the pulmonary vasculature consists of arterial and venous components, which interact with the capacitance of the compliant pulmonary capillaries. In pathological states such as acute respiratory distress syndrome, sepsis, and high altitude or neurogenic lung edema, the longitudinal distribution of the precapillary arterial and the postcapillary venous resistance varies. Subsequently, the relationship between Pcap and pulmonary artery occlusion pressure (PAOP) is greatly variable and Pcap can no longer be predicted from PAOP. In clinical practice, PAOP is commonly used to guide fluid therapy, and Pcap as a hemodynamic target is rarely assessed. This approach is potentially misleading. In the presence of a normal PAOP and an increased pressure gradient between Pcap and PAOP, the tendency for fluid leakage in the capillaries and subsequent edema development may substantially be underestimated. Tho-roughly validated methods have been developed to assess Pcap in humans. At the bedside, measurement of Pcap can easily be determined by analyzing a pressure transient after an acute pulmonary artery occlusion with the balloon of a Swan-Ganz catheter. |
What is the role of soft tissue structures in surgical leg lengthening? | [Behavior of soft tissue structures in surgical leg lengthening]. |
What is the name of the ophthalmia that is enigmatic mal | [Sympathetic ophthalmia, enigmatic malady]. |
What is the case-control study on selenium, zinc, and copper in plasma and | A case-control study on selenium, zinc, and copper in plasma and hair of subjects affected by breast and lung cancer. |
What was the median follow-up period for the BS? | BACKGROUND: Ante/neonatal Bartter syndrome (BS) is a hereditary salt-losing tubulopathy due to mutations in genes encoding proteins involved in NaCl reabsorption in the thick ascending limb of Henle's loop. Our aim was to study the frequency, clinical characteristics and outcome of each genetic subtype. METHODS: Charts of 42 children with mutations in KCNJ1 (n = 19), SLC12A1 (n = 13) CLCNKB (n = 6) or BSND (n = 4) were retrospectively analysed. The median follow-up was 8.3 [0.4-18.0] years. RESULTS: We describe 24 new mutations: 10 in KCNJ1, 11 in SLC12A1 and 3 in CLCNKB. The onset of polyhydramnios, birth term, height and weight were similar for all groups; three patients had no history of polyhydramnios or premature birth and had CLCNKB mutations according to a less severe renal sodium wasting. Contrasting with these data, patients with CLCNKB had the lowest potassium (P = 0.006 versus KCNJ1 and P = 0.034 versus SLC12A1) and chloride plasma concentrations (P = 0.039 versus KCNJ1 and P = 0.024 versus SLC12A1) and the highest bicarbonataemia (P = 0.026 versus KCNJ1 and P = 0.014 versus SLC12A1). Deafness at diagnosis was constant in patients with BSND mutations; transient neonatal hyperkalaemia was present in two-thirds of the children with KCNJ1 mutations. Nephrocalcinosis was constant in KCNJ1 and SLC12A1 but not in BSND and CLCNKB patients. In most cases, water/electrolyte supplementation + indomethacin led to catch-up growth. Three patients developed chronic renal failure: one with KCNJ1 mutations during the second decade of age and two with CLCNKB and BSND mutations and without nephrocalcinosis during the first year of life. CONCLUSIONS: We confirmed in a large cohort of ante/ neonatal BS that deafness, transient hyperkalaemia and severe hypokalaemic hypochloraemic alkalosis orientate molecular investigations to BSND, KCNJ1 and CLCNKB genes, respectively. Chronic renal failure is a rare event, associated in this cohort with three genotypes and not always associated with nephrocalcinosis. |
What was the most marked correlation between serum gold levels and urinary gold excretion? | In this study the value of undertaking routine blood and urine estimations was assessed in relation to achieving maximum efficacy and safety in chrysotherapy. It was found that a favourable response to gold was forthcoming in approximately two-thirds of patients and occurred irrespective of the patients' disease duration or severity, or the mean serum gold level or the mean urinary gold excretion, estimated immediately before the next gold injection was due. The presence of rheumatoid nodules and the patients' advancing age were associated with a less favourable clinical response to gold. Those patients who derived a marked benefit from chrysotherapy did so significantly earlier in their course than those who derived only moderate benefit. A frequent correlation was seen in individual patients between serum gold levels and urinary gold excretion. This was most marked in those patients showing a favourable response to gold. |
What is the cause of pulmonary venous drainage? | Obstructed right pulmonary venous drainage and ipsilateral lung hypoplasia. |
