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What is the name of the analysis of four angiosarcomas from deep and | Cytogenetic analysis of four angiosarcomas from deep and superficial soft tissue. |
What is the name of the marker of response to combined antiangiogenic and epidermal | Gene and protein expression markers of response to combined antiangiogenic and epidermal growth factor targeted therapy in renal cell carcinoma. |
What is the name of the study that analyzed leukocyte-mediated acute injury? | STUDY OBJECTIVE: To report that leukocyte-mediated acute injury may develop in a nonhypoxic lung after hypoxia-reoxygenation injury of the hypoxic lung and in other systemic organs in patients with reexpansion pulmonary edema. DESIGN: Case report analysis with examination of the literature. SETTING: Intensive care unit of a university hospital. PATIENTS: Three patients who developed leukocyte-mediated acute lung injury in the contralateral lung and systemic organ injury after ipsilateral reexpansion pulmonary edema of a collapsed lung. MEASUREMENTS: To rule out the possibility that the acute lung injury in the contralateral lung was an extension of the hypoxia-reoxygenation injury, we analyzed changes in leukocyte and platelet count in the peripheral blood in relation to the development of pulmonary edema in each lung. Changes in liver enzymes were also analyzed to detect hepatic dysfunction as evidence of systemic organ injury. MAIN RESULTS: Both leukocyte and platelet counts decreased when reexpansion pulmonary edema developed, and decreased further when acute lung injury developed in the contralateral lung (F = 8.42, p = 0.037 for leukocytes, and F = 17.66, p = 0.01 for platelets). Significant hepatic dysfunction developed, as evidenced by increases in both serum bilirubin (p = 0.001) and lactic dehydrogenase, indicating the presence of systemic organ injury. CONCLUSIONS: The hypoxia-reoxygenation injury of one lung can induce acute lung injury in the other lung and systemic organ injury. |
What program does American Heart Association follow? | - Will follow American Heart Association weight maintaining diet and exercise program or equivalent beginning 2 weeks prior to study until poststudy visit. |
What is the brain conduction of median nerve from digits? | Sensory neural conduction of median nerve from digits and palm stimulation in carpal tunnel syndrome. |
Renal: | Renal: |
What other solid tumors are found in the tumors? | - Other solid tumors |
What is the name of the vasodilator stress agent Regadenoson | We will prospectively study 120 consecutive patients referred to CTCA for the evaluation of CAD. MDCT imaging will be performed according to the standard clinical protocol, which will be modified to include the vasodilator stress agent Regadenoson (Astellas Pharmaceutical) recently approved by the FDA for clinical use. This selective A2A agonist will be administered according to the manufacturer's guidelines. Imaging will be performed during its peak effect. |
What is the cause of thrombocytopenia? | Changes in all three blood cell systems could be covered in 50 patients treated in hospital for a high consumption of alcohol for years and even decades. There is no symptom which would be pathognomonic for alcoholism in itself. Macrocytosis and macrovoluminity of erythrocytes, hyper-sideraemia and thrombocytopenia were findings frequently encountered and easily to be identified. Megaloblasts, vacuolization, and an increase of sideroblasts could be observed in the bone-marrow. The prompt reversibility of these changes mentioned by simply abstaining from alcohol has a considerable diagnostic utility. The impact of liver damage partly produced by an accompanying spleen enlargement could only be ensured for thrombocyte depression. The increase of methaemoglobin which is unequivocal but without any clinical importance can also be reversed by alcohol deprivation. From a haematological point of view an alcoholic is endangered by a deficient immunological system. Haemorrhagic diatheses due to thrombocytopenia, thromboembolic complications during rebound-thrombocytosis and severe haemolyses can rarely be found. |
What was the primary search of relevant terms? | OBJECTIVE: To summarize the current evidence on the effects of preoperative exercise therapy in patients awaiting invasive surgery on postoperative complication rate and length of hospital stay. DATA SOURCES: A primary search of relevant key terms was conducted in the electronic databases of PubMed, EMBASE, PEDro and CINAHL. REVIEW METHODS: Studies were included if they were controlled trials evaluating the effects of preoperative exercise therapy on postoperative complication rate and length of hospital stay. The methodological quality of included studies was independently assessed by two reviewers using the PEDro scale. Statistical pooling was performed when studies were comparable in terms of patient population and outcome measures. Results were separately described if pooling was not possible. RESULTS: Twelve studies of patients undergoing joint replacement, cardiac or abdominal surgery were included. The PEDro scores ranged from 4 to 8 points. Preoperative exercise therapy consisting of inspiratory muscle training or exercise training prior to cardiac or abdominal surgery led to a shorter hospital stay and reduced postoperative complication rates. By contrast, length of hospital stay and complication rates of patients after joint replacement surgery were not significantly affected by preoperative exercise therapy consisting of strength and/or mobility training. CONCLUSION: Preoperative exercise therapy can be effective for reducing postoperative complication rates and length of hospital stay after cardiac or abdominal surgery. More research on the utility of preoperative exercise therapy and its long-term effects is needed as well as insight in the benefits of using risk models. |
What is the current uncontrolled hypertension with systolic blood pressure in excess | - Current uncontrolled hypertension with systolic blood pressure in excess of 200 mm Hg or diastolic blood pressure in excess of 115 mm Hg at the time of enrollment. |
What did FOXY do? | - did not participate in FOXY |
What is the combination of gemcitabine and carboplatin? | A phase II study of the combination of gemcitabine plus carboplatin as the neoadjuvant treatment in locally advanced breast cancer. |
What is the name of the chromosome 21 trisomy? | Identification of foetal brain proteins by two-dimensional gel electrophoresis and mass spectrometry comparison of samples from individuals with or without chromosome 21 trisomy. |
What is the effect of a zonisamide overdose? | Moderate toxic effects following acute zonisamide overdose. |
What criteria are excluded from the Exclusion criteria? | Exclusion criteria |