What was the main reason for the M4 model being applied to a US cohort of 60 | BACKGROUND: A logistic regression model (M4) was developed in the UK to predict the outcome for women with a pregnancy of unknown location (PUL) based on the initial two human chorionic gonadotrophin (hCG) values, 48 h apart. The purpose of this paper was to assess the utility of this model to predict the outcome for a woman (PUL) in a US population. METHODS: Diagnostic variables included log-transformed serum hCG average of two measurements, and linear and quadratic hCG ratios. Outcomes modeled were failing PUL, intrauterine pregnancy (IUP) and ectopic pregnancy (EP). This model was applied to a US cohort of 604 women presenting with symptomatic first-trimester pregnancies, who were followed until a definitive diagnosis was made. The model was applied before and after correcting for differences in terminology and diagnostic criteria. RESULTS: When retrospectively applied to the adjusted US population, the M4 model demonstrated lower areas under the curve compared with the UK population, 0.898 versus 0.988 for failing PUL/spontaneous miscarriage, 0.915 versus 0.981 for IUP and 0.831 versus 0.904 for EP. Whereas the model had 80% sensitivity for EP using UK data, this decreased to 49% for the US data, with similar specificities. Performance only improved slightly (55% sensitivity) when the US population was adjusted to better match the UK diagnostic criteria. CONCLUSIONS: A logistic regression model based on two hCG values performed with modest decreases in predictive ability in a US cohort for women at risk for EP compared with the original UK population. However, the sensitivity for EP was too low for the model to be used in clinical practice in its present form. Our data illustrate the difficulties of applying algorithms from one center to another, where the definitions of pathology may differ. |
What is the retinotectal map affected by the misexpression of the Emx- | Misexpression of the Emx-related homeobox genes cVax and mVax2 ventralizes the retina and perturbs the retinotectal map. |
What is the name of the THERAPY that is not used for radiotherapy or chemotherapy | PRIOR CONCURRENT THERAPY: No prior radiotherapy or chemotherapy (other than corticosteroids) No more than 31 days since definitive surgery |
What is the test that demonstrates signs or symptoms of angina during the exercise tolerance test? | - Experience signs or symptoms of angina during the exercise tolerance test (ETT) |
What is the patient in complete remission? | - The patient is in complete remission (i.e. CR1, CR2, …): |
- Injections intraarticulars or arthroscopy of the index knee within | - Intraarticular injections or arthroscopy of the index knee within 3 months prior to screening |
What was the multicenter study of tuberculosis in clinical autopsies | [Multicenter study of tuberculosis in clinical autopsies in Andalucia, in the 1973-1988 period]. |
What is the significance of the deletion syndrome? | [Chromosome 22q11 deletion syndrome and its relevance for child and adolescent psychiatry. An overview of etiology, physical symptoms, aspects of child development and psychiatric disorders]. |
- Pregnant or nursing women? | - Pregnant or nursing women |
What is the main problem related to NTDs? | Poverty is intrinsically related to the incidence of Neglected Tropical Diseases (NTDs). The main countries that have the lowest human development indices (HDI) and the highest burdens of NTDs are located in tropical and subtropical regions of the world. Among these countries is Brazil, which is ranked 70th in HDI. Nine out of the ten NTDs established by the World Health Organization (WHO) are present in Brazil. Leishmaniasis, tuberculosis, dengue fever and leprosy are present over almost the entire Brazilian territory. More than 90% of malaria cases occur in the Northern region of the country, and lymphatic filariasis and onchocerciasis occur in outbreaks in a particular region. The North and Northeast regions of Brazil have the lowest HDIs and the highest rates of NTDs. These diseases are considered neglected because there is not important investment in projects for the development of new drugs and vaccines and existing programs to control these diseases are not sufficient. Another problem related to NTDs is co-infection with HIV, which favors the occurrence of severe clinical manifestations and therapeutic failure. In this article, we describe the status of the main NTDs currently occurring in Brazil and relate them to the HDI and poverty. |
What vaccine has child received in 2009-10? | - Child has already received the 2009-10 seasonal (TIV) influenza vaccine; |
What was previously randomised in this clinical trial? | 15. Previously randomised in this clinical trial. |
What was GlaxoWellcome's new enzyme-inhibitor programme? | In 1998 GlaxoWellcome embarked upon a new enzyme-inhibitor programme. This programme featured an aggressive timeframe of seven years, from the start of medicinal chemistry through to drug launch. This period, dominated as it was by the constraints of the clinical programme, translated into a lead-optimization phase of no more than 12 months. In this article, we describe our attempts to meet this target, examining not only what we did and what worked, but also what didn't work and, most importantly, what we learnt as a result. At a time of considerable upheaval and challenge to the traditional model of drug discovery, we hope our experiences might stimulate interest, empathy and further discussion. |
What is the sway analysis used to quantify the warm-up phenomenon in myot | Trunk sway analysis to quantify the warm-up phenomenon in myotonia congenita patients. |
What is the PERI-ARTICULAR INFILTRATION ON OUT | SINGLE ADDUCTOR-CANAL-BLOCK VERSUS PERI-ARTICULAR INFILTRATION ON OUTCOME AFTER TOTAL KNEE ARTHROPLASTY: |
What is the basis for growth failure in children with ichthyosis? | Pathophysiologic basis for growth failure in children with ichthyosis: an evaluation of cutaneous ultrastructure, epidermal permeability barrier function, and energy expenditure. |
What is a subject who has any other significant respiratory condition in addition to COPD? | - Other Respiratory Disorders: Known alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency, active lung infections (such as tuberculosis), and lung cancer are absolute exclusionary conditions. A subject, who, in the opinion of the investigator, has any other significant respiratory condition in addition to COPD, should be excluded. Examples may include clinically significant bronchiectasis, pulmonary hypertension, sarcoidosis, or interstitial lung disease. Allergic rhinitis is not exclusionary. Other Diseases/Abnormalities: Subjects with historical or current evidence of clinically significant cardiovascular, neurological, psychiatric, renal, hepatic, immunological, endocrine (including uncontrolled diabetes or thyroid disease) or hematological abnormalities that are uncontrolled and/or a previous history of cancer in remission for <5 years prior to Visit 1 (localized carcinoma of the skin that has been resected for cure is not exclusionary). |
What is the labile sodium pump inhibitor? | The possibility that a circulating sodium pump inhibitor contributes to the pathogenesis of volume-dependent hypertension via an action on vascular smooth muscle (VSM) is supported by multiple lines of investigation, but remains controversial. We had two goals in this study. The first was to compare the pattern of contractile response of rabbit aorta induced by two candidates, ouabain and a labile sodium pump inhibitor that we have identified in the peritoneal dialysate of volume-expanded hypertensive patients with chronic renal failure. Our second goal was to examine the ability of Digibind, a Fab fragment of antisera directed against digoxin, to reverse VSM contraction induced by both agents. Ouabain induced a concentration-dependent contraction, which was delayed in onset, was gradual, and reached a stable plateau after many hours. The labile sodium pump inhibitor induced a qualitatively similar series of responses. Digibind rapidly reversed the contractile responses to both sodium pump inhibitors, with a rate of relaxation that matched that induced by physical removal of the pump inhibitor from the bath. For ouabain, the Digibind:ouabain stoichiometry was highly predictable. When Digibind was present in a molar concentration equivalent to that of ouabain, or less, it had no effect. When the Digibind concentration was twice that of ouabain, complete relaxation occurred. Although the concentration:VSM response relationship for ouabain was steep, the concentration:effect interaction with Digibind was even more steep. The molar concentration of Digibind required to reverse the effects of the labile endogenous inhibitor from peritoneal dialysate was consistently lower than that for ouabain, which is compatible with either greater potency of the labile factor in VSM or greater affinity for Digibind. These findings are compatible with a role for one or more endogenous sodium pump inhibitors as the determinant of vascular smooth muscle tone in the volume-sensitive hypertension of renal disease. |
How many dye workers were in factory A? | BACKGROUND: Past studies have analyzed individual jobs in dyestuff factories, materials manufactured and handled, age at exposure, and the duration of exposure in factories as factors related to the occurrence of urothelial tumors. None of these studies was based on long-term observation, and the factors involved in the occurrence of urothelial tumors remain controversial. In this study, various factors that may affect the occurrence of urothelial tumors in dye workers were assessed by multivariate analysis. METHODS: Three hundred and sixty-three workers in nine member factories of the Dyestuff Industrial Cooperative Association were included the study. Factory A is a large dyestuff chemical factory in Wakayama City with 218 dye workers. The other eight smaller factories employ a total of 145 dye workers. Correlations of tumor occurrence with