What is the most abundant element in the body? | Phosphorus is the sixth most abundant element in the body after oxygen, hydrogen, carbon, nitrogen, and calcium. It comprises about 1% of the total body weight of humans. Eighty-five percent of it is stored in the bone in the form of hydroxyapatite crystal; 14% is in the soft tissues in the form of energy-storing bonds with nucleotides (ATP, GTP), nucleic acids in chromosomes and ribosomes, 2,3-DPG in the red blood cells, and phospholipids in the cells' membranes. Less than 1% is in the extracellular fluids. Phosphate balance is maintained by multiple systems. The gut is responsible for the absorption of two thirds of the 4-30 mg/kg/day of phosphate intake. Absorption sites are all along the gut; in humans the most active site is the jejunum. The kidney filters 90% of the plasma phosphate and reabsorbs it in the tubuli. In states of hypophosphatemia the kidney can reabsorb the filtered phosphates very efficiently, reducing the amount excreted in the urine virtually to zero. The healthy kidney can excrete high loads of phosphate and rid the body of phosphate overload. Through the vitamin D-PTH axis the endocrine system regulates the phosphate balance by influencing the kidney, gut, and bone. Other hormones, including thyroid, insulin, glucagon, glucocorticosteroid, and thyrocalcitonin, play a lesser role in regulation of phosphate metabolism. Because of the complex control of phosphate homeostasis, various clinical conditions may lead to hypophosphatemia. These include nutritional repletion, gastrointestinal malabsorption, use of phosphate binders, starvation, diabetes mellitus, and increased urinary losses due to tubular dysfunction. The clinical picture of phosphate depletion is manifested in different organs and is due mainly to the fall in intracellular levels of ATP and decreased availability of oxygen to the tissues, secondary to 2,3-DPG depletion. The various manifestations of phosphate depletion are listed in Table 2. The treatment of hypophosphatemia consists of administering enteral or parenteral phosphate salts. An important aspect of dealing with the potentially serious effects of phosphate depletion is to prevent the depletion from happening in the first place. Hyperphosphatemia can occur in renal failure, hemolysis, tumor lysis syndrome, and rhabdomyolysis. The treatment of hyperphosphatemia usually consists of fluid administration (in the absence of kidney failure). In chronic hyperphosphatemia, phosphate binders such as aluminum and magnesium salts can reduce the phosphate load. The use of these phosphate binders is limited by their potential side effects. |
What is the adenovirus clinical isolate? | Differential susceptibility of adenovirus clinical isolates to cidofovir and ribavirin is not related to species alone. |
What is the purpose of the chemoembolisation registry? | The application of transarterial chemoembolisation (TACE) using LifePearl Microspheres loaded with Irinotecan in liver-only or liver-dominant metastatic disease in patients with colorectal adenocarcinoma will be observed. The registry has the following objectives: |
What is the name of the abnormalities in screening Cardiovascular parameters? | - Significant abnormalities in screening Cardiovascular parameters (blood pressure, pulse). |
What was the time to defervescence of fever from the onset of antibiotic treatment? | The treatment of Staphylococcus aureus septicaemia continues to be an important clinical challenge. Spikes of fever during antibiotic therapy complicate assessment of the response. In an attempt to analyse response to treatment in terms of resolution of fever we have retrospectively studied 17 patients with microbiologically proven S. aureus septicaemia. The data from temperature charts of such patients were converted to Cusum plots and analysed in order to estimate time to defervescence of fever and time to abolition of fever following the start of antibiotic therapy. Compared with conventional temperature charts, the Cusum data allowed defervescence of fever to be clearly seen. When the Cusum data were used, the time to defervescence of fever from the onset of antibiotic treatment was 21.7 h (range 8-96 h) and to abolition of fever 58.3 h (range 12-180 h). Antibiotic treatment was changed in 61% of patients on the basis of continued fever shown on the conventional temperature chart. In all of these patients, however, the Cusum plot showed clear evidence of response. |
What is the name of the ER stress that can trigger the expression of MCP-1? | Epigenetics plays a key role in the pathogenesis of diabetic nephropathy (DN), although the precise regulatory mechanism is still unclear. Here, we examined the role of endoplasmic reticulum (ER) stress in histone H3 lysine 4 (H3K4) methyltransferase SET7/9-induced monocyte chemoattractant protein-1 (MCP-1) expression in the kidneys of db/db mice. Our results indicate that the expression of MCP-1 significantly increased in the kidneys of db/db mice in a time-dependent manner. An increased chromatin mark associated with an active gene (H3K4me1) at MCP-1 promoters accompanied this change in expression. The expression of SET7/9 and the recruitment to these promoters were also elevated. SET7/9 gene silencing with small interfering (si) RNAs significantly attenuated the expression of H3K4me1 and MCP-1. Furthermore, expression of signaling regulator glucose-regulated protein 78 (GRP78), a monitor of ER stress, significantly increased in the kidneys of db/db mice. The expression of spliced X-box binding protein 1 (XBP1s), an ER stress-inducible transcription factor, and recruitment to the SET7/9 promoters were also increased. XBP1s gene silencing with siRNAs significantly attenuated the expression of SET7/9, H3K4me1, and MCP-1. The chaperone betaine not only effectively downregulated the GRP78 and XBP1s expression levels but also markedly decreased the SET7/9, H3K4me1, and MCP-1 levels. Luciferase reporter assay demonstrated that XBP1s participated in ER stress-induced SET7/9 transcription, Taken together, these results reveal that ER stress can trigger the expression of MCP-1, in part through the XBP1s-mediated induction of SET7/9. |
What is the melatonin hypothesis? | Although the pineal gland was described 2,300 years ago, its functions remained obscure and productive research was limited until 1958, when Lerner and associates defined melatonin. In 1965 Wurtman and Axelrod advanced the "melatonin hypothesis," according to which the pineal gland acts as a transducer responding to changes in circumambient light by changing its rates of melatonin output. Sites and mechanisms of melatonin action are still poorly understood. Two consistent effects are the induction of sleep and an antigonadotropic influence on reproductive structure and behavior. The former is demonstrable and clinically useful in human subjects; the latter has been shown in birds, rodents, and sheep. Alteration of skin color by the contraction of melanophores was effected by pineal extracts before the discovery of melatonin. This phenomenon, seen in reptiles, amphibians, and fish, has received little recent attention. Areas of greater interest and potential importance include the antimitotic effects of melatonin on some types of tumor cells in culture and the apparent in vivo protection of immunocompetent lymphocytes during chronic stress, which reduces the functional capacity of lymphocytes in control rodents. Clinical application of the antimitotic and immunosupportive properties of melatonin seems likely in the near future. Unfortunately, this innocent molecule has been touted in two recent books and many advertisements as an aphrodisiac, rejuvenator, protector against disease, and general wonder-worker. Because interest in melatonin is high, all physicians can expect questions and may have use for the information provided in this review. |
What benefit has Acticam shown during the studies? | What benefit has Acticam shown during the studies? |
What is the main antibiotic used as? | Netilmicin, which is mainly used as the sulfate, is a semisynthetic, water soluble aminoglycoside antibiotic obtained by chemical modification of sisomicin. It is active against both Gram-positive and Gram-negative bacteria, including strains which are resistant to other aminoglycosides. Netilmicin form complexes with melanin. The aim of the presented work was to examine the effect of Cu2+, Zn2+, Ca2+ and Mg2+ on netilmicin binding to synthetic DOPA-melanin. It has been demonstrated that metal ions decrease the amount of antibiotic bound to melanin as compared with netilmicin-melanin complexes obtained in the absence of metals. It has been also shown that only one class of binding sites participates in netilmicin-[melanin-metal ion] complexes formation with the association constant K approximately 10(3) M(-1). The obtained results demonstrate that Cu2+, Zn2+, Ca2+ and Mg2+ ions modify the interaction between netilmicin and melanin biopolymer. The blocking of some active centers in melanin molecules by metal ions, which potentially exist in living systems, may influence the clinical therapeutic efficiency as well as the undesirable side effects of netilmicin. |
What is blood samples for DNA analysis? | - blood samples for DNA analysis, serum samples |
What is the name of the DSS that can help in the quality control of clinical decision making | Rare cases are a central problem when an expert system is constructed from example cases with machine learning techniques. It is difficult to make a decision support system (DSS) to cover all possible clinical cases. An inductive learning program can be used to construct an expert system for detecting cases that differ from routine cases. The ID3 algorithm and the pessimistic pruning algorithm were tested in this study: a DSS was built directly from the data of patient records. A decision tree was generated, and the cases misclassified by the decision tree as compared with the classifications of a clinician were listed on a checklist, which formed the feedback to the clinician. In clinical situations about 5-10% of functional thyroid disorders may be misclassified. At this error level, the method found over 90% of the errors with a specificity of 95%. In simple medical classification tasks this dynamic self-learning system can be used to create a DSS that can assist in the quality control of clinical decision making. |
What is the name of the dose that is given to the MMF? | 1. Contraindication to receiving MMF (CellCept) or increasing CellCept dose. |
Are undergoing oral or pharyngeal irradiation with a | - Are undergoing oral or pharyngeal irradiation with a cumulative dose > 35Gy with at least 1/2 of the salivary tissue contained within the field of treatment. |
What is the comprehensive program of psychosocial care for mastectomy patients? | A comprehensive program of psychosocial care for mastectomy patients. |
What is the positive urine pregnancy test? | - Positive urine pregnancy test (women only) |
What is the effect of decreased cortisol-binding proteins on STC? | A high frequency of adrenal dysfunction (AD) has been reported in severe acute hepatitis (SAH) using the dosage of serum total cortisol (STC). Because 90% of circulating serum cortisol is bound to proteins that are altered in SAH, we aimed to investigate the effect of decreased cortisol-binding proteins on STC, serum free cortisol (SFC) and salivary cortisol (SalivCort) in SAH. |
What is the name of the coagulology that is used to describe the coagulology of | [Tasks of present-day coagulology]. |
What is the effect of sham-operation? | BACKGROUND: Administration of dehydroepiandrosterone (DHEA) has been demonstrated to improve survival and cellular immune functions during systemic inflammation. Although there is evidence that the time point of drug application may profoundly affect the DHEA-induced effects the impact of this parameter remains to be established. METHODS: Male NMRI mice were subjected to sham-operation (laparotomy) or sepsis (cecal ligation and puncture). Animals received saline or DHEA (20 mg/kg/d) given subcutaneously either 1 h before or 8 h after induction of CLP. Termination of animals was performed 48 h after induction of sepsis in order to monitor splenocyte proliferation ((3)H-thymidine incorporation assay), splenocyte apoptosis (annexin V binding capacity), and cytokine release (IL-1beta and IL-6, enzyme-linked immunoassay (ELISA). RESULTS: DHEA administration improved the survival rate of septic mice 48 h after induction of CLP independent of the time point of application (44% versus 75% pretreatment groups; 47% versus 78% treatment groups). This effect was paralleled by a restoration of splenocyte proliferation, a decreased cellular apoptosis rate of splenocytes, and a modulation of pro-inflammatory cytokine release. CONCLUSIONS: Administration of DHEA either given before or after the development of clinical apparent septic symptoms reliably improves survival and cellular immune functions in a murine model of sepsis. |
How many molars were fissure sealed? | AIM: This was to assess the clinical performance of two different polymerization regimens of a non-rinse conditioning self/etching adhesive/sealant system (Adper Prompt-L-Pop, 3M ESPE) placed in recently erupted first permanent molars in two paediatric dental practices. METHODS: A total of 40 healthy 5 to 8 year old patients (20 from each practice) presenting at least two caries-free recently erupted first permanent molars participated in this preliminary test. A total of 128 molars were fissure sealed (FS) and cured with two different curing regimens. Group 1 (64 teeth) used Adper L-Pop + Clinpro as a one-step cure regimen. Group 2 (64 teeth) used Adper L-Pop + Clinpro with a two-step cure regimen using cotton-roll isolation. Sealants were evaluated 6 to 12 months after placement. RESULTS: No differences were found in the ratings between the two polymerization regimens. In Group 1, 28 molars recorded FS fully retained rated A, 29 were rated B (partially missing) and 7 sealants were completely lost (C). In Group 2, 30 molars were rated A, another 30 scored B and 4 molars were totally lost (C). CONCLUSION: The poor performance of both FS polymerization regimens of the non-rinse conditioning self/etching adhesive/sealant system (Adper Prompt-L-Pop, 3M ESPE) placed in recently erupted first permanent molars in the present test does not justify its use in young children. |