a variety of factors, such as dyestuff intermediates manufactured and handled, types of job in the factory, age at the beginning of occupational exposure, and the duration of exposure were examined by multivariate analysis using multiple logistic models. RESULTS: Urothelial tumors were found in 58 (16.0%) of the 363 dye workers in the nine member factories of the Cooperative Association examined in the present study. The incidence in workers in Factory A, 5.5% (12 patients), was significantly (P < 0.01) lower than the overall incidence, while that in the eight small factories, 31.7% (46 patients), was significantly (P < 0.01) higher than the overall incidence. The risk factors significantly related to tumor occurrence in the 363 dye workers were benzidine (odds ratio, 8.302) as a dyestuff intermediate, manufacturing work (odds ratio, 4.631), and a long period of exposure (odds ratio, 1.018). Correlations of the tumor occurrence with the various factors were examined by multivariate analysis using multiple logistic models. In the total of 363 workers, benzidine as an intermediate (P < 0.05), manufacturing work (P < 0.01) and the duration of exposure (P < 0.01) were found to have contributed to the urothelial tumor occurrence. In Factory A, benzidine as an intermediate (P < 0.01) and duration of exposure (P < 0.05) contributed significantly to tumor occurrence. CONCLUSIONS: 1) The manufacturing and handling of benzidine and duration of exposure contribute significantly to the occurrence of occupational urothelial tumor, the former more strongly than the latter; 2) the contribution of different job types to tumor occurrence may be dependent upon the industrial health and safety practices in each factory. |
What is the bleeding of urinary tract within 3 months of CRU admission? | 8. Urinary tract bleeding within 3 months of CRU admission, including microscopic hematuria on screening or baseline urinalysis. |
What is the name of the study that analyzed skin tests and allergen-specific Ig | [A comparative study on skin tests and allergen-specific IgE levels determined by enzyme allergo-sorbent testing (EAST)]. |
What was the likely sifnificant difference in the occurrence of gonor | A probably sifnificant difference (p smaller that 0.05) in the occurrence of gonorrhoea was found between women with and without concomitant C. albicans infection. Although this difference could support the recently reported inhibitory effect by C. albicans on N. gonorrhoeae in vitro another explanation might be the possibility that too many women with vaginal candidiasis and no risk for a gonococcal infection were included in the material. There was nothing to support the in vivo effect of C. albicans on N. gonorrhoeae as negative gonococcal cultures in women known to have been exposed to N. gonorrhoeae could not be correlated with the presence of C. albicans. Until the clinical importance of the inhibitory factor of C. albicans has been studied further, the clinician has to be aware of the possibility of false negative gonococcal cultures from women with vaginal candidiasis. |
What was the average pain of children aged 5-11 years? | Because children with physically unexplained chronic pain may become the adult chronic pain patients of the future and because little is known about this pain and its impact on children and their families, a sample of 77 children (aged 5-11 years) with this type of pain was investigated. The hypothesis was tested that a greater intensity and frequency of pain would diminish the child's functional status and increase the impact of pain on the family. All mothers completed questionnaires on their perception of the child's functional status and the impact of pain on the family, and kept a diary on the child's pain for three successive weeks, three times daily, by means of a visual analogue scale (VAS) and a behavioural list. The study was conducted in the general population in the Rotterdam area. Children with physically unexplained chronic pain were sampled from those participating in a prevalence study on chronic pain. The average pain was mild (30 mm on a 0-100 mm VAS), moderately frequent (34% of the diary registration time), increased during the day, and did not result in large school absence or problems with functional status. Pain showed a relatively negative impact on family life, especially restrictions in social life and personal strain were reported, based on behavioural changes. In particular, abdominal pain, headache and limb pain are already present in considerable numbers at a young age. Longitudinal research should determine whether shifts occur in pain experience and locations from childhood and adulthood and in different dimensions of functional status and, more broadly, in quality of life resulting from pain. |
How many healthy subjects will be carriers of the C allele of the rs20232 | 4. About half of the healthy subjects will be carriers of the C allele of the rs2023239 SNP and half will not. |