What do interferons exert their cellular activities? | Interferons exert their cellular activities by binding to specific membrane receptors on the cell surface. |
What is the exclusion criteria? | Exclusion Criteria: |
What was the AUC of raloxifene in this group? | Systemic exposure (AUC) of raloxifene in this group was approximately 400 times that in postmenopausal women administered a 60 mg dose. |
What was the SW-ERP? | Previous research has indicated that the auditory ERPs of children are dominated by a frontal negative slow-wave. This paper outlines a preliminary attempt to separate event-related low-frequency activity from traditional ERP components as found in older subjects. An active auditory oddball task was completed by 30 normal children aged from 8 to 18 years, and ERPs to target and standard stimuli were derived. The original ERP files were digitally filtered to calculate separate ERPs containing only 0.01-2 Hz activity (termed the SW-ERP) or 2-12 Hz activity (termed the RESIDUAL ERP) for each subject. The SW-ERP was maximally correlated with the slow-wave factor from a principal components analysis of the original target and standard waveforms. The SW-ERPs to target stimuli contained an early negative component which showed an age-related decrease, and a late positive component which did not. The SW-ERP was found to be partly responsible for the differences in component amplitude and morphology between sites observed in the raw ERPs. |
What was the maximum ATP consumption associated with calcium uptake? | Isometric ATP consumption and force were investigated in mechanically skinned fibres from iliofibularis muscle of Xenopus laevis. Measurements were performed at different [Ca2+], in the presence and absence of caffeine (5 nM). In weakly Ca2+-buffered solutions without caffeine, spontaneous oscillations in force and ATPase activity occurred. The repetition frequency was [Ca2+]-and temperature-dependent. The Ca2+ threshold (+/- SEM) for the oscillations corresponded to a pCa of 6.5 +/- 0.1. The maximum ATP consumption associated with calcium uptake by the sarcoplasmic reticulum (SR) reached during the oscillations was similar to the activity under steady-state conditions at saturating calcium concentrations in the presence of caffeine. Maximum activity was reached when the force relaxation was almost complete. The calculated amount of Ca2+ taken up by the SR during a complete cycle corresponded to 5.4 +/ 0.4 mmol per litre cell volume. In strongly Ca2+-buffered solutions, caffeine enhanced the calcium sensitivity of the contractile apparatus and, at low calcium concentrations, SR Ca uptake. These results suggest that when the SR is heavily loaded by net Ca uptake, there is a massive calcium-induced calcium release. Subsequent net Ca uptake by the SR then gives rise to the periodic nature of the calcium transient. |
What is the name of the female lactating female? | - Lactating females |
What is the prostate's adenocarcinoma? | - Histologically confirmed adenocarcinoma of the prostate |
What is the histologically confirmed advanced solid tumor? | - histologically confirmed advanced solid tumors |
Powder and solvent for suspension for injection | Powder and solvent for suspension for injection |
What is the exclusion criteria? | Exclusion Criteria: |
What is a potential sensitive endogenous MRI contrast to map variations in tissue oxygenation | Mapping of oxygen by imaging lipids relaxation enhancement: A potential sensitive endogenous MRI contrast to map variations in tissue oxygenation. |
What is the clinical implications for understanding and treating cholestasis? | Molecular regulation of hepatobiliary transport systems: clinical implications for understanding and treating cholestasis. |
- Prior treatment of brain metastases with WBRT and/or SRS? | - Prior treatment of brain metastases with WBRT and/or SRS; |
What is the effect of TGF-beta 1 on serum-stimulated proliferation | 1. This study examined the role of protein kinase C (PKC) on the action of transforming growth factor-beta 1 (TGF-beta 1) to regulate the proliferation of vascular smooth muscle cells (VSMC) isolated from the aorta of the spontaneously hypertensive rat (SHR). 2. Down-regulation of PKC by prolonged exposure to phorbol 12-myristate 13-acetate (PMA) completely inhibited the ability of TGF-beta 1 to potentiate epidermal growth factor-stimulated proliferation of VSMC. 3. In contrast, the inhibitory effect of TGF-beta 1 on serum-stimulated proliferation of VSMC was not altered by PMA action. 4. These results suggest that PKC-dependent signalling pathways involved in the regulation of growth by TGF-beta 1 may be important in any proliferative component of vascular hypertrophy that develops in the SHR. |
What is the resistance of Candida albicans to fluconazole during treatment of or | Resistance of Candida albicans to fluconazole during treatment of oropharyngeal candidiasis in a patient with AIDS: documentation by in vitro susceptibility testing and DNA subtype analysis. |
What is the name of the cells that contain Era-1 mutant protein? | Up-regulation of yggG promotes the survival of Escherichia coli cells containing Era-1 mutant protein. |
What is the frequency of HLA-DR5 alloantigens? | The frequency of HLA-A, -B, and -DR alloantigens was studied in 46 patients with primary Sjogren's syndrome (pSS), 14 patients with secondary Sjogren's syndrome (sSS) and rheumatoid arthritis (RA), 26 classical RA patients without clinical or histologic evidence of Sjogren's syndrome (SS) and 172 normal controls. A statistically significant increase in the frequency of HLA-DR5 alloantigen was observed in the pSS patients, compared with the controls (P less than 0.007, corrected). No differences were detected between pSS patients with or without extraglandular manifestations, nor were any found between anti-Ro(SSA) positive and negative patients. The frequency of HLA-DR3 alloantigen (30%) was not significantly higher in our pSS population than in controls (25%), nor was that of -DR4 in the RA or the sSS patients. The results of the present study indicate that the 'SS susceptibility gene' in Greek patients is linked with the HLA-DR5 expression gene and they support the hypothesis that the fundamental pSS gene may belong to another locus. |
What is the color Doppler energy imaging? | Betamethasone treatment and fetal lung perfusion evaluated with color Doppler energy imaging. |
What is the NAME of the MEDICINAL PRODUCT? | NAME OF THE MEDICINAL PRODUCT |
What was the risk of IR associated with flushers? | BACKGROUND: Facial flushing responses to drinking, because of intolerance to alcohol, are observed in some people, especially Asians. This study examined the role of flushing responses in the relationship between alcohol consumption and insulin resistance (IR). METHODS: Participants in this cross-sectional analysis included 624 Korean men (80 nondrinkers, 306 nonflushing drinkers, and 238 flushing drinkers) who were free of cardiovascular disease and diabetes. Data on the flushing response to drinking and alcohol consumption were collected from medical records. IR was estimated using the Homeostasis Model Assessment (HOMA(IR) ). On the basis of comparisons with nondrinkers, the risk of IR according to the quantity of alcohol consumed per week was analyzed among nonflushers and flushers. RESULTS: After adjusting for age, exercise status, smoking status, BMI, waist circumference, blood pressure, high-density lipoprotein cholesterol, and triglycerides using a logistic regression model, we found a low risk of IR among nonflushers who consumed </=4 drinks (1 drink = 14 g of alcohol) per week (OR = 0.3). In contrast, a higher risk of IR was associated with nonflushers who consumed >20 drinks per week (OR = 3.5). On the other hand, only a higher risk of IR was associated with flushers who consumed >12 drinks per week (>12 to 20 drinks: OR = 4.7; >20 drinks: OR = 3.5). CONCLUSIONS: The amount of drinking associated with the development of IR in flushers was lower than in nonflushers. Additionally, no positive effect of moderate drinking on IR was observed in flushers. The findings support acetaldehyde-derived mechanisms in the development of alcohol-related IR. |
How many patients tested with array CGH? | BACKGROUND: Array CGH is widely used in cytogenetics centres for postnatal constitutional genome analysis, and is now recommended as a first line test in place of G-banded chromosome analysis. At our centre, first line testing by oligonucleotide array CGH for all constitutional referrals for genome imbalance has been in place since June 2008, using a patient vs patient hybridisation strategy to minimise costs. FINDINGS: Out of a total of 13,412 patients tested with array CGH, 8,794 (66%) had array CGH as the first line test. Referral indications for this first line group ranged from neonatal congenital anomalies through to adult neurodisabilities; 25% of these patients had CNVs either in known pathogenic regions or in other regions where imbalances have not been reported in the normal population. Of these CNVs, 46% were deletions or nullisomy, 53% were duplications or triplications, and mosaic imbalances made up the remainder; 87% were <5Mb and would likely not be detected by G-banded chromosome analysis. For cases with completed inheritance studies, 20% of imbalances were de novo. CONCLUSIONS: Array CGH is a robust and cost-effective alternative to traditional cytogenetic methodology; it provides a higher diagnostic detection rate than G-banded chromosome analysis, and adds to the sum of information and understanding of the role of genomic imbalance in disease. Use of novel hybridisation strategies can reduce costs, allowing more widespread testing. |
What is the subject pregnant or lactating? | - Subject is pregnant or lactating or is attempting or expecting to become pregnant during the entire study period |
What was the protein at 45 kDa? | BACKGROUND: Proteins from latex gloves have been documented to trigger occupational latex allergy among health care workers. Allergen characterization of latex glove extract has never been studied in Taiwan. This study aimed to identify allergenic proteins from latex gloves. METHODS: Crude extracts of latex gloves were prepared with phosphate-buffered saline and 20 medical workers with a history of latex allergy were enrolled in this study. The specific IgE antibody was determined by the Pharmacia CAP system and in-house enzyme-linked immunoassay and immunoblotting. The target proteins were excised from two-dimensional PAGE and analyzed by electrospray ionization tandem mass spectrometry. RESULTS: Immunoblotting of glove extracts revealed three IgE-binding proteins at a molecular mass of 45, 30 and 14 kDa. Peptide mass fingerprinting revealed that the protein at 45 kDa, which was recognized by 10% (2/20) of atopic sera tested, was an allergenic lipolytic esterase from Hevea brasiliensis (Hev b 13). The 30- and 14-kDa proteins, which were recognized by 55% (11/20) and 85% (17/20) of patients' sera, were found to be hevamine and rubber elongation factor (Hev b 1), respectively. CONCLUSIONS: Our results indicated that hevamine and Hev b 1 are the major allergens from latex gloves in Taiwan, which differs from the reports in Western countries. |
What is a grade III malignant glioma? | Heterogeneous nuclear ribonucleoproteins and their interactors are a major class of deregulated proteins in anaplastic astrocytoma: a grade III malignant glioma. |
What is the automated quantitative assessment of myocardial perfusion SPECT? | Simplified normal limits and automated quantitative assessment for attenuation-corrected myocardial perfusion SPECT. |
What is the exclusion criteria? | Exclusion Criteria: |
What procedure did coronary procedures take place within 30 days? | - A previous coronary procedure within 30 days |
What is the first visit to the hospital? | - Visit 2 (1.5 month after V1) : first evaluation and second study medication dispensation. |
What is the Abbott IMx automated benchtop immunochemistry analyzer system? | The Abbott IMx automated benchtop immunochemistry analyzer system. |
What is the name of the study that has been performed? | No interaction studies have been performed. |
What was the frequency of potentially inappropriate medication use in the elderly French population? | OBJECTIVE: To estimate the frequency of potentially inappropriate medication use among community-dwelling elderly subjects and to identify socio-demographic factors associated with this use. METHODS: Data were collected in the Three-City Study, a French longitudinal study on vascular factors and cognitive decline. The study population was composed of 9,294 subjects aged 65 years and older, living in the community. Inappropriate medication use was assessed using a list derived from the Beers criteria by a panel of French experts. RESULTS: Nearly 40% of the participants used at least one potentially inappropriate medication: 23.4% used cerebral vasodilators, 9.2% long-acting benzodiazepines and 6.4% drugs with anticholinergic properties. Excluding cerebral vasodilators from the list, the frequency of potentially inappropriate medication use was 21.7%. This use was significantly more frequent among women, older subjects and poorly educated subjects. Adjusted analyses showed that these associations could not be explained by a confounding effect of medical factors. Compared with 13.0% of men with a high educational level, 27.9% of women with a low educational level used at least one potentially inappropriate medication (odds ratio=2.0; 95% confidence interval: 1.7-2.3). CONCLUSION: This study is the first attempt to evaluate the frequency of potentially inappropriate medication use in the elderly French population. Female gender and low socio-economic characteristics reduced the chances of receiving optimal pharmacotherapy. The proportion of elderly subjects receiving potentially inappropriate medication was higher than shown in previous studies. This is mainly explained by differences in the use of cerebral vasodilators. |
What is the mood disorder that affects patients with mood disorder? | 11. patients with mood disorder |
What is the name of the study that focuses on the evaluation of asthma knowledge and quality of | Evaluation of asthma knowledge and quality of life in Hungarian asthmatics. |
What is the major clinical feature associated with severe dengue infections? | BACKGROUND: Although increased capillary permeability is the major clinical feature associated with severe dengue infections the mechanisms underlying this phenomenon remain unclear. Dextran clearance methodology has been used to investigate the molecular sieving properties of the microvasculature in clinical situations associated with altered permeability, including during pregnancy and in various renal disorders. In order to better understand the characteristics of the vascular leak associated with dengue we undertook formal dextran clearance studies in Vietnamese dengue patients and healthy volunteers. METHODOLOGY/PRINCIPAL FINDINGS: We carried out serial clearance studies in 15 young adult males with acute dengue and evidence of vascular leakage a) during the phase of maximal leakage and b) one and three months later, as well as in 16 healthy control subjects. Interestingly we found no difference in the clearance profiles of neutral dextran solutions among the dengue patients at any time-point or in comparison to the healthy volunteers. CONCLUSIONS/SIGNIFICANCE: The surface glycocalyx layer, a fibre-matrix of proteoglycans, glycosaminoglycans, and plasma proteins, forms a complex with the underlying endothelial cells to regulate plasma volume within circumscribed limits. It is likely that during dengue infections loss of plasma proteins from this layer alters the permeability characteristics of the complex; physical and/or electrostatic interactions between the dextran molecules and the glycocalyx structure may temporarily restore normal function, rendering the technique unsuitable for assessing permeability in these patients. The implications for resuscitation of patients with dengue shock syndrome (DSS) are potentially important. It is possible that continuous low-dose infusions of dextran may help to stabilize the permeability barrier in patients with profound or refractory shock, reducing the need for repeated boluses, limiting the total colloid volume required. Formal clinical studies should help to assess this strategy as an alternative to conventional fluid resuscitation for severe DSS. |
What is the substrate for F-ATPases? | Caries-causing oral bacteria such as Streptococcus mutans are protected by the actions of F-ATPases against acid damage in dental plaque acidified by glycolytic acid production or ingestion of acids foods and beverages. Catabolites such as glucose and sucrose were found to enhance the protection of S. mutans and also other oral lactic-acid bacteria against acid killing at lethal pH values as low as 2.5. Protection involved glycolysis with the production of lactate and ATP, which is a substrate for F-ATPases. ATP could also be produced by starved cells apparently through synthase activity of the F-ATPase associated with acid decline. Fluoride and the organic weak-acid indomethacin acted to diminish this protection, as did F-ATPase inhibitors such as dicyclohexylcarbodi-imide. Protection against acid killing involving catabolism and synthase activity is likely to be important for plaque cariogenicity. |
What was the first time that ziprasidone was used? | 2. Sensitivity to or failure to respond to ziprasidone by history or ziprasidone use in previous 3 months |
What is the name of the outbreak of Mayaro virus disease in Belterra? | An outbreak of Mayaro virus disease in Belterra, Brazil. II. Epidemiology. |
What is the goal of this study? | The goal of this study is to develop additional long term data to evaluate the safety and effectiveness of this treatment. |
What is the MULTITEST CMI determined? | Cutaneous delayed-type hypersensitivity responsiveness in lepromatous and borderline lepromatous leprosy patients as determined by MULTITEST CMI. |
What is the name of the principal investigator who has not used any medications during the thirty (30) | 6. Has not used any medications (prescribed or over-the-counter including herbal remedies) judged to be significant by the Principal Investigator (PI) during the thirty (30) days preceding the study. |
What is the mandibular condyle in juvenile chronic arthritis patients with man | The mandibular condyle in juvenile chronic arthritis patients with mandibular hypoplasia: a clinical and histological study. |
BNP greater than 500 BNP? | - BNP greater than 500 |
What is the name of the 4-hydroxytamoxifen applied? | Cutaneously applied 4-hydroxytamoxifen is not carcinogenic in female rats. |
What is the eternal tooth germ formed at the end of continuously growing teeth? | The eternal tooth germ is formed at the apical end of continuously growing teeth. |
What is the NAME of the MEDICINAL PRODUCT? | NAME OF THE MEDICINAL PRODUCT |
What was the clearance of synhPTH-(1-34)? | The metabolism of added N-terminal and C-terminal synthetic human PTH (synhPTH) fragments was studied in isolated perfused rat livers and in filtering and nonfiltering kidneys. Initial concentrations: synhPTH-(1-34), 14 pmol/liter, synhPTH-(39-84) 85 pmol/liter, synhPTH-(1-84) 3 pmol/liter, or 1000 pmol/liter of each fragment and intact PTH. Clearances were measured by assays specific for intact PTH, N-terminal, midmolecule, and C-terminal immunoreactive PTH. Metabolism of the added PTH into smaller circulating fragments was analyzed by HPLC. The clearance of synhPTH-(1-34) in the filtering kidneys was not significantly different from the clearance of synhPTH-(39-84) and inulin, and HPLC demonstrated no metabolism of synhPTH-(1-34) or synhPTH-(39-84) in the kidneys. The livers did not clear synhPTH-(39-84), while the clearance of synhPTH-(1-34) was significant (P < 0.005). HPLC demonstrated no metabolism of synhPTH-(39-84) by the livers, but extensive metabolism of synhPTH-(1-34). The livers cleared synhPTH-(1-34) significantly (P < 0.05) faster than synhPTH-(1-84). In conclusion, the kidneys cleared N-terminal PTH fragments at the same rate as C-terminal fragments mainly by filtration. The livers cleared N-terminal fragments faster than intact PTH, but did not clear C-terminal fragments. This differential hepatic clearance may play a major role in maintaining the differences between the circulating levels of N-terminal and C-terminal immunoreactive PTH. |
What factors affect the choice of hospital-based ambulatory care by urban poor? | Factors affecting the choice of hospital-based ambulatory care by the urban poor. |
Epilepsy with history of seizures with history of seizures - Epilepsy with history of | - Epilepsy with history of seizures |
What is the TIL available for patients? | 8. Chemotherapy/Cell Infusion Inclusion Criteria - Patients must have adequate TIL available (Turnstile II) |
What is the mechanism of repetitive magnetic stimulation? | Unraveling the cellular and molecular mechanisms of repetitive magnetic stimulation. |
What was the spread of solution after a standardized paravertebral injection? | The spread of solution after a standardized paravertebral injection was studied to determine the precision and predictability of paravertebral spread. The spread of 5 ml of a solution of radiological contrast medium (sodium iothalamate) and local anesthetic mixture after 45 (34 thoracic, 11 lumbar) paravertebral injections was studied in 31 patients by radiography and computed tomography and correlated with the clinical effects. Spread confined to the paravertebral area occurred after only eight (18%) injections. Spread was epidural after 31 (70%) injections and exclusively so in 14 (31%) injections. Mean sensory loss was greater after epidural spread, but a wide range of sensation loss was observed with all patterns of spread. Intrapleural spread occurred after three injections, as did spread into the psoas muscle. In addition, measurements were made of 114 paravertebral spaces in 20 patients by means of computed tomography. Dimensional factors identified as possibly leading to complications of a paravertebral injection included narrow width of the thoracic transverse processes (mean, 3.18 cm; range, 2.1-4.2 cm) and the wide range in paravertebral dimensions. The distance from bony landmarks to pleura frequently fell outside the limits recommended by many standard texts. We conclude that the spread of a small volume of solution after paravertebral injection is imprecise and unpredictable. Neurolytic and diagnostic paravertebral injections performed without the aid of radiological imaging and contrast media should be regarded as hazardous and interpreted with extreme caution. |
What is the serine protease and RNA-stimulated nucleo | The serine protease and RNA-stimulated nucleoside triphosphatase and RNA helicase functional domains of dengue virus type 2 NS3 converge within a region of 20 amino acids. |
What is the main topic of the study? | Regulatory issues concerning the development and circulation of nicotine-containing products: a qualitative study. |
What was the most common association between nocturnal hypoglycaemia and bedtime | AIMS: We quantified the occurrence and duration of nocturnal hypoglycaemia in individuals with Type 1 diabetes treated with continuous subcutaneous insulin infusion (CSII) or multiple-injection therapy (MIT) using a continuous subcutaneous glucose sensor. METHODS: A microdialysis sensor was worn at home by 24 patients on CSII (mean HbA(1c) 7.8 +/- 0.9%) and 33 patients on MIT (HbA(1c) 8.7 +/- 1.3%) for 48 h. Occurrence and duration of nocturnal hypoglycaemia were assessed and using multivariate regression analysis, the association between HbA(1c), diabetes duration, treatment type (CSII vs. MIT), fasting and bedtime blood glucose values, total daily insulin dose and mean nocturnal glucose concentrations, and hypoglycaemia occurrence and duration was investigated. RESULTS: Nocturnal hypoglycaemia < or = 3.9 mmol/l occurred in 33.3% of both the CSII- (8/24) and MIT-treated patients (11/33). Mean (+/- sd; median, interquartile range) duration of hypoglycaemia < or = 3.9 mmol/l was 78 (+/- 76; 57, 23-120) min per night for the CSII- and 98 (+/- 80; 81, 32-158) min per night for the MIT-treated group. Multivariate regression analysis showed that bedtime glucose value had the strongest association with the occurrence (P = 0.026) and duration (P = 0.032) of nocturnal hypoglycaemia. CONCLUSIONS: Microdialysis continuous glucose monitoring has enabled more precise quantification of nocturnal hypoglycaemia occurrence and duration in Type 1 diabetic patients. Occurrence and duration of nocturnal hypoglycaemia were mainly associated with bedtime glucose value. |
What is the name of Iran's HIV infection? | The purpose of this study was to assess the possible correlation between Brucella and HIV infections. Iran is a country where HIV infection is expanding and Brucellosis is prevalent. In the present study, 184 HIV infected patients were assigned and for all of them HIV infection was confirmed by western blot test. In order to identify the prevalence rate of Brucella infection and systemic brucellosis in these subjects, sera samples were obtained and Brucella specific serological tests were performed to reveal antibody titers. Detailed history was taken and physical examination was carried out for all of patients. 11 (6%) subjects had high titers but only 3 of them were symptomatic. Most of these subjects were injection drug user (IDU) men and one was a rural woman. Considering both prevalence rates of Brucella infection (3%) and symptomatic brucellosis (0.1%) in Iran, our HIV positive patients show higher rates of Brucella infection and systemic brucellosis. Preserved cellular immunity of participants and retention of granulocytes activity may explain this poor association; whereas other explanations such as immunological state difference and non-overlapping geographical distribution of the 2 pathogens have been mentioned by various authors. |
What is the first large scale study using MBI? | To the best of our knowledge, this is the first large scale study using MBI in this indication. |
What was the mean number of blood components transfused per patient? | BACKGROUND: The prevailing clinical opinion is that patients undergoing repeat coronary artery bypass graft (CABG) operation require more blood transfusions than do patients undergoing primary CABG operation. To determine the extent of this increased demand and the variables responsible for it, the cases of 196 patients who had undergone primary procedures and 65 patients who had had repeat procedures at the same institution were reviewed. STUDY DESIGN AND METHODS: To analyze the differences in transfusion requirements for these two groups, the following data were obtained: number of transfusions given between the time of surgery and the time of hospital discharge; preoperative hemoglobin (Hb), hematocrit (Hct), prothrombin time, and platelet count; Hb and Hct at hospital discharge; time the patient was on cardiopulmonary bypass; number and type of grafts; estimates of intraoperative blood loss; and chest-tube blood shed during the first 48 hours after surgery. RESULTS: The groups were comparable with respect to age, body weight, preoperative Hb and Hct, number of grafts, and aspirin exposure. Patients in the repeat group had 35-percent greater blood loss and required 75-percent more blood components than did the patients undergoing primary procedures. The mean number of blood components transfused per patient was as follows: red cells, 3.8 +/- 0.5 units in repeat patients and 2.2 +/- 0.2 units in primary patients (p = 0.002); platelets, 2.9 +/- 0.9 vs. 1.1 +/- 0.2 (p = 0.043); fresh-frozen plasma, 1.6 +/- 0.4 vs. 0.8 +/- 0.1 (p = 0.044). Analysis of variables by regression method for repeat patients showed a predictive effect of blood loss (p < 0.0001), prolonged time on cardiopulmonary bypass (p < 0.0001), preoperative Hb (p = 0.0003), and aspirin exposure (p = 0.0094) on red cell transfusion rate in repeat patients (R-square = 0.7778, Prob > f = 0.0001). CONCLUSION: Repeat CABG patients have higher transfusion rates. These findings may be attributed to the increased microvascular bleeding, prolonged time on cardiopulmonary bypass, lower preoperative Hb, and the use of preoperative antiplatelet medications. |
What year did Cerebral aneurysm occur? | - Cerebral aneurysm or intracranial bleed in past year |
What did the treatment of Carnosine and taurine reduce? | Carnosine and taurine treatments decreased oxidative stress and tissue damage induced by D-galactose in rat liver. |
How many patients had hypertrophied LV and a high incidence of hypertension? | One hundred and seventy-two patients (110 were greater than or equal to 65 years and 62 were less than 65 years) with congestive heart failure (CHF) were prospectively evaluated to determine various pathophysiologic mechanisms of CHF. The incidence of CHF with normal left ventricular (LV) systolic function was higher in elderly (30% vs 12%, p less than 0.05). Of the 110 elderly patients, LV systolic function was impaired in 77. Fifty-five patients had LV dilatation without increased wall thickness, and the clinical diagnosis was "dilated cardiomyopathy in the elderly". Twenty-two patients had hypertrophied LV and a high incidence of hypertension, and they were diagnosed as "hypertensive heart failure" due to contractile dysfunction. On the contrary, the remaining 33 patients did not have impaired LV contractile function. Thirteen patients lacking LV hypertrophy had enlarged atria. CHF was induced by reduced chamber compliance called "the stiff heart syndrome". Twenty patients had hypertrophied LV and a high incidence of hypertension. They were diagnosed as having "hypertensive hypertrophic cardiomyopathy of the elderly" and abnormalities of diastolic function accounted for the CHF. Since echocardiography can easily and accurately diagnose the pathophysiologic mechanism of CHF, an increased awareness of its occurrence in the elderly and use of echocardiography would reduce diagnostic and therapeutic errors. |
What is the best validated technique for iron detection? | BACKGROUND: Monitoring iron deposition became possible with new dedicated quantitative MRI sequences. These sequences hold promise to determine the role of iron in Alzheimer's disease (AD). It is currently unclear as to whether iron accumulation is pathogenically involved in AD or solely represents an epiphenomenon of the neurodegenerative process. OBJECTIVE: We discuss currently available MR methods for quantitative iron mapping in the brain and provide an overview of results in animal models as well as in AD patients. METHODS: A short literature review was used for analysis. RESULTS: R2*-based imaging is the best validated technique for iron detection. Current research applications include amyloid plaque detection in postmortem brains and in transgenic animal models and quantitative iron mapping in gray matter. AD patients have increased iron levels in the putamen, pulvinar thalamus, red nucleus, hippocampus, and temporal cortex. The clinical consequences of this finding and the dynamics of iron accumulation in AD are widely unknown. CONCLUSIONS: MRI allows to quantitatively map iron accumulation in the brain. The clinical significance of increased iron levels in AD needs to be determined in both cross-sectional and longitudinal studies. The advent of ultra-high field imaging in clinical applications will increase image resolution and will allow in vivo iron detection in neocortical structures in AD patients both cross-sectionally and longitudinally. |
What is the role of antioxidant status? | BACKGROUND AND AIMS: Immigrant women from the Middle East have higher cardiovascular risk compared to native women. Whether low antioxidant intake, oxidative stress or inflammation contributes to risk is unknown. In a cross-sectional study of 157 randomly selected foreign-born women (Iranian and Turkish) and native women living in Sweden, we investigated antioxidant status, oxidative stress (F(2)-isoprostanes) and systemic inflammation (plasma high sensitive C-reactive protein; CRP) markers. We also investigated relationships between F(2)-isoprostanes, CRP and cardiovascular risk factors. METHODS AND RESULT: Dietary intake was assessed using 24-h dietary recalls repeated four times. Micronutrient intake was not consistently different between groups. Serum alpha-tocopherol, but not gamma-tocopherol levels, was lower in Turkish vs. Swedish women (P<0.05). Turkish women had the highest F(2)-isoprostane levels (P<0.05 vs. Iranian women) and CRP levels (P<0.01 vs. Swedish women and P=0.05 vs. Iranian women). In immigrants (n=97), F(2)-isoprostanes correlated positively to insulin levels (r=0.31, P<0.01), and CRP was correlated to obesity and several cardiovascular risk factors (r-values >0.21, P values <0.05). CONCLUSION: The role of antioxidant status is unclear, whereas signs of oxidative stress and inflammation are evident in immigrant women from Middle East, especially Turkish women. Oxidative stress and low-grade inflammation might contribute to the higher cardiovascular risk previously observed in immigrant women. Further larger studies adjusting for more potential confounders are motivated to confirm these results. |
What is the Canadian? | - Canadian; stratified by province |
What is the immunobiology of diseases that affect the inner ear discussed? | Immunologic mechanisms may play an etiologic role in ear disease, and many disorders long considered idiopathic are now being examined for such an immunologic basis. While it is possible that many of these idiopathic diseases will ultimately prove not to be immunologically mediated, the outcome of these research endeavors will certainly clarify some of the basic mechanisms of host immunity involved in ear disease. The immunobiology of diseases that affect the inner ear is discussed from both experimental and clinical viewpoints. |
What is the recent research on yoga and what? | [Recent medical research on yoga and states of concentration]